Free HESI LPN Nursing Leadership and Management practice for HESI Leadership and Management Quizlet (HESI LPN). Answer 49 nursing exam-style questions with rati
Which of the following strategies can help improve patient adherence to treatment plans?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Providing clear and understandable instructions can help improve patient adherence to treatment plans. Clear instructions help patients better understand their treatment plans, leading to increased compliance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Using medical jargon can confuse patients and reduce adherence. Limiting patient education deprives patients of essential information needed for adherence. Ignoring patient feedback can lead to misunderstandings and hinder the patient's commitment to the treatment plan.
Round off these numbers to the nearest tenth:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. When rounding off to the nearest tenth, 1.027 becomes 1.0 because the digit in the hundredth's place is less than 5. For the other numbers, they are rounded correctly to the nearest tenth: 5.5778 = 5.6, 62.999 = 63, 55.123 = 55.1, 96.676 = 96.7. Therefore, option B is the most accurate in rounding off these numbers to the nearest tenth. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not round 1.027 to 1.0 as required when rounding to the nearest tenth.
A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has anorexia nervosa. Which of the following interdisciplinary team members should be consulted in regards to client care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A case manager is the most appropriate interdisciplinary team member to consult for a client with anorexia nervosa. They can help coordinate care, resources, and communication between various healthcare professionals involved in the client's treatment. Consulting an occupational therapist (Choice A) may not directly address the primary concerns associated with anorexia nervosa. While nutritional therapists (Choice C) play a role in addressing nutritional needs, a case manager is better suited for overall care coordination. Mental health counselors (Choice D) focus more on emotional and psychological aspects, whereas a case manager coordinates practical aspects of care.
Jansen is receiving metformin (Glucophage). What will be the best plan of the nurse with regard to patient education with this drug? Select one that does not apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct choice that does not apply is A. Metformin does not stimulate the pancreas to produce more insulin; instead, it works by decreasing sugar production in the liver, inhibiting carbohydrate absorption, and reducing insulin resistance. It is recommended to take metformin with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Option B is incorrect as metformin is usually taken with meals. Option D is also incorrect as metformin does not inhibit the absorption of carbohydrates.
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a left leg below-the-knee amputation. Which of the following client statements indicates the potential need for a referral to an occupational therapist?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client's statement about adjusting to using crutches while recovering suggests a potential need for occupational therapy referral. Occupational therapists assist individuals in regaining independence in activities of daily living, including mobility aids and adaptations. Choices B, C, and D are more indicative of emotional or financial concerns and may require referrals to other healthcare professionals like counselors or financial advisors, rather than occupational therapists.
Select the stage of viral hepatitis that is accurately paired with its characteristic(s).
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The post-icteric stage of viral hepatitis is accurately described as the stage where jaundice and dark urine occur due to the accumulation of bilirubin. The resolution of jaundice and normalization of urine color are seen in this stage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. In the prodromal stage, symptoms like fatigue and malaise appear before jaundice. The icteric stage is characterized by jaundice, not flu-like symptoms. The pre-icteric stage does not typically involve elevated urine bilirubin levels, as this occurs after the icteric stage.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to the parent of a toddler who has a new diagnosis of asthma. The parent states she is unable to afford the nebulizer prescribed for the child. Which of the following referrals should the nurse recommend?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Social worker. A social worker can assist the parent in finding resources to afford the nebulizer. While a pharmacist may provide information about medications and devices, they may not have direct resources to address financial concerns. A respiratory therapist focuses on respiratory care but may not specialize in financial assistance. Referring to child protective services is not appropriate in this scenario as the parent's inability to afford a nebulizer does not indicate neglect or abuse.
In which position will you place your patient when they are demonstrating the signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A, the Trendelenburg position. This position involves placing the patient with their legs elevated higher than their head. It is used to increase blood flow to the upper body, including the brain and heart, in cases of hypovolemic shock. This helps improve perfusion to vital organs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not facilitate the desired redistribution of blood flow needed in hypovolemic shock. The supine position is lying flat on the back, the left lateral position is lying on the left side, and the right lateral position is lying on the right side.
