Free HESI LPN CAT Exams practice for CAT Exam Practice (HESI LPN). Answer 99 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress tracking on N
What actions should the nurse take regarding an older adult male who had an abdominal cholecystectomy and has become increasingly confused and disoriented over the past 24 hours, found wandering into another client's room and returned to his own room by the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this situation, the appropriate action for the nurse to take is to report the mental status change to the healthcare provider. Confusion and disorientation post-surgery can be indicative of various factors, such as electrolyte imbalances or respiratory issues, necessitating comprehensive assessment by the healthcare team. Applying restraints and raising bed rails may not address the underlying cause of the confusion, and assigning the UAP to reassess the client's risk for falls does not directly address the cognitive changes observed.
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has undergone abdominal surgery. What instruction should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Avoid heavy lifting for at least 6 weeks.' After abdominal surgery, it is essential to avoid heavy lifting to prevent complications such as incisional hernias and support proper healing. Choice B, 'Limit fluid intake to reduce the risk of infection,' is incorrect because adequate fluid intake is necessary for wound healing and preventing dehydration. Choice C, 'Resume normal activities as soon as possible,' is incorrect as it may increase the risk of complications and delay healing. Choice D, 'Avoid driving for at least 2 weeks,' is incorrect as the restriction on driving may vary depending on the type of surgery and individual recovery.
A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with diabetes insipidus due to a pituitary gland tumor. Which potential complication should the nurse monitor closely?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. In diabetes insipidus, there is excessive urination leading to fluid loss, which can result in electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Ketonuria is typically seen in diabetic ketoacidosis, peripheral edema is more commonly associated with conditions like heart failure or kidney disease, and elevated blood pressure is not a direct complication of diabetes insipidus related to a pituitary gland tumor.
A male client with diabetes mellitus takes NPH/regular 70/30 insulin before meals and azithromycin PO daily, using medication he brought from home. When the nurse delivers his breakfast tray, the client tells the nurse that he took his insulin but forgot to take his daily dose of azithromycin an hour before breakfast as instructed. What action should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Azithromycin should ideally be taken on an empty stomach; however, if taken after breakfast, it should not affect its efficacy. Instructing the client to eat his breakfast and take the azithromycin two hours after eating allows for proper absorption without compromising its effectiveness. Providing an antacid with azithromycin is not necessary in this case. Offering a new breakfast tray in an hour or skipping the dose is not the best course of action as it may lead to missed doses and potential effectiveness issues.
While changing the pressure ulcer dressing of a client who is immobile, the nurse notes that the boundary edges of the wound have increased. Before reporting this finding to the healthcare provider, the nurse should review which of the client's serum laboratory values?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Albumin. Reviewing albumin levels is crucial in this situation because low albumin levels can impact wound healing and contribute to increased wound edges. Potassium (choice A) is not directly related to wound healing or wound edges. Platelets (choice B) are more related to blood clotting than wound healing. Creatinine (choice C) is related to kidney function, not specifically to wound healing or wound edges.
A 20-year-old male client is diagnosed with Ewing's sarcoma following an examination for a knee injury. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most crucial instruction for the nurse to provide the client is to seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately. Ewing's sarcoma is a type of cancer that necessitates prompt and aggressive treatment for the best possible outcome. While managing pain (Choice A) and monitoring swelling (Choice B) are important, addressing the underlying sarcoma is the priority. Instructing the client to avoid weight-bearing (Choice C) is not directly related to the treatment of Ewing's sarcoma and may not be the most critical instruction at this point.
An adult client presents to the clinic with large draining ulcers on both lower legs that are characteristic of Kaposi's Sarcoma lesions. The client is accompanied by two family members. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to complete a head-to-toe assessment to identify other signs of HIV. Kaposi's Sarcoma is commonly associated with HIV infection, and conducting a comprehensive assessment can provide crucial information on potential signs and symptoms related to HIV. This information is essential for providing appropriate care and treatment. Option A is not the priority at this moment, as the focus should be on assessing the client comprehensively first. Sending the family members away (Option B) may not be necessary if they are not interfering with the assessment process. While infection control is important, asking the family members to wear gloves (Option D) is not the most critical action to take in this situation.
Identify the placement of the stapes footplate into the bony labyrinth.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Fenestra vestibuli. The stapes footplate is placed into the fenestra vestibuli of the bony labyrinth. This structure is also known as the oval window and is located at the junction of the middle ear and inner ear. Choice B, Fenestra cochleae, is incorrect as this opening is also known as the round window and is located near the base of the cochlea. Choice C, Tympanic membrane, is incorrect as it is also known as the eardrum and separates the external ear from the middle ear. Choice D, Round window, is incorrect as it is the opening covered by the secondary tympanic membrane and is important for the dissipation of sound waves in the cochlea.
In Duchenne muscular dystrophy, if a child has a Gower sign, what behavior should the nurse expect the child to exhibit?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Gower sign is a characteristic finding in Duchenne muscular dystrophy where a child uses hands to walk up the legs when standing from a sitting position due to proximal muscle weakness. This behavior is indicative of the child trying to compensate for weak hip and thigh muscles. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the specific behavior associated with the Gower sign. Muscular atrophy, contractures of both hips, and an unsteady gait with foot slapping are not directly related to the Gower sign.
The nurse is assigned to care for a client diagnosed with psoriasis. What behavior by the nurse addresses this client's psychosocial need for acceptance?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging the client to join a support group is the best option to address the client's psychosocial need for acceptance. Support groups provide a sense of belonging, understanding, and acceptance from peers who share similar experiences. This helps the client feel accepted despite their condition. Wearing gloves when providing care, shaking hands during an introduction, and allowing the client to express feelings openly are important but do not directly address the client's need for acceptance.
A client with osteoporosis related to long-term corticosteroid therapy receives a prescription for calcium carbonate. Which client's serum laboratory value requires intervention by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An elevated creatinine level indicates possible renal impairment, which requires intervention. High creatinine levels are associated with decreased kidney function, and in this case, it suggests potential renal issues due to long-term corticosteroid therapy. Monitoring renal function is crucial in clients with osteoporosis on corticosteroid therapy to prevent further complications. Total calcium levels within the normal range are suitable for a client with osteoporosis receiving calcium carbonate. Phosphate and fasting glucose levels do not directly indicate renal impairment in this scenario.
The healthcare provider is evaluating a client for potential dehydration. Which assessment finding is most indicative of fluid volume deficit?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Decreased skin turgor is a classic sign of dehydration. When someone is dehydrated, the skin loses its elasticity and becomes less turgid. This change is easily assessed by gently pinching and pulling up the skin on the back of the hand or forearm. If the skin remains elevated or tents rather than quickly returning to its normal position, it indicates dehydration. Moist mucous membranes (Choice A) are actually a sign of adequate hydration. Increased urine output (Choice B) can be a sign of dehydration, but decreased skin turgor is a more specific indicator. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not typically associated with fluid volume deficit and may indicate other health issues.
