Free HESI LPN Exit practice for PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet (HESI LPN). Answer 95 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress tracking o
What is the function of the epiglottis during swallowing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The epiglottis is a flap of tissue that closes over the trachea during swallowing to prevent food and liquids from entering the airway. Choice A is correct because the primary function of the epiglottis is to act as a lid over the trachea, ensuring that food goes down the esophagus and not into the windpipe. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not describe the specific role of the epiglottis during swallowing.
Which of the following is NOT a second-line agent used for the treatment of Tuberculosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, Rifabutin. Rifabutin is actually a first-line drug used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Choices A, B, and D (Amikacin, Moxifloxacin, and Cycloserine) are considered second-line agents for tuberculosis treatment. These drugs are used when the first-line medications are either ineffective or cannot be tolerated by the patient.
The nurse is assigned to administer medications in a long-term care facility. A disoriented resident has no identification band or picture. What is the best nursing action for the nurse to take prior to administering the medications to this resident?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a long-term care facility, when a disoriented resident lacks identification, it is crucial to confirm the resident's identity before administering medication to prevent errors. Asking a regular staff member who is familiar with the resident to confirm their identity is the best course of action. This ensures accuracy and safety in medication administration. Holding the medication until a family member can confirm the identity could delay necessary treatment. Re-orienting the resident is important for their well-being but does not address the immediate medication safety concern. Confirming room and bed numbers, though important for administration logistics, does not verify the resident's identity.
Based on the principle of asepsis, which situation should the nurse consider to be sterile?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because an open sterile Foley catheter kit set up at waist level is considered sterile if it has not been contaminated. Choice A is incorrect because the one-inch border around a sterile field is considered non-sterile. Choice B is incorrect because a sterile glove that might have touched the nurse's hair is likely contaminated. Choice C is incorrect because a wrapped, unopened sterile gauze pad placed on a damp tabletop may have become contaminated.
The nurse is assisting the recreational director of a long-term care facility in planning outdoor activities for the wheelchair-bound older residents who are mentally alert. Which activity meets the physical and social needs of these residents?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A tea party in the courtyard provides a social and physical activity suitable for wheelchair-bound older residents who are mentally alert. It offers an opportunity for social interaction, enjoyment of the outdoors, and participation in a physical activity without the need for extensive mobility. An open-air concert may not provide the same level of social interaction or physical engagement as a tea party. A team ring-toss competition may be physically challenging for wheelchair-bound residents. A picnic in the park could present challenges related to accessibility and might not foster the same level of social interaction as a tea party in a more contained courtyard setting.
The nurse observes a UAP performing oral hygiene on an unconscious client who is lying in a flat side-lying position with an emesis basin on a towel under the chin. Which action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to tell the UAP to continue because the unconscious client is positioned safely for oral care. Placing an unconscious client in a side-lying position helps prevent aspiration, and having an emesis basin under the chin is appropriate to catch any fluids. Therefore, the nurse should acknowledge that the UAP is performing the procedure correctly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Placing the client in a Fowler's position is not necessary for this procedure as the client is already positioned safely. Praise and encouragement for family participation are important aspects but not the immediate action needed in this scenario. Enrolling the UAP in a hospital education class is not warranted as the current procedure is being performed correctly.
During a fire incident in a long-term care facility's kitchen, which task is most crucial for the PN to perform instead of delegating to UAP?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a fire emergency, the most critical task for the PN is to identify the method for transporting and evacuating each resident. This task ensures a safe and organized evacuation plan, which is essential for everyone's safety. Delegating this responsibility to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) may lead to errors or delays in the evacuation process. Closing doors to residents' rooms (Choice A) can help contain the fire but is not as urgent as planning the evacuation. While offering comfort and reassurance (Choice B) is important, it should not take precedence over ensuring a safe evacuation. Providing blankets (Choice D) is helpful but does not directly address the primary concern of safely evacuating residents.
A client is recovering from abdominal surgery and has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place. The nurse notes that the client is experiencing nausea despite the NG tube being patent. What is the nurse's best action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering an antiemetic as prescribed is the best action for the nurse to take when a client with a patent NG tube is experiencing nausea. This intervention can help relieve nausea effectively. Increasing suction on the NG tube (Choice A) may not address the underlying cause of the nausea and could potentially lead to complications. Irrigating the NG tube with saline (Choice C) is not indicated for addressing nausea in this scenario. Repositioning the client to the left side (Choice D) is not the priority intervention for nausea in a client with a patent NG tube.