You are caring for a neonate who has a cleft palate. You should inform the mother that surgical correction will be done when the infant is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 8 to 12 months of age. Surgical correction for a cleft palate is typically performed around this age to optimize speech development and prevent feeding difficulties. Options B, C, and D suggest later ages for surgery, which may lead to speech and feeding issues due to the delay in correction.
Which technique or method is used to determine whether or not the patient has an irregular pulse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An apical pulse check is used to determine if the patient has an irregular pulse. The apical pulse is located at the point of maximal impulse (PMI) and is assessed using a stethoscope. Choice B, inspection, involves visual examination and is not used to assess pulse irregularities. Choice C, auscultation, involves listening to internal sounds using a stethoscope, which can be used to assess heart sounds but not specifically for pulse irregularities. Choice D, percussion, is a technique used to assess the density of body tissues or detect abnormal masses and is not used to determine pulse irregularities.
Which of the following is an example of a chronic disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Diabetes is classified as a chronic disease because it is a long-term condition that requires ongoing management. Choices A, B, and D, which are the common cold, influenza, and food poisoning, are acute illnesses that typically resolve on their own without long-lasting implications.
Which of the following is an important aspect of healthcare leadership?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Collaborative teamwork is indeed an important aspect of healthcare leadership. In the healthcare field, effective leadership often involves working collaboratively with a team of diverse professionals to provide the best possible care for patients. This approach encourages communication, shared decision-making, and leveraging the expertise of each team member to achieve optimal outcomes. Choices A, C, and D are not ideal aspects of healthcare leadership. Authoritarian decision-making can hinder team morale and creativity, limiting staff input diminishes the value of diverse perspectives, and focusing only on financial outcomes may compromise patient care and staff well-being.
Marlisa has been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 1. She asks Nurse Errol what this means. What is the best response by the nurse? Select the one that does not apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Type 1 diabetes is characterized by the inability of the beta cells in the pancreas to secrete insulin. Choice A is correct because it highlights the role of beta cells. Choice B is accurate as the endocrine function of the pancreas includes insulin secretion. Choice C is true as without insulin, ketoacidosis can develop. Choice D is incorrect as the exocrine function of the pancreas involves secreting digestive enzymes, not estrogen.
A nurse is comparing the rate of medication errors on the medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Which of the following quality improvement methods is the nurse using?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Benchmarking. Benchmarking involves comparing performance metrics with those from other units or institutions, which is exactly what the nurse is doing by comparing the rate of medication errors on their medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Choice A, Structure audit, is not relevant to this scenario as it focuses on assessing the physical, organizational, or procedural structures in a healthcare setting. Choice C, Risk benefit analysis, involves weighing the potential risks and benefits of a particular course of action, not comparing performance metrics. Choice D, Root cause analysis, is a method used to identify the underlying causes of problems or adverse events, not to compare performance metrics between units.
Which of the following is a benefit of the U.S. health-care system?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because the use of technology and electronic health records is projected to decrease health-care costs and improve clinical outcomes, quality, and safety. Choice A is incorrect because it states that very few Americans have no health-care insurance, which is not a benefit of the U.S. health-care system. Choice B may be true, but it does not directly address a benefit of the health-care system. Choice C is not necessarily a benefit but rather a shift in focus, so it is also incorrect.
Which of the following is a key benefit of interprofessional collaboration in healthcare?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Improved patient outcomes are a key benefit of interprofessional collaboration in healthcare. Collaboration among healthcare professionals leads to better coordination of care, reduced medical errors, and improved overall patient satisfaction. The other choices are incorrect because interprofessional collaboration aims to decrease professional isolation, enhance communication among team members, and streamline treatment processes to reduce time spent on patient care.