While caring for a client with bilateral chest tubes, the bubbling in the water-seal chamber of the right chest tube stops. What action is most important for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important action for the nurse to take when the bubbling in the water-seal chamber of the right chest tube stops is to check the chest tube connections to the water-seal container. This is crucial to ensure there are no disconnections or leaks affecting the bubbling. Replacing the water-seal collection container (choice B) is not necessary unless there is a malfunction; increasing suction (choice C) without assessing the connections can be harmful, and 'milking' the tubing (choice D) is an inappropriate action that can cause damage to the system.
Four clients arrive on the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should the nurse assess first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. A biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8 indicates potential fetal distress, necessitating immediate assessment to ensure the well-being of the fetus. The other options, while important, do not suggest an immediate threat to the fetus' health. The 38-week primigravida with contractions every 10 minutes may be in early labor, the 41-week multigravida scheduled for induction can be assessed after addressing the immediate concern, and the 36-week multigravida with serial blood pressure can be assessed after ensuring the client with potential fetal distress is stabilized.
The nurse is planning care for a client admitted with a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. Which intervention has the highest priority for inclusion in this client's plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Pheochromocytoma is associated with severe hypertension due to excessive catecholamine release. Monitoring blood pressure frequently is the priority intervention to assess for hypertensive crises and prevent complications like stroke, heart attack, or organ damage. While recording urine output every hour, evaluating neurological status, and maintaining seizure precautions are important aspects of care, they are not the highest priority in a client with pheochromocytoma.
When preparing to discharge a male client who has been hospitalized for an adrenal crisis, the client expresses concern about having another crisis. He tells the nurse that he wants to stay in the hospital a few more days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention is to schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment. This option addresses the client's concerns and provides support for managing stress and preventing future crises, which is crucial for the client's long-term care. Administering antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions (Choice A) may not effectively address the underlying concerns. Obtaining a blood cortisol level before discharge (Choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days (Choice D) is not the best course of action as it may not address the client's anxiety and could potentially lead to other issues.
The school nurse is screening students for spinal abnormalities and instructs each student to stand up and then touch their toes. Which finding indicates that a student should be referred for scoliosis evaluation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Asymmetry of the shoulders when standing upright is a common indicator of scoliosis. This finding suggests a possible spinal abnormality and should prompt further evaluation. Choices A, C, and D are not specific indicators of scoliosis. Inability to touch their toes may indicate flexibility issues or tightness in the hamstrings. Audible crepitus when bending may suggest joint degeneration or inflammation. An exaggerated upper thoracic convex curvature could indicate poor posture or other spinal abnormalities but is not directly indicative of scoliosis.
After successful resuscitation, a client is given propranolol and transferred to the Intensive Coronary Care Unit (ICCU). On admission, magnesium sulfate 4 grams IV in 250 ml D5W at one gram/hour. Which assessment findings require immediate intervention by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. A low respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute is indicative of possible magnesium toxicity, which can be a serious condition requiring immediate intervention. It is a critical finding that needs prompt attention to prevent further complications. The other options are not as urgent: A - dark amber urine may indicate dehydration but does not require immediate intervention, B - serum calcium and magnesium levels are within normal limits, C - sinus rhythm and blood pressure values are also within normal range and do not require immediate action.
An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned, and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the scenario described, the nurse notes late decelerations during contractions despite repositioning and oxygen administration. Late decelerations are often associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, which can be exacerbated by increased uterine activity stimulated by oxytocin. The initial action to manage late decelerations is to turn off the oxytocin infusion to reduce uterine stimulation. This step aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth may be necessary if the late decelerations persist or worsen despite discontinuing the oxytocin infusion. Notifying the anesthesiologist to disconnect the epidural infusion or applying an internal fetal monitoring device are not the first-line interventions for managing late decelerations.
A client is admitted with severe dehydration. What is the most important assessment finding for the nurse to monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Changes in mental status are crucial to monitor in a client with severe dehydration. Altered mental status, such as confusion or lethargy, can indicate severe dehydration and potential complications like electrolyte imbalances affecting the brain. Monitoring urine output and color (choice B) is essential but may not provide immediate signs of severe dehydration. While monitoring blood pressure and heart rate (choice C) is important, changes in mental status take precedence as they can indicate more critical conditions. Skin turgor (choice D) is a valuable assessment for dehydration, but changes in mental status take priority due to their direct correlation with severe dehydration.
The parents of a 6-year-old recently diagnosed with asthma should be taught that the symptom of acute episodes of asthma is due to which physiological response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Inflammation of the mucous membrane & bronchospasm. Acute asthma episodes are primarily caused by inflammation of the airways and bronchospasm, which lead to airway obstruction. Increased mucus production and bronchoconstriction (Choice B) are part of the physiological responses in asthma but do not directly cause acute episodes. Allergic reactions and hyperventilation (Choice C) are related to asthma triggers and responses but are not the direct causes of acute episodes. Airway narrowing and decreased lung capacity (Choice D) are consequences of inflammation and bronchospasm but do not explain the physiological response leading to acute asthma episodes.
A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left leg is on a heparin protocol. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to 'Observe for bleeding side effects related to heparin therapy.' This is the most crucial intervention for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) on a heparin protocol. Heparin, being an anticoagulant, increases the risk of bleeding as a side effect. Therefore, close monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, petechiae, or blood in stool or urine, is essential to prevent severe complications. While assessing blood pressure and heart rate (Choice B) is important, it is not as critical as monitoring for bleeding. Measuring calf girth (Choice C) may help evaluate edema but is not as vital as observing for bleeding complications. Encouraging mobilization (Choice D) is beneficial for preventing complications like pulmonary embolism, but in this scenario, monitoring for bleeding takes precedence due to the immediate risk associated with anticoagulant therapy.
A client complains of paresthesia in the fingers and toes and experiences hand spasms when the blood pressure cuff is inflated. Which serum laboratory finding should the nurse expect to find when assessing the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Low serum calcium. Hand spasms and paresthesia are indicative of potential hypocalcemia, which is characterized by low serum calcium levels. Elevated serum calcium (Choice A) is not consistent with the symptoms described. Low serum magnesium (Choice B) and elevated serum potassium (Choice D) are not typically associated with hand spasms and paresthesia.
A mother brings her child, who has a history of asthma, to the emergency room. The child is wheezing and speaking one word between each breath. The child is anxious, tachycardic, and has labored respirations. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because knowing the last dose and type of rescue inhaler used helps assess if the child has received adequate treatment and if further intervention is needed. This information is crucial in managing an acute asthma exacerbation. Choice A, the type of inhaler the child typically uses, is less critical during an emergency. Choice B, the frequency of rescue inhaler use during the week, is important for general asthma management but does not provide immediate guidance in the acute situation. Choice D, the type of allergen exposure or trigger, is more relevant for preventive strategies and does not directly impact the immediate treatment of the child's acute asthma attack.
After implementing a new fall prevention protocol on the nursing unit, which action by the nurse-manager best evaluates the protocol's effectiveness?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best way to evaluate the effectiveness of a new fall prevention protocol is by comparing the number of falls that occurred before and after its implementation. This direct comparison helps in assessing the impact of the protocol on reducing fall rates. Choices B, C, and D do not directly measure the effectiveness of the protocol. Analyzing costs incurred (Choice B), conducting a chart review (Choice C), or consulting with a physical therapist (Choice D) may provide valuable information but do not specifically evaluate the protocol's effectiveness in preventing falls.
