HESI LPN
PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client is post-operative day two from a total hip arthroplasty. The nurse notices the surgical wound is red and warm to the touch. What is the most appropriate action?
- A. Apply an ice pack to the incision site.
- B. Monitor the client's temperature.
- C. Document the findings and continue to monitor.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action when a nurse notices redness and warmth at the surgical wound post total hip arthroplasty is to notify the healthcare provider. These signs may indicate an infection, and prompt evaluation by the healthcare provider is crucial to initiate appropriate treatment. Applying an ice pack (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of a potential infection. Monitoring the client's temperature (Choice B) is important but not the priority when signs of infection are present. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor (Choice C) is necessary but should be accompanied by notifying the healthcare provider for further assessment and intervention.
2. After a hip replacement surgery, a client is instructed to use an abduction pillow while in bed. What is the primary purpose of this device?
- A. To reduce the risk of blood clots.
- B. To prevent hip dislocation.
- C. To improve circulation in the legs.
- D. To alleviate pain and discomfort.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of using an abduction pillow after hip replacement surgery is to prevent hip dislocation. The abduction pillow keeps the legs separated, which reduces the risk of hip dislocation by preventing excessive internal rotation and adduction of the hip joint. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as the main goal of using the abduction pillow is to maintain proper positioning and stability of the hip joint to prevent dislocation, rather than addressing blood clots, circulation, or pain relief.
3. An older client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for assessment of a recent onset of dementia. The PN notes that in the evening this client often becomes restless, confused, and agitated. Which intervention is most important for the PN to implement?
- A. Ask family members to remain with the client in the evenings from 5 to 8 pm
- B. Administer a prescribed PRN benzodiazepine at the onset of a confused state
- C. Ensure that the client is assigned to a room close to the nurses' station
- D. Postpone administration of nighttime medications until after 11 pm
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Sundowning, a phenomenon where dementia symptoms worsen in the evening, can be managed by ensuring the client is close to the nurses' station for frequent monitoring and quick intervention, if necessary. This reduces the risk of harm and helps manage agitation. Asking family members to remain with the client may not always be feasible and does not address the need for close monitoring. Administering benzodiazepines should not be the first-line intervention for sundowning as it can increase the risk of falls and other adverse effects. Postponing medication administration may disrupt the client's routine and potentially worsen symptoms.
4. Which type of cell is responsible for producing antibodies in the immune system?
- A. B lymphocytes
- B. T lymphocytes
- C. Macrophages
- D. Neutrophils
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: B lymphocytes. B lymphocytes (B cells) are a crucial part of the adaptive immune system. They produce antibodies, which are proteins that specifically target and neutralize pathogens such as bacteria and viruses. T lymphocytes (choice B) are involved in cell-mediated immunity rather than antibody production. Macrophages (choice C) are phagocytic cells that engulf and digest pathogens but do not produce antibodies. Neutrophils (choice D) are a type of white blood cell that primarily function in the innate immune response by phagocytosing pathogens.
5. An adult female client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is receiving NPH insulin 35 units in the morning. Which finding should the PN document as evidence that the amount of insulin is inadequate?
- A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
- B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
- C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dL
- D. Reports nausea in the morning but can still eat breakfast
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. High evening glucose levels indicate that the morning dose of NPH insulin may be insufficient to control blood sugar throughout the day. Choice A is incorrect as cold and numb feet are more indicative of a circulation issue rather than an insulin inadequacy. Choice B suggests a wound infection rather than inadequate insulin. Choice D, nausea in the morning, may be due to other causes and does not necessarily indicate inadequate insulin dosage.
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