Insulin forces which of the following electrolytes out of the plasma and into the cells?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Insulin forces potassium out of the plasma and into the cells, which can cause hypokalemia. This is because insulin enhances the activity of the sodium-potassium pump in cell membranes, promoting the movement of potassium from the extracellular fluid into the cells. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as insulin does not directly influence the movement of calcium, magnesium, or phosphorus in the same manner as it does with potassium.
Which individual is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Osgood-Schlatter disease is a condition that commonly affects adolescents who are physically active, especially during growth spurts. It is caused by overuse of the knee, leading to inflammation of the patellar ligament at the tibial tuberosity. The repetitive stress on the growth plate during activities like running and jumping can trigger this condition. Therefore, an adolescent who is physically active and the captain of their soccer team is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease. Choices A, B, and D are not at high risk for this condition as it is primarily seen in active adolescents.
Clients with type 1 diabetes may require which of the following changes to their daily routine during periods of infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During periods of infection, clients with type 1 diabetes may require more insulin to manage the increased blood glucose levels caused by stress and illness. Insulin needs often rise during infections due to the body's increased resistance to the effects of insulin. Therefore, increasing insulin doses is crucial to maintain blood glucose control. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Option A ('No change') is inaccurate because during infections, insulin requirements typically increase. Option B ('Less insulin') is incorrect as the body's increased insulin resistance during infections usually necessitates higher insulin doses. Option D ('Oral antidiabetic agents') is not suitable for type 1 diabetes management as these medications are primarily used for type 2 diabetes.
A patient's serum potassium level is 2.2 mEq/L. Which nursing action is the highest priority for this patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to initiate cardiac monitoring. Severe hypokalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, making cardiac monitoring the priority to detect and manage any cardiac complications. Starting oxygen, seizure precautions, or bed rest are not the immediate priority actions for severe hypokalemia.
Steven John has type 1 diabetes mellitus and receives insulin. Which laboratory test will the nurse assess?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Potassium. Patients with type 1 diabetes receiving insulin are at risk of developing hypokalemia due to insulin's effects on potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because AST, serum amylase, and sodium levels are not directly impacted by insulin therapy in type 1 diabetes and are not the primary concern that needs monitoring in this scenario.
A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's laboratory report and notes that the serum calcium level is 4.0 mg/dL. The healthcare professional understands that which condition most likely caused this serum calcium level?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Prolonged bed rest can lead to hypocalcemia due to decreased mobility and bone resorption. In this scenario, the low serum calcium level of 4.0 mg/dL is likely a result of decreased bone activity and calcium release due to prolonged bed rest. Renal insufficiency would more likely lead to hypercalcemia due to impaired excretion of calcium by the kidneys. Hyperparathyroidism is characterized by increased calcium levels as a result of excess parathyroid hormone. Excessive ingestion of vitamin D can cause hypercalcemia by increasing intestinal absorption of calcium.
A hospice nurse is caring for a client who has a terminal illness and reports severe pain. After the nurse administers the prescribed opioid and benzodiazepine, the client becomes somnolent and difficult to arouse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the provider about replacing the opioid with an NSAID. In this scenario, the client is experiencing excessive sedation after the administration of both opioid and benzodiazepine. Switching to a non-opioid analgesic like an NSAID can help manage pain effectively without causing additional sedation. Option A is incorrect because continuing the opioid may exacerbate sedation. Option C is incorrect as administering the benzodiazepine may further increase sedation. Option D is incorrect because maintaining the current medication dosages that are causing excessive sedation is not in the client's best interest.