Parents who have one male child with sickle cell anemia are concerned about having more children with the disease. What client teaching should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Each child has a 25% chance of having sickle cell anemia if both parents are carriers of the trait. Choice A is incorrect because not all future children will be carriers; some may have the disease. Choice C is incorrect as both male and female children can inherit the sickle cell disease trait. Choice D is incorrect as the chance is not fixed at one out of four; each child has an independent 25% chance of having the disease.
The nurse should explain to a client with lung cancer that pleurodesis is performed to achieve which expected outcome?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Pleurodesis is a procedure used to prevent the re-accumulation of pleural effusion by creating adhesion between the pleurae. This helps prevent the formation of effusion fluid. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pleurodesis is not performed to debulk tumors, relieve empyema after pneumonectomy, or remove fluid from the intrapleural space. Understanding the purpose of pleurodesis is essential in providing accurate patient education and care.
Following morning care, a client with C-5 spinal cord injury who is sitting in a wheelchair becomes flushed and complains of a headache. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with a C-5 spinal cord injury experiencing flushing and a headache, the priority intervention is to assess the client's blood pressure every 15 minutes. These symptoms could indicate autonomic dysreflexia, a potentially life-threatening condition. Assessing the blood pressure is crucial to identify and address this emergency situation promptly. Checking for kinks or obstructions in the Foley tubing (Choice A) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Administering hydralazine (Choice C) without knowing the blood pressure could be harmful as it may lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure. Educating the client on recognizing symptoms of dysreflexia (Choice D) is important for long-term management but is not the immediate action needed in this acute situation.
An adult male is admitted to the intensive care unit because he experienced a sudden onset of sharp chest pain and shortness of breath earlier today. Following an emergent pulmonary angiogram, the client is diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a patient diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism, the most critical intervention is to monitor for signs of increased bleeding. Pulmonary embolism treatment often involves anticoagulation therapy, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as bruising, petechiae, hematuria, or gastrointestinal bleeding is essential to prevent complications. Instructing on the use of incentive spirometry can be beneficial for preventing pulmonary complications but is not as urgent as monitoring for bleeding. Observing for confusion and restlessness may indicate hypoxia but is not the most crucial intervention in this scenario. Administering intravenous opioids for severe pain might be necessary but is not the priority compared to monitoring for bleeding, which is directly related to the treatment for pulmonary embolism.
What intervention should the nurse implement during the administration of a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent via an IV site in the client's arm?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention the nurse should implement during the administration of a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent via an IV site in the client's arm is to assess the IV site frequently for signs of extravasation. Vesicants are agents that can cause tissue damage if they leak into the surrounding tissues. Monitoring for signs of extravasation such as swelling, pain, or redness is crucial to prevent tissue damage and ensure prompt intervention if extravasation occurs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monitoring capillary refill, applying a topical anesthetic for burning, and explaining temporary burning do not directly address the risk of extravasation associated with vesicant chemotherapeutic agents.
The nurse is caring for a group of clients with the help of a practical nurse (PN). Which nursing actions should the nurse assign to the PN? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Obtaining postoperative vital signs for a client one day following unilateral knee arthroplasty is a task within the scope of practice for a practical nurse (PN) and contributes to the client's recovery. Administering insulin (Choice A) involves medication administration, which typically requires a higher level of nursing education. Performing daily surgical dressing changes (Choice C) after an abdominal hysterectomy involves wound care management that is usually beyond the scope of practice for a PN. Initiating patient-controlled analgesia pumps (Choice D) is a complex nursing intervention that requires specialized training and knowledge, exceeding the typical responsibilities of a PN.
A male client who fell into the lake while fishing and was submerged for about 3 min was successfully resuscitated by his friends. He was brought to the Emergency Department for evaluation and was admitted for a 24-hour uneventful hospital stay. What follow-up instruction should the nurse give?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After being submerged in water, the client should be instructed to seek medical care promptly if a fever develops since complications may arise later. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to the potential complications from submersion in water and are therefore incorrect. Avoiding smoke-filled environments, increasing oral fluids for a productive cough, and scheduling frequent rest periods are not the priority concerns in this scenario.
When assessing a client several hours after surgery, the nurse observes that the client grimaces and guards the incision while moving in bed. The client is diaphoretic, has a radial pulse rate of 110 beats/min, and a respiratory rate of 35 breaths/min. What assessment should the nurse perform first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client's grimacing and guarding suggest pain; assessing the pain scale is crucial for addressing the discomfort. Pain management is a priority to ensure the client's well-being and comfort. Checking the apical heart rate, IV site and fluids, or temperature can be important but addressing the client's pain takes precedence in this scenario. The elevated pulse rate and respiratory rate could be indicative of pain, making the pain scale assessment essential to guide appropriate interventions.
In developing a plan of care for a client admitted to a mental health unit after attempting suicide by taking a handful of medications, which goal has the highest priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Signs a no-self-harm contract. Ensuring the client's immediate safety by having them commit to not engaging in self-harm is the highest priority after a suicide attempt. This measure aims to prevent further harm to the client. While sleep, group therapy, and self-image are important aspects of care, they are secondary to ensuring the client's safety in the immediate aftermath of a suicide attempt. Prioritizing the establishment of a no-self-harm contract creates a foundation for addressing other therapeutic goals in the client's care plan.
While assessing a client four hours post-thoracentesis, the nurse is unable to auscultate breath sounds on the right side of the chest. What action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to assess the client's vital signs and respiratory effort. It is crucial to promptly detect any immediate complications or changes in the client's condition. Instructing cough and deep breathing exercises (choice A) can be considered after further assessment. Administering oxygen (choice C) should be based on assessment findings and healthcare provider's orders. While documenting the findings (choice D) is essential, it should not be the first action when a potential issue with breath sounds is detected.
A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular (IM) injection to a client. What is the most appropriate site to use for an IM injection in an adult?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Vastus lateralis muscle. The vastus lateralis muscle is a recommended site for IM injections in adults due to its size and accessibility. The dorsal gluteal muscle is not recommended for IM injections in adults due to the proximity to major nerves and blood vessels, increasing the risk of injury. The rectus femoris muscle is not a common site for IM injections in adults. The deltoid muscle is typically used for IM injections in small-volume medications or vaccines, especially in adults.
A young adult client was admitted 36 hours ago for a head injury that occurred as a result of a motorcycle accident. In the last 4 hours, the client's urine output has increased to over 200 ml/hour. Before reporting the finding to the healthcare provider, which intervention should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to evaluate the urine osmolality and serum osmolality values. The increased urine output following a head injury could indicate diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive urination and extreme thirst. Evaluating osmolality is crucial for diagnosing diabetes insipidus. Choice A is incorrect because obtaining capillary blood samples for glucose every 2 hours is not the priority in this situation. Choice B is irrelevant to the client's current symptom of increased urine output. Choice D is also not the most appropriate intervention as the focus should be on assessing for a potential endocrine issue related to the increased urine output.
