pn exit exam 2023 quizlet PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet - Nursing Elites
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PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. While ambulating in the hallway following an appendectomy yesterday, a client complains of chest tightness and shortness of breath. Which action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having the client sit down in the hallway is the first action the nurse should implement. This is crucial to prevent further strain on the heart and to provide a safer environment for assessment and potential emergency intervention. Administering sublingual nitroglycerin (Choice A) may be appropriate later but should not precede ensuring the client's immediate safety. Assisting the client back to the room (Choice B) may not be advisable if the client is experiencing chest tightness and shortness of breath. Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram (Choice D) is important but would not be the initial action to address the client's immediate symptoms.

2. According to the principle of asepsis, which situation should the PN consider to be sterile?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: According to the principle of asepsis, the one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room is considered non-sterile, while the central area remains sterile. Therefore, the PN should consider the situation described in choice A to be sterile. Choice B is incorrect because a glove that may have touched hair is contaminated. Choice C is incorrect as a sterile item placed on a damp surface is considered contaminated. Choice D is incorrect as a sterile kit set up at the PN's waist level is prone to contamination.

3. A client who is post-operative from a carotid endarterectomy is experiencing difficulty swallowing. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client’s airway and respiratory status (Choice B). Difficulty swallowing after carotid endarterectomy could indicate swelling or nerve damage affecting swallowing, which may compromise the airway. Assessing the airway and respiratory status is crucial to ensure the client's ability to breathe. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) is not the priority as the primary concern is airway patency. Elevating the head of the bed (Choice C) can help with swallowing difficulties but does not address the immediate risk to the airway. Encouraging the client to take small sips of water (Choice D) is contraindicated if there is a risk of compromised airway due to swallowing difficulties.

4. What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gallstones. Gallstones are the most common cause of acute pancreatitis as they obstruct the pancreatic duct, leading to inflammation. While alcohol abuse (Choice B) can also cause pancreatitis, gallstones are more prevalent. Hypertriglyceridemia (Choice C) is a less common cause of acute pancreatitis compared to gallstones. Infection (Choice D) is not a primary cause of acute pancreatitis; gallstones are the leading etiology.

5. A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.

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