HESI LPN
PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A post-operative client develops a sudden onset of chest pain and dyspnea. The nurse suspects a pulmonary embolism (PE). What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Administer oxygen via face mask.
- B. Elevate the client's legs.
- C. Prepare the client for immediate surgery.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen via face mask is the priority nursing action in a post-operative client suspected of a pulmonary embolism. This intervention helps ensure adequate oxygenation while further assessments and interventions are initiated. Elevating the client's legs is not indicated for a suspected pulmonary embolism; it is more appropriate for conditions like shock. Immediate surgery is not the priority in this situation as the client is experiencing acute symptoms requiring prompt intervention. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, the immediate focus should be on providing oxygen to the client to support respiratory function.
2. A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?
- A. The newborn is infected with an infectious blood-borne disease
- B. The newborn needs phototherapy for physiologic jaundice
- C. The mother's Rh antibodies are present in the neonatal blood
- D. The mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.
3. When documenting information in a client's medical record, what should the nurse do?
- A. Cross out errors with a single line and initial them
- B. Use a black ink pen
- C. Leave one line blank before each new entry
- D. End each entry with the nurse's signature and title
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When documenting information in a client's medical record, the nurse should end each entry with their signature and title. This practice is crucial for legal and professional standards compliance as it ensures that the documentation is attributable to the responsible individual. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while crossing out errors, using a black ink pen, and leaving a blank line before each entry are good practices, they are not as critical as ensuring each entry is signed and titled by the nurse for accountability and traceability.
4. While assessing an older male client who takes psychotropic medications, the nurse observes uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking. Which information in the client's medical record should the nurse review?
- A. Prescription for lorazepam
- B. History of Parkinson's disease
- C. Screening for tardive dyskinesia
- D. Recent urine drug screen report
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The symptoms of uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking are indicative of tardive dyskinesia, a possible side effect of long-term use of psychotropic medications. Reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia is crucial to assess if these symptoms are related to the medication. Option A, the prescription for lorazepam, is less relevant as the focus should be on potential side effects rather than the specific medication. Option B, history of Parkinson's disease, is not directly related to the observed symptoms, which are more likely linked to medication side effects. Option D, recent urine drug screen report, is not as pertinent in this context compared to reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia.
5. When a woman in early pregnancy is leaving the clinic, she blushes and asks the nurse if it is true that sex during pregnancy is bad for the baby. What is the best response for the nurse to give?
- A. The baby is protected by the sac. Sex is perfectly alright.
- B. It is unlikely to harm the baby. What you do with your personal life is your concern.
- C. Intercourse during pregnancy is usually alright, but you need to ask the doctor if it is acceptable for you.
- D. In a normal pregnancy, intercourse will not harm the baby. However, many women experience a change in desire. How are you feeling?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is the best response as it reassures the patient that intercourse in a normal pregnancy will not harm the baby. It also shows empathy by acknowledging that many women experience changes in sexual desire during pregnancy. This response validates the patient's concerns and opens up a dialogue about her feelings. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks information about changes in sexual desire and oversimplifies the situation. Choice B is dismissive of the patient's concerns and does not provide adequate information. Choice C is not the best response as it suggests asking the doctor without offering immediate reassurance or addressing the patient's worries.
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