The nurse is completing a neurological assessment on a client with a closed head injury. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score was 13 on admission. It is now assessed at 6. What is the priority nursing intervention based on the client's current GCS?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A significant drop in GCS indicates a severe decline in neurological status, necessitating immediate communication with the healthcare provider. Notifying the healthcare provider allows for prompt evaluation and intervention to address the worsening condition. Choice B is incorrect because preparing the family for imminent death is premature and not supported by the information provided. Choice C is incorrect as the frequency of monitoring should be increased to every 15 minutes rather than every hour due to the significant drop in GCS. Choice D is incorrect because initiating CPR is not indicated based solely on a decreased GCS score.
A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is receiving a beta-blocker medication. What is the most important outcome for the nurse to monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Heart rate and blood pressure. When a client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is on a beta-blocker medication, monitoring heart rate and blood pressure is crucial. Beta-blockers lower heart rate and blood pressure, so monitoring these parameters helps assess the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bradycardia or hypotension. Choices B, C, and D are not the most important outcomes to monitor in this scenario. Blood glucose levels are typically monitored in clients with diabetes or when using medications that affect glucose levels. Respiratory rate is important in assessing respiratory function and oxygenation, while liver function tests are more relevant when monitoring the impact of medications on liver health.
A 10-year-old who has terminal brain cancer asks the nurse, 'What will happen to my body when I die?' How should the nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because it provides a truthful yet sensitive response to the child's question. Saying that the body will stop functioning and that there will be no more pain helps the child understand what to expect without unnecessary details or causing distress. Choice A is too technical and may not be suitable for a child. Choice B might give the impression of a peaceful passing, which may not always be the case. Choice D introduces the concept of feeling tired, which might not be accurate or helpful in this context.
After completion of mandatory counseling, the impaired nurse has asked nursing administration to allow return to work. When the nurse administrator approaches the charge nurse with the impaired nurse's request, what action is best for the charge nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Allowing the impaired nurse to return to work with monitoring is the best course of action in this scenario. By monitoring the impaired nurse's medication administration, the charge nurse can ensure safe practice while supporting the nurse's reintegration into the work environment. Meeting with the therapist (Choice A) is not within the charge nurse's scope of responsibility and may violate the impaired nurse's privacy. Assessing staff feelings (Choice B) is important but should be done by leadership, not the charge nurse. Simply assigning routine duties (Choice C) may not address the need for monitoring and support required in this situation.
The parents of a 6-year-old child recently diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy tell the nurse that their child wants to continue attending swimming classes. How should the nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging the parents to allow the child to continue attending swimming lessons with supervision is the most appropriate response. Swimming can be beneficial for the child, providing both exercise and enjoyment. Supervision can help manage any risks associated with swimming. Choice B is incorrect because the child's preference for swimming should be respected, and swimming can still offer socialization opportunities. Choice C is incorrect as it undermines the child's capability to understand the situation. Choice D is less appropriate as it does not address the child's interest in swimming and may limit beneficial physical activity.
A client with a history of dementia has become increasingly confused at night and is picking at an abdominal surgical dressing and the tape securing the intravenous (IV) line. The abdominal dressing is no longer occlusive, and the IV insertion site is pink. What intervention should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for a client with dementia who is becoming increasingly confused at night and interfering with dressings and IV lines is to leave the lights on in the room at night. This intervention can help reduce confusion and disorientation. Choice A is incorrect because changing the IV site gauge is not the priority in this situation. Choice B is not necessary unless there are signs of infection or other complications at the abdominal incision site, which are not mentioned in the scenario. Choice D should be avoided as using restraints should be a last resort and is not indicated in this case.
When washing soiled hands, what should the nurse do after wetting the hands and applying soap?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After wetting the hands and applying soap, the nurse should rub hands palm to palm. Rubbing hands palm to palm helps create friction and effectively clean the hands by spreading the soap and reaching all areas. Interlacing the fingers, drying hands with a paper towel, and turning off the water faucet should come after rubbing hands palm to palm in the handwashing process. Interlacing the fingers can be done to ensure the backs of the hands are cleaned, drying hands with a paper towel is the final step to ensure hands are dry, and turning off the water faucet helps save water.
A man calls the hospital and asks to talk with the nurse about his girlfriend who was extremely intoxicated on admission and is receiving services for detoxification. He knows that she is in the facility and asks the nurse about her condition. What is the nurse's best response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse must adhere to confidentiality rules and cannot confirm the presence or condition of the client. Choice A is incorrect because disclosing the client's condition breaches confidentiality. Choice B is wrong as it reveals the client's room number, which is also a breach of confidentiality. Choice D is not the best response as it involves sharing information about the client without verifying the caller's identity or relationship to the client.
A client with intestinal obstructions has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction and is receiving an IV of lactated Ringer's at 100 ml/H. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most crucial finding to report to the healthcare provider in this scenario is a serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. Hypokalemia can lead to serious complications, including cardiac issues. Gastric output, increased BUN, and monitoring the 24-hour intake are essential but do not pose an immediate risk as hypokalemia does in this situation.
The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy. Which action should the nurse perform when suctioning the tracheostomy tube?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When suctioning a tracheostomy tube, it is essential to insert the suction catheter into the trachea and apply intermittent suction with removal of the catheter. This technique helps prevent damage to the trachea and reduces discomfort for the client. Choice A is incorrect because increasing wall suction with the removal of the suction catheter can cause trauma to the tracheal mucosa. Choice B is incorrect because instilling saline into the tracheostomy tube before suctioning is not recommended as it can lead to complications. Choice C is incorrect as oropharyngeal suctioning should be done before tracheal suctioning to prevent the risk of aspiration.
While teaching a young male adult to use an inhaler for his newly diagnosed asthma, the client stares into the distance and appears to be concentrating on something other than the lesson the nurse is presenting. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to ask the client what he is thinking about at that moment. By doing so, the nurse can understand the client's concerns or distractions, which can then be addressed effectively during the teaching session. Option A is incorrect as it assumes the client is not paying attention due to forgetfulness about the importance of the inhaler, which may not be the case. Option B is incorrect because leaving the client alone without addressing the issue does not facilitate effective learning. Option D, although closer, does not directly address the client's distraction and may not uncover the underlying issue causing the lack of focus.
When implementing a disaster intervention plan, which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When implementing a disaster intervention plan, the first step the nurse should take is to identify a command center where activities are coordinated. This step is crucial for ensuring an organized and effective disaster response. Option A, initiating the discharge of stable clients, is not a priority during the initial phase of disaster response. Option C, assessing community safety needs, usually follows setting up a command center. Option D, instructing off-duty personnel to report, may be necessary but is not the primary intervention at the beginning of a disaster situation.