Which of the following dietary modifications should be recommended for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A low sodium, low potassium diet is often recommended for patients with CKD to manage fluid balance and prevent electrolyte imbalances that the kidneys can no longer regulate effectively. High protein diets, as mentioned in choice A, can put extra strain on the kidneys, making it an incorrect choice. Choice B, which suggests a low protein, high potassium diet, is also incorrect because high potassium levels can be harmful to individuals with CKD. Choice D, advocating for a high calcium, low phosphorus diet, is not the typical dietary recommendation for CKD patients, even though managing calcium and phosphorus levels is important in their diet.
Which vitamin deficiency is most associated with night blindness?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Vitamin A. Vitamin A deficiency leads to night blindness because this vitamin is crucial for the formation of rhodopsin, a photopigment in the retina. Rhodopsin is essential for vision in low-light conditions. Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to anemia and neurological issues but is not directly related to night blindness. Vitamin C deficiency can cause scurvy, affecting connective tissues, but not night vision. Vitamin D deficiency can lead to bone disorders but is not primarily associated with night blindness.
The nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus how to differentiate between hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis. What statement indicates to the nurse that the client has an understanding of this condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Shakiness is a symptom of hypoglycemia, which is low blood sugar. Taking glucose can help raise blood sugar levels quickly in this situation. Fruity breath odor and excessive urination are signs of ketoacidosis, a complication of diabetes involving high levels of ketones in the blood. Blurred vision can be a symptom of high blood sugar, but it is not specific to hypoglycemia.
The nurse is performing a psychosocial assessment on an adolescent aged 14. Which emotional response is typical during early adolescence?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Moodiness is a typical emotional response during early adolescence. Hormonal changes and developmental challenges contribute to this behavior. While anger and combativeness can also be present during adolescence, they are not as consistently typical as moodiness. Cooperativeness, on the other hand, is a trait more commonly associated with later stages of development and maturity, rather than early adolescence.
Thirty minutes after receiving IV morphine, a postoperative client continues to rate pain as 7 on a 10-point scale. Which action should the PN implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate action for the PN to implement first is to implement complementary pain relief methods. This includes repositioning the client, applying heat or cold packs, or using relaxation techniques. These strategies can provide additional pain relief before the next dose of medication is due or before seeking further instructions from the healthcare provider. Calling the healthcare provider immediately to request a different analgesic (Choice A) may not be necessary at this moment since other non-pharmacological methods can be attempted first. Determining when morphine can be given again (Choice B) is important but addressing the client's immediate pain relief takes precedence. Observing the dressing for bleeding (Choice D) is important but not the first priority when the client is experiencing unrelieved pain.
During an inspection of a client's fingernails, the nurse notices a suspected abnormality in the shape and character of the nails. Which finding should the nurse document?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clubbed nails are a significant finding in clients with chronic hypoxia or lung disease. This abnormality is characterized by an increased curvature of the nails and softening of the nail bed. It can indicate underlying health conditions such as respiratory or cardiovascular issues. Splinter hemorrhages (B) are small areas of bleeding under the nails, typically associated with infective endocarditis. Longitudinal ridges (C) are often a normal age-related change in the nails. Koilonychia or spoon nails (D) present as a concave shape of the nails and are commonly seen in clients with iron deficiency anemia or hemochromatosis. Therefore, documenting clubbed nails is the most relevant abnormality to report and investigate further.
When administering an analgesic to a client with low back pain, which intervention should the practical nurse implement to promote the effectiveness of the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Massaging the lower back and positioning the client in proper alignment can help relieve muscle tension and enhance the effectiveness of analgesics by providing additional comfort and promoting better pain management. This intervention directly addresses the site of pain and can improve the medication's efficacy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while they may have benefits in other situations, they are not directly related to promoting the effectiveness of analgesics in clients with low back pain. Encouraging ambulation and deep breathing, assisting with range of motion exercises, and offering water and high-fiber foods are important for overall patient care but are not specific to enhancing analgesic effectiveness in this context.
While conducting a mental status examination of a newly admitted male client, the PN notes that his head is lowered, and he shows no emotion or expression