The nurse is planning care for a patient with acute hypernatremia. What should the nurse include in this patient's plan of care? (select one that does not apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For a patient with acute hypernatremia, the nurse should include interventions like reducing free water losses, correcting sodium levels slowly, monitoring neurologic status, and ensuring adequate fluid intake. Conducting frequent neurologic checks is essential in assessing the patient's neurological status and detecting any changes promptly. Therefore, this action should not be excluded from the plan of care. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to managing acute hypernatremia and can be safely excluded from the plan of care. Reducing IV access, limiting length of visits, and restricting fluids to 1500 mL per day are not appropriate actions for managing acute hypernatremia.
Which of the following is a common barrier to effective communication in healthcare?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cultural differences are a common barrier to effective communication in healthcare. When individuals from different cultures interact in healthcare settings, varying communication styles, beliefs, values, and language barriers can hinder effective communication. This can lead to misunderstandings, misinterpretations, and ultimately impact the quality of care provided. Active listening (choice A) is a communication skill that helps improve understanding and can actually enhance communication. Clear language (choice C) is essential for effective communication and can help overcome barriers, rather than being a barrier itself. Empathy (choice D) is important in healthcare to understand patients' emotions and perspectives, but it is not a common barrier to effective communication.
During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.
Which of the following is a nursing issue of concern today?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Safe staffing. Safe staffing is a critical issue in nursing today due to its impact on patient outcomes and nurse well-being. While low workloads (choice B) may seem beneficial, they can also indicate understaffing, leading to burnout and compromising patient care. Increasing professional autonomy (choice C) is generally viewed positively as it empowers nurses, and improving salaries (choice D) is important but may not directly address patient safety concerns related to staffing levels.
Which of the following is considered an internal disaster?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A computer hacking episode is considered an internal disaster as it disrupts the internal operations of the healthcare facility, compromising data security and potentially impacting patient care. Choices A, B, and D do not directly relate to internal disasters in a healthcare setting. A patient fall is a patient safety issue, the massive spread of pneumonia is a public health concern, and unexpected staff absences due to illness may affect staffing levels but are not typically classified as internal disasters.
Which of the following is true regarding the Affordable Care Act?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. The Affordable Care Act attempted to address many issues relevant to nursing, such as mandatory overtime, incivility, and high workloads, but it faced significant controversy. Choice A is incorrect as the act did not address nursing issues without controversy. Choice B is incorrect as it inaccurately lists the issues the act addressed. Choice C is incorrect as it does not fully capture the controversy surrounding the Affordable Care Act.
A nurse in a long-term care facility is caring for a client who reports the AP repositioned him in bed using excessive force. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to contact the nurse manager. By doing so, the nurse can escalate the issue appropriately, ensuring that the incident is addressed and necessary actions are taken. Documenting in the client's chart that an incident report has been filed (Choice A) may be necessary but should not be the first step. Reassuring the client that the staff is well trained (Choice C) does not address the client's concern and the need for intervention. Calling risk management to interview the client (Choice D) may be premature at this stage and should be handled by the nurse manager first.
Which of the following is the best way to improve nursing's image?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because taking every chance to engage with the public about nursing allows for the improvement of nursing's image and the promotion of the profession. Choice A is incorrect as uniforms should reflect professionalism rather than personality. Choice B is not directly related to improving nursing's image. Choice C, while important, does not directly address improving the image of nursing through public engagement.
A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for further evaluation and possible intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A biophysical profile of 6 at 35 weeks of gestation indicates a need for further evaluation and possible intervention. A negative Coombs titer at 28 weeks gestation (Choice A) is within normal limits. A negative contraction stress test at 39 weeks gestation (Choice B) is expected as the pregnancy nears term. An L/S ratio of 2:1 at 37 weeks of gestation (Choice D) is consistent with fetal lung maturity.
When a woman has miscarried in three or more consecutive pregnancies, it is referred to as which type of spontaneous abortion?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, 'Habitual.' Habitual abortion is defined as three or more consecutive miscarriages, making it the appropriate term for this situation. Choice A, 'Inevitable,' refers to a miscarriage that cannot be prevented. Choice B, 'Missed,' refers to a miscarriage where the fetus has died but has not been expelled. Choice D, 'Threatened,' refers to a situation where there is bleeding in early pregnancy but the cervix remains closed.