What actions should the nurse take regarding an older adult male who had an abdominal cholecystectomy and has become increasingly confused and disoriented over the past 24 hours, found wandering into another client's room and returned to his own room by the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this situation, the appropriate action for the nurse to take is to report the mental status change to the healthcare provider. Confusion and disorientation post-surgery can be indicative of various factors, such as electrolyte imbalances or respiratory issues, necessitating comprehensive assessment by the healthcare team. Applying restraints and raising bed rails may not address the underlying cause of the confusion, and assigning the UAP to reassess the client's risk for falls does not directly address the cognitive changes observed.
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has undergone abdominal surgery. What instruction should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Avoid heavy lifting for at least 6 weeks.' After abdominal surgery, it is essential to avoid heavy lifting to prevent complications such as incisional hernias and support proper healing. Choice B, 'Limit fluid intake to reduce the risk of infection,' is incorrect because adequate fluid intake is necessary for wound healing and preventing dehydration. Choice C, 'Resume normal activities as soon as possible,' is incorrect as it may increase the risk of complications and delay healing. Choice D, 'Avoid driving for at least 2 weeks,' is incorrect as the restriction on driving may vary depending on the type of surgery and individual recovery.
A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with diabetes insipidus due to a pituitary gland tumor. Which potential complication should the nurse monitor closely?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. In diabetes insipidus, there is excessive urination leading to fluid loss, which can result in electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Ketonuria is typically seen in diabetic ketoacidosis, peripheral edema is more commonly associated with conditions like heart failure or kidney disease, and elevated blood pressure is not a direct complication of diabetes insipidus related to a pituitary gland tumor.
A male client with diabetes mellitus takes NPH/regular 70/30 insulin before meals and azithromycin PO daily, using medication he brought from home. When the nurse delivers his breakfast tray, the client tells the nurse that he took his insulin but forgot to take his daily dose of azithromycin an hour before breakfast as instructed. What action should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Azithromycin should ideally be taken on an empty stomach; however, if taken after breakfast, it should not affect its efficacy. Instructing the client to eat his breakfast and take the azithromycin two hours after eating allows for proper absorption without compromising its effectiveness. Providing an antacid with azithromycin is not necessary in this case. Offering a new breakfast tray in an hour or skipping the dose is not the best course of action as it may lead to missed doses and potential effectiveness issues.
While changing the pressure ulcer dressing of a client who is immobile, the nurse notes that the boundary edges of the wound have increased. Before reporting this finding to the healthcare provider, the nurse should review which of the client's serum laboratory values?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Albumin. Reviewing albumin levels is crucial in this situation because low albumin levels can impact wound healing and contribute to increased wound edges. Potassium (choice A) is not directly related to wound healing or wound edges. Platelets (choice B) are more related to blood clotting than wound healing. Creatinine (choice C) is related to kidney function, not specifically to wound healing or wound edges.
A 20-year-old male client is diagnosed with Ewing's sarcoma following an examination for a knee injury. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most crucial instruction for the nurse to provide the client is to seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately. Ewing's sarcoma is a type of cancer that necessitates prompt and aggressive treatment for the best possible outcome. While managing pain (Choice A) and monitoring swelling (Choice B) are important, addressing the underlying sarcoma is the priority. Instructing the client to avoid weight-bearing (Choice C) is not directly related to the treatment of Ewing's sarcoma and may not be the most critical instruction at this point.
An adult client presents to the clinic with large draining ulcers on both lower legs that are characteristic of Kaposi's Sarcoma lesions. The client is accompanied by two family members. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to complete a head-to-toe assessment to identify other signs of HIV. Kaposi's Sarcoma is commonly associated with HIV infection, and conducting a comprehensive assessment can provide crucial information on potential signs and symptoms related to HIV. This information is essential for providing appropriate care and treatment. Option A is not the priority at this moment, as the focus should be on assessing the client comprehensively first. Sending the family members away (Option B) may not be necessary if they are not interfering with the assessment process. While infection control is important, asking the family members to wear gloves (Option D) is not the most critical action to take in this situation.
Identify the placement of the stapes footplate into the bony labyrinth.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Fenestra vestibuli. The stapes footplate is placed into the fenestra vestibuli of the bony labyrinth. This structure is also known as the oval window and is located at the junction of the middle ear and inner ear. Choice B, Fenestra cochleae, is incorrect as this opening is also known as the round window and is located near the base of the cochlea. Choice C, Tympanic membrane, is incorrect as it is also known as the eardrum and separates the external ear from the middle ear. Choice D, Round window, is incorrect as it is the opening covered by the secondary tympanic membrane and is important for the dissipation of sound waves in the cochlea.
In Duchenne muscular dystrophy, if a child has a Gower sign, what behavior should the nurse expect the child to exhibit?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Gower sign is a characteristic finding in Duchenne muscular dystrophy where a child uses hands to walk up the legs when standing from a sitting position due to proximal muscle weakness. This behavior is indicative of the child trying to compensate for weak hip and thigh muscles. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the specific behavior associated with the Gower sign. Muscular atrophy, contractures of both hips, and an unsteady gait with foot slapping are not directly related to the Gower sign.
The nurse is assigned to care for a client diagnosed with psoriasis. What behavior by the nurse addresses this client's psychosocial need for acceptance?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging the client to join a support group is the best option to address the client's psychosocial need for acceptance. Support groups provide a sense of belonging, understanding, and acceptance from peers who share similar experiences. This helps the client feel accepted despite their condition. Wearing gloves when providing care, shaking hands during an introduction, and allowing the client to express feelings openly are important but do not directly address the client's need for acceptance.
A client with osteoporosis related to long-term corticosteroid therapy receives a prescription for calcium carbonate. Which client's serum laboratory value requires intervention by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An elevated creatinine level indicates possible renal impairment, which requires intervention. High creatinine levels are associated with decreased kidney function, and in this case, it suggests potential renal issues due to long-term corticosteroid therapy. Monitoring renal function is crucial in clients with osteoporosis on corticosteroid therapy to prevent further complications. Total calcium levels within the normal range are suitable for a client with osteoporosis receiving calcium carbonate. Phosphate and fasting glucose levels do not directly indicate renal impairment in this scenario.
The healthcare provider is evaluating a client for potential dehydration. Which assessment finding is most indicative of fluid volume deficit?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Decreased skin turgor is a classic sign of dehydration. When someone is dehydrated, the skin loses its elasticity and becomes less turgid. This change is easily assessed by gently pinching and pulling up the skin on the back of the hand or forearm. If the skin remains elevated or tents rather than quickly returning to its normal position, it indicates dehydration. Moist mucous membranes (Choice A) are actually a sign of adequate hydration. Increased urine output (Choice B) can be a sign of dehydration, but decreased skin turgor is a more specific indicator. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not typically associated with fluid volume deficit and may indicate other health issues.
While caring for a client with bilateral chest tubes, the bubbling in the water-seal chamber of the right chest tube stops. What action is most important for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important action for the nurse to take when the bubbling in the water-seal chamber of the right chest tube stops is to check the chest tube connections to the water-seal container. This is crucial to ensure there are no disconnections or leaks affecting the bubbling. Replacing the water-seal collection container (choice B) is not necessary unless there is a malfunction; increasing suction (choice C) without assessing the connections can be harmful, and 'milking' the tubing (choice D) is an inappropriate action that can cause damage to the system.
Four clients arrive on the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should the nurse assess first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. A biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8 indicates potential fetal distress, necessitating immediate assessment to ensure the well-being of the fetus. The other options, while important, do not suggest an immediate threat to the fetus' health. The 38-week primigravida with contractions every 10 minutes may be in early labor, the 41-week multigravida scheduled for induction can be assessed after addressing the immediate concern, and the 36-week multigravida with serial blood pressure can be assessed after ensuring the client with potential fetal distress is stabilized.
The nurse is planning care for a client admitted with a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. Which intervention has the highest priority for inclusion in this client's plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Pheochromocytoma is associated with severe hypertension due to excessive catecholamine release. Monitoring blood pressure frequently is the priority intervention to assess for hypertensive crises and prevent complications like stroke, heart attack, or organ damage. While recording urine output every hour, evaluating neurological status, and maintaining seizure precautions are important aspects of care, they are not the highest priority in a client with pheochromocytoma.
When preparing to discharge a male client who has been hospitalized for an adrenal crisis, the client expresses concern about having another crisis. He tells the nurse that he wants to stay in the hospital a few more days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention is to schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment. This option addresses the client's concerns and provides support for managing stress and preventing future crises, which is crucial for the client's long-term care. Administering antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions (Choice A) may not effectively address the underlying concerns. Obtaining a blood cortisol level before discharge (Choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days (Choice D) is not the best course of action as it may not address the client's anxiety and could potentially lead to other issues.
The school nurse is screening students for spinal abnormalities and instructs each student to stand up and then touch their toes. Which finding indicates that a student should be referred for scoliosis evaluation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Asymmetry of the shoulders when standing upright is a common indicator of scoliosis. This finding suggests a possible spinal abnormality and should prompt further evaluation. Choices A, C, and D are not specific indicators of scoliosis. Inability to touch their toes may indicate flexibility issues or tightness in the hamstrings. Audible crepitus when bending may suggest joint degeneration or inflammation. An exaggerated upper thoracic convex curvature could indicate poor posture or other spinal abnormalities but is not directly indicative of scoliosis.
After successful resuscitation, a client is given propranolol and transferred to the Intensive Coronary Care Unit (ICCU). On admission, magnesium sulfate 4 grams IV in 250 ml D5W at one gram/hour. Which assessment findings require immediate intervention by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. A low respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute is indicative of possible magnesium toxicity, which can be a serious condition requiring immediate intervention. It is a critical finding that needs prompt attention to prevent further complications. The other options are not as urgent: A - dark amber urine may indicate dehydration but does not require immediate intervention, B - serum calcium and magnesium levels are within normal limits, C - sinus rhythm and blood pressure values are also within normal range and do not require immediate action.
An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned, and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the scenario described, the nurse notes late decelerations during contractions despite repositioning and oxygen administration. Late decelerations are often associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, which can be exacerbated by increased uterine activity stimulated by oxytocin. The initial action to manage late decelerations is to turn off the oxytocin infusion to reduce uterine stimulation. This step aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth may be necessary if the late decelerations persist or worsen despite discontinuing the oxytocin infusion. Notifying the anesthesiologist to disconnect the epidural infusion or applying an internal fetal monitoring device are not the first-line interventions for managing late decelerations.
A client is admitted with severe dehydration. What is the most important assessment finding for the nurse to monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Changes in mental status are crucial to monitor in a client with severe dehydration. Altered mental status, such as confusion or lethargy, can indicate severe dehydration and potential complications like electrolyte imbalances affecting the brain. Monitoring urine output and color (choice B) is essential but may not provide immediate signs of severe dehydration. While monitoring blood pressure and heart rate (choice C) is important, changes in mental status take precedence as they can indicate more critical conditions. Skin turgor (choice D) is a valuable assessment for dehydration, but changes in mental status take priority due to their direct correlation with severe dehydration.
The parents of a 6-year-old recently diagnosed with asthma should be taught that the symptom of acute episodes of asthma is due to which physiological response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Inflammation of the mucous membrane & bronchospasm. Acute asthma episodes are primarily caused by inflammation of the airways and bronchospasm, which lead to airway obstruction. Increased mucus production and bronchoconstriction (Choice B) are part of the physiological responses in asthma but do not directly cause acute episodes. Allergic reactions and hyperventilation (Choice C) are related to asthma triggers and responses but are not the direct causes of acute episodes. Airway narrowing and decreased lung capacity (Choice D) are consequences of inflammation and bronchospasm but do not explain the physiological response leading to acute asthma episodes.
A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left leg is on a heparin protocol. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to 'Observe for bleeding side effects related to heparin therapy.' This is the most crucial intervention for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) on a heparin protocol. Heparin, being an anticoagulant, increases the risk of bleeding as a side effect. Therefore, close monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, petechiae, or blood in stool or urine, is essential to prevent severe complications. While assessing blood pressure and heart rate (Choice B) is important, it is not as critical as monitoring for bleeding. Measuring calf girth (Choice C) may help evaluate edema but is not as vital as observing for bleeding complications. Encouraging mobilization (Choice D) is beneficial for preventing complications like pulmonary embolism, but in this scenario, monitoring for bleeding takes precedence due to the immediate risk associated with anticoagulant therapy.
A client complains of paresthesia in the fingers and toes and experiences hand spasms when the blood pressure cuff is inflated. Which serum laboratory finding should the nurse expect to find when assessing the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Low serum calcium. Hand spasms and paresthesia are indicative of potential hypocalcemia, which is characterized by low serum calcium levels. Elevated serum calcium (Choice A) is not consistent with the symptoms described. Low serum magnesium (Choice B) and elevated serum potassium (Choice D) are not typically associated with hand spasms and paresthesia.
A mother brings her child, who has a history of asthma, to the emergency room. The child is wheezing and speaking one word between each breath. The child is anxious, tachycardic, and has labored respirations. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because knowing the last dose and type of rescue inhaler used helps assess if the child has received adequate treatment and if further intervention is needed. This information is crucial in managing an acute asthma exacerbation. Choice A, the type of inhaler the child typically uses, is less critical during an emergency. Choice B, the frequency of rescue inhaler use during the week, is important for general asthma management but does not provide immediate guidance in the acute situation. Choice D, the type of allergen exposure or trigger, is more relevant for preventive strategies and does not directly impact the immediate treatment of the child's acute asthma attack.
After implementing a new fall prevention protocol on the nursing unit, which action by the nurse-manager best evaluates the protocol's effectiveness?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best way to evaluate the effectiveness of a new fall prevention protocol is by comparing the number of falls that occurred before and after its implementation. This direct comparison helps in assessing the impact of the protocol on reducing fall rates. Choices B, C, and D do not directly measure the effectiveness of the protocol. Analyzing costs incurred (Choice B), conducting a chart review (Choice C), or consulting with a physical therapist (Choice D) may provide valuable information but do not specifically evaluate the protocol's effectiveness in preventing falls.