What is a cavity containing pus surrounded by inflamed tissue?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An abscess is defined as a cavity containing pus surrounded by inflamed tissue. Cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection causing redness and swelling, not a cavity. Extravasation is the leakage of fluid from a vessel into surrounding tissues, not a cavity. An adhesion is a band of scar-like tissue that binds two parts together, not a cavity containing pus and inflamed tissue.
What are some of the earliest signs and symptoms of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Clumsiness, difficulty running, climbing, and riding a bicycle are some of the earliest signs and symptoms of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. Duchenne's muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder characterized by progressive muscle degeneration and weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent the typical early signs and symptoms of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. Pain and inflammation in the bones (choice B) are more indicative of conditions like osteomyelitis; deformity of the foot (choice C) is characteristic of talipes or clubfoot; and infection in the joint leading to arthritis (choice D) is more aligned with septic joint or supportive arthritis.
Which manifestation should the nurse expect to assess in a patient with fluid volume deficit?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Orthostatic hypotension and flat neck veins are classic manifestations of fluid volume deficit. When the body loses fluid, blood volume decreases, leading to decreased venous return to the heart, resulting in orthostatic hypotension and flat neck veins. Choices A, B, and C are more indicative of other conditions such as dehydration, respiratory issues, or compensatory mechanisms in response to hypovolemia, respectively.
Which of the following is something a new model for health care in the future should include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because a new model for health care in the future should focus on promoting a healthy environment. This includes initiatives such as green buildings and reducing pollution to improve overall health outcomes. Choice A, community-centered care, is important but not the primary focus when considering the future of healthcare. Choice C, accessible and affordable care, is crucial but does not directly address the need for a healthy environment. Choice D, a focus on local health concerns, is relevant but not as comprehensive as promoting a healthy environment in shaping the future of healthcare.
In developing a disaster management plan for a hospital, which resource should be the highest priority to have available in response to a bioterrorism event?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a bioterrorism event, the highest priority resource to have available is a sufficient supply of personal protective equipment (PPE). PPE is crucial in protecting healthcare workers and other responders from exposure to biological agents. While mental health support, client information tracking systems, and communication networks are important components of disaster management, in the context of a bioterrorism event, ensuring the safety of staff through adequate PPE takes precedence over other resources.
A nurse is preparing to complete an incident report regarding a medication error. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to identify the medication name and dosage administered to the client in the incident report. This information is crucial for accurate documentation and investigation of the medication error. Choice A is incorrect because incident reports are usually kept confidential and not for personal keeping. Choice C is incorrect as obtaining an order from the client's provider is not necessary to complete an incident report. Choice D, while important, is not the only essential information needed for the incident report.
Select the types of pain that are accurately coupled with an example of it. Select all that are correct.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because chronic pain is characterized by lasting for a prolonged period, typically more than 3-6 months, and is not necessarily related to acute injuries like a stab wound to the chest. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately match the type of pain with its corresponding example. Radicular pain is pain that radiates along the nerve path, often from a pinched nerve or herniated disc, not a broken bone. Central neuropathic pain arises from damage to the central nervous system, such as after a stroke, not a leg injury. Peripheral neuropathic pain is caused by damage to the peripheral nerves, such as in diabetic neuropathy, not a fractured leg bone.
Who is credited with the stages of cognitive development?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Piaget is indeed credited with the stages of cognitive development. Jean Piaget, a renowned psychologist, proposed a theory of cognitive development that outlines distinct stages through which children develop intellectually. Erikson, Freud, and Lister are not associated with the stages of cognitive development. Erikson is known for his psychosocial stages, Freud for psychosexual stages, and Lister for contributions to the field of medicine.
Which of the following new opportunities might a new nurse see in the future?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the future, new nurses may see opportunities in transitional care. Transitional care involves the coordination and continuity of healthcare during a movement from one healthcare setting to another. This type of care is increasingly important in today's healthcare landscape due to the focus on improving patient outcomes and reducing hospital readmissions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent emerging opportunities for new nurses in the future. Traditional care and hospital-based care are existing models of care delivery, while care based solely on cost does not align with the holistic approach to patient care that is becoming more prevalent in healthcare.
A client has a new diagnosis of chlamydia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to report the infection to the local health department. Chlamydia is a reportable disease, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to public health authorities for tracking and control measures. Choice B is incorrect because chlamydia is a bacterial infection, not a viral infection, so antiviral cream would not be effective. Choice C is important advice for preventing the spread of chlamydia but is not the priority in this scenario. Choice D is not necessary for chlamydia, as it is primarily transmitted through sexual contact.
A client with DM states, 'I cannot eat big meals; I prefer to snack throughout the day.' The nurse should carefully explain that the:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In clients with diabetes, regulated food intake is crucial for controlling blood glucose levels. Choice A is the correct answer because maintaining consistent meal sizes and timings helps in managing blood sugar levels effectively. Choice B is incorrect because while monitoring salt and sugar intake is important, it is not the primary consideration in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as the focus is on regulating food intake rather than aiding digestion. Choice D is also incorrect because consuming large meals can indeed lead to fluctuations in blood glucose levels, but the primary concern in this case is the regulation of food intake for better control of diabetes.
A nurse is caring for a client who wanders through the halls yelling obscenities at staff, other clients, and visitors. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When dealing with a client exhibiting disruptive behavior like yelling obscenities, involving a family member can provide emotional support and help in de-escalating the situation. Keeping the client isolated in their room (Choice A) may lead to further agitation. Placing the client in a wheelchair (Choice C) or administering a sedative (Choice D) should not be the first interventions for managing behavioral issues.
Although there is projected to be a small surplus of nurses by 2030, some states will continue to see nursing shortages. Which of the following is the best explanation for this situation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best explanation for the continued nursing shortages in some states despite an overall projected surplus by 2030 is workforce availability. This factor directly impacts the number of nurses available in certain regions. Choice A about healthcare legislation affecting nursing salaries does not directly address the availability of nurses. Choice C is incorrect as the aging of the baby boomers would typically imply an older nursing workforce instead of a younger one. Choice D regarding population declines does not necessarily relate to the availability of nurses in specific states.
Wilms' tumor is a form of:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Wilms' tumor is a type of kidney cancer that primarily affects children. The correct answer is A: Renal cancer. This tumor originates in the kidneys and is most commonly found in children, with the peak incidence around 3-4 years of age. Choice B, Liver cancer, is incorrect as Wilms' tumor specifically involves the kidneys, not the liver. Choice C, Basal cell carcinoma, is a form of skin cancer, not related to Wilms' tumor. Choice D, Brain cancer, is incorrect as Wilms' tumor is not associated with the brain but rather with the kidneys.
The doctor has ordered 500 mg of a medication PO once a day. The tablets on hand are labeled as 1 tablet = 250 mg. How many tablets will you administer to your patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the number of tablets needed, divide the total dosage prescribed (500 mg) by the dosage per tablet (250 mg per tablet). 500 mg / 250 mg per tablet = 2 tablets. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 tablets. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.
A client with type 1 DM has a finger stick glucose level of 258mg/dl at bedtime. An order for sliding scale insulin exists. The nurse should:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the client with type 1 DM has a high glucose level at bedtime. The appropriate action for the nurse is to administer the sliding scale insulin as ordered. This insulin regimen is specifically designed to manage high blood glucose levels. Calling the physician is not necessary as the protocol for sliding scale insulin is already in place. Encouraging fluid intake or providing orange juice is not the correct intervention for addressing high blood glucose levels in this case.
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