Parents who have one male child with sickle cell anemia are concerned about having more children with the disease. What client teaching should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Each child has a 25% chance of having sickle cell anemia if both parents are carriers of the trait. Choice A is incorrect because not all future children will be carriers; some may have the disease. Choice C is incorrect as both male and female children can inherit the sickle cell disease trait. Choice D is incorrect as the chance is not fixed at one out of four; each child has an independent 25% chance of having the disease.
The nurse should explain to a client with lung cancer that pleurodesis is performed to achieve which expected outcome?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Pleurodesis is a procedure used to prevent the re-accumulation of pleural effusion by creating adhesion between the pleurae. This helps prevent the formation of effusion fluid. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pleurodesis is not performed to debulk tumors, relieve empyema after pneumonectomy, or remove fluid from the intrapleural space. Understanding the purpose of pleurodesis is essential in providing accurate patient education and care.
Following morning care, a client with C-5 spinal cord injury who is sitting in a wheelchair becomes flushed and complains of a headache. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with a C-5 spinal cord injury experiencing flushing and a headache, the priority intervention is to assess the client's blood pressure every 15 minutes. These symptoms could indicate autonomic dysreflexia, a potentially life-threatening condition. Assessing the blood pressure is crucial to identify and address this emergency situation promptly. Checking for kinks or obstructions in the Foley tubing (Choice A) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Administering hydralazine (Choice C) without knowing the blood pressure could be harmful as it may lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure. Educating the client on recognizing symptoms of dysreflexia (Choice D) is important for long-term management but is not the immediate action needed in this acute situation.
An adult male is admitted to the intensive care unit because he experienced a sudden onset of sharp chest pain and shortness of breath earlier today. Following an emergent pulmonary angiogram, the client is diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a patient diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism, the most critical intervention is to monitor for signs of increased bleeding. Pulmonary embolism treatment often involves anticoagulation therapy, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as bruising, petechiae, hematuria, or gastrointestinal bleeding is essential to prevent complications. Instructing on the use of incentive spirometry can be beneficial for preventing pulmonary complications but is not as urgent as monitoring for bleeding. Observing for confusion and restlessness may indicate hypoxia but is not the most crucial intervention in this scenario. Administering intravenous opioids for severe pain might be necessary but is not the priority compared to monitoring for bleeding, which is directly related to the treatment for pulmonary embolism.
What intervention should the nurse implement during the administration of a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent via an IV site in the client's arm?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention the nurse should implement during the administration of a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent via an IV site in the client's arm is to assess the IV site frequently for signs of extravasation. Vesicants are agents that can cause tissue damage if they leak into the surrounding tissues. Monitoring for signs of extravasation such as swelling, pain, or redness is crucial to prevent tissue damage and ensure prompt intervention if extravasation occurs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monitoring capillary refill, applying a topical anesthetic for burning, and explaining temporary burning do not directly address the risk of extravasation associated with vesicant chemotherapeutic agents.
The nurse is caring for a group of clients with the help of a practical nurse (PN). Which nursing actions should the nurse assign to the PN? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Obtaining postoperative vital signs for a client one day following unilateral knee arthroplasty is a task within the scope of practice for a practical nurse (PN) and contributes to the client's recovery. Administering insulin (Choice A) involves medication administration, which typically requires a higher level of nursing education. Performing daily surgical dressing changes (Choice C) after an abdominal hysterectomy involves wound care management that is usually beyond the scope of practice for a PN. Initiating patient-controlled analgesia pumps (Choice D) is a complex nursing intervention that requires specialized training and knowledge, exceeding the typical responsibilities of a PN.
A male client who fell into the lake while fishing and was submerged for about 3 min was successfully resuscitated by his friends. He was brought to the Emergency Department for evaluation and was admitted for a 24-hour uneventful hospital stay. What follow-up instruction should the nurse give?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After being submerged in water, the client should be instructed to seek medical care promptly if a fever develops since complications may arise later. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to the potential complications from submersion in water and are therefore incorrect. Avoiding smoke-filled environments, increasing oral fluids for a productive cough, and scheduling frequent rest periods are not the priority concerns in this scenario.
When assessing a client several hours after surgery, the nurse observes that the client grimaces and guards the incision while moving in bed. The client is diaphoretic, has a radial pulse rate of 110 beats/min, and a respiratory rate of 35 breaths/min. What assessment should the nurse perform first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client's grimacing and guarding suggest pain; assessing the pain scale is crucial for addressing the discomfort. Pain management is a priority to ensure the client's well-being and comfort. Checking the apical heart rate, IV site and fluids, or temperature can be important but addressing the client's pain takes precedence in this scenario. The elevated pulse rate and respiratory rate could be indicative of pain, making the pain scale assessment essential to guide appropriate interventions.
In developing a plan of care for a client admitted to a mental health unit after attempting suicide by taking a handful of medications, which goal has the highest priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Signs a no-self-harm contract. Ensuring the client's immediate safety by having them commit to not engaging in self-harm is the highest priority after a suicide attempt. This measure aims to prevent further harm to the client. While sleep, group therapy, and self-image are important aspects of care, they are secondary to ensuring the client's safety in the immediate aftermath of a suicide attempt. Prioritizing the establishment of a no-self-harm contract creates a foundation for addressing other therapeutic goals in the client's care plan.
While assessing a client four hours post-thoracentesis, the nurse is unable to auscultate breath sounds on the right side of the chest. What action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to assess the client's vital signs and respiratory effort. It is crucial to promptly detect any immediate complications or changes in the client's condition. Instructing cough and deep breathing exercises (choice A) can be considered after further assessment. Administering oxygen (choice C) should be based on assessment findings and healthcare provider's orders. While documenting the findings (choice D) is essential, it should not be the first action when a potential issue with breath sounds is detected.
A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular (IM) injection to a client. What is the most appropriate site to use for an IM injection in an adult?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Vastus lateralis muscle. The vastus lateralis muscle is a recommended site for IM injections in adults due to its size and accessibility. The dorsal gluteal muscle is not recommended for IM injections in adults due to the proximity to major nerves and blood vessels, increasing the risk of injury. The rectus femoris muscle is not a common site for IM injections in adults. The deltoid muscle is typically used for IM injections in small-volume medications or vaccines, especially in adults.
A young adult client was admitted 36 hours ago for a head injury that occurred as a result of a motorcycle accident. In the last 4 hours, the client's urine output has increased to over 200 ml/hour. Before reporting the finding to the healthcare provider, which intervention should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to evaluate the urine osmolality and serum osmolality values. The increased urine output following a head injury could indicate diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive urination and extreme thirst. Evaluating osmolality is crucial for diagnosing diabetes insipidus. Choice A is incorrect because obtaining capillary blood samples for glucose every 2 hours is not the priority in this situation. Choice B is irrelevant to the client's current symptom of increased urine output. Choice D is also not the most appropriate intervention as the focus should be on assessing for a potential endocrine issue related to the increased urine output.
The nurse is completing a neurological assessment on a client with a closed head injury. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score was 13 on admission. It is now assessed at 6. What is the priority nursing intervention based on the client's current GCS?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A significant drop in GCS indicates a severe decline in neurological status, necessitating immediate communication with the healthcare provider. Notifying the healthcare provider allows for prompt evaluation and intervention to address the worsening condition. Choice B is incorrect because preparing the family for imminent death is premature and not supported by the information provided. Choice C is incorrect as the frequency of monitoring should be increased to every 15 minutes rather than every hour due to the significant drop in GCS. Choice D is incorrect because initiating CPR is not indicated based solely on a decreased GCS score.
A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is receiving a beta-blocker medication. What is the most important outcome for the nurse to monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Heart rate and blood pressure. When a client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is on a beta-blocker medication, monitoring heart rate and blood pressure is crucial. Beta-blockers lower heart rate and blood pressure, so monitoring these parameters helps assess the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bradycardia or hypotension. Choices B, C, and D are not the most important outcomes to monitor in this scenario. Blood glucose levels are typically monitored in clients with diabetes or when using medications that affect glucose levels. Respiratory rate is important in assessing respiratory function and oxygenation, while liver function tests are more relevant when monitoring the impact of medications on liver health.
A 10-year-old who has terminal brain cancer asks the nurse, 'What will happen to my body when I die?' How should the nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because it provides a truthful yet sensitive response to the child's question. Saying that the body will stop functioning and that there will be no more pain helps the child understand what to expect without unnecessary details or causing distress. Choice A is too technical and may not be suitable for a child. Choice B might give the impression of a peaceful passing, which may not always be the case. Choice D introduces the concept of feeling tired, which might not be accurate or helpful in this context.
After completion of mandatory counseling, the impaired nurse has asked nursing administration to allow return to work. When the nurse administrator approaches the charge nurse with the impaired nurse's request, what action is best for the charge nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Allowing the impaired nurse to return to work with monitoring is the best course of action in this scenario. By monitoring the impaired nurse's medication administration, the charge nurse can ensure safe practice while supporting the nurse's reintegration into the work environment. Meeting with the therapist (Choice A) is not within the charge nurse's scope of responsibility and may violate the impaired nurse's privacy. Assessing staff feelings (Choice B) is important but should be done by leadership, not the charge nurse. Simply assigning routine duties (Choice C) may not address the need for monitoring and support required in this situation.
The parents of a 6-year-old child recently diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy tell the nurse that their child wants to continue attending swimming classes. How should the nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging the parents to allow the child to continue attending swimming lessons with supervision is the most appropriate response. Swimming can be beneficial for the child, providing both exercise and enjoyment. Supervision can help manage any risks associated with swimming. Choice B is incorrect because the child's preference for swimming should be respected, and swimming can still offer socialization opportunities. Choice C is incorrect as it undermines the child's capability to understand the situation. Choice D is less appropriate as it does not address the child's interest in swimming and may limit beneficial physical activity.
A client with a history of dementia has become increasingly confused at night and is picking at an abdominal surgical dressing and the tape securing the intravenous (IV) line. The abdominal dressing is no longer occlusive, and the IV insertion site is pink. What intervention should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for a client with dementia who is becoming increasingly confused at night and interfering with dressings and IV lines is to leave the lights on in the room at night. This intervention can help reduce confusion and disorientation. Choice A is incorrect because changing the IV site gauge is not the priority in this situation. Choice B is not necessary unless there are signs of infection or other complications at the abdominal incision site, which are not mentioned in the scenario. Choice D should be avoided as using restraints should be a last resort and is not indicated in this case.
When washing soiled hands, what should the nurse do after wetting the hands and applying soap?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After wetting the hands and applying soap, the nurse should rub hands palm to palm. Rubbing hands palm to palm helps create friction and effectively clean the hands by spreading the soap and reaching all areas. Interlacing the fingers, drying hands with a paper towel, and turning off the water faucet should come after rubbing hands palm to palm in the handwashing process. Interlacing the fingers can be done to ensure the backs of the hands are cleaned, drying hands with a paper towel is the final step to ensure hands are dry, and turning off the water faucet helps save water.
A man calls the hospital and asks to talk with the nurse about his girlfriend who was extremely intoxicated on admission and is receiving services for detoxification. He knows that she is in the facility and asks the nurse about her condition. What is the nurse's best response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse must adhere to confidentiality rules and cannot confirm the presence or condition of the client. Choice A is incorrect because disclosing the client's condition breaches confidentiality. Choice B is wrong as it reveals the client's room number, which is also a breach of confidentiality. Choice D is not the best response as it involves sharing information about the client without verifying the caller's identity or relationship to the client.
A client with intestinal obstructions has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction and is receiving an IV of lactated Ringer's at 100 ml/H. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most crucial finding to report to the healthcare provider in this scenario is a serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. Hypokalemia can lead to serious complications, including cardiac issues. Gastric output, increased BUN, and monitoring the 24-hour intake are essential but do not pose an immediate risk as hypokalemia does in this situation.
The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy. Which action should the nurse perform when suctioning the tracheostomy tube?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When suctioning a tracheostomy tube, it is essential to insert the suction catheter into the trachea and apply intermittent suction with removal of the catheter. This technique helps prevent damage to the trachea and reduces discomfort for the client. Choice A is incorrect because increasing wall suction with the removal of the suction catheter can cause trauma to the tracheal mucosa. Choice B is incorrect because instilling saline into the tracheostomy tube before suctioning is not recommended as it can lead to complications. Choice C is incorrect as oropharyngeal suctioning should be done before tracheal suctioning to prevent the risk of aspiration.
While teaching a young male adult to use an inhaler for his newly diagnosed asthma, the client stares into the distance and appears to be concentrating on something other than the lesson the nurse is presenting. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to ask the client what he is thinking about at that moment. By doing so, the nurse can understand the client's concerns or distractions, which can then be addressed effectively during the teaching session. Option A is incorrect as it assumes the client is not paying attention due to forgetfulness about the importance of the inhaler, which may not be the case. Option B is incorrect because leaving the client alone without addressing the issue does not facilitate effective learning. Option D, although closer, does not directly address the client's distraction and may not uncover the underlying issue causing the lack of focus.
When implementing a disaster intervention plan, which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When implementing a disaster intervention plan, the first step the nurse should take is to identify a command center where activities are coordinated. This step is crucial for ensuring an organized and effective disaster response. Option A, initiating the discharge of stable clients, is not a priority during the initial phase of disaster response. Option C, assessing community safety needs, usually follows setting up a command center. Option D, instructing off-duty personnel to report, may be necessary but is not the primary intervention at the beginning of a disaster situation.
A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving baclofen 15 mg PO three times daily. The drug is available in 10 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer in a 24-hour period? (Enter a numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the total dose of baclofen needed in a 24-hour period, multiply 15 mg by 3 doses, which equals 45 mg. Since the tablets are available in 10 mg strength, divide the total dose needed (45 mg) by the strength of each tablet (10 mg), which equals 4.5 tablets. Rounding off to the nearest tenth, the nurse should administer 4.5 tablets of 10 mg baclofen per day. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are irrelevant as they are not provided.
Your time is up
You’ve reached the end of your allocated time, but you can still review the questions and continue navigating the exam.
Restart exam?
Reset progress and restart the exam? Your current score will be saved before your answers are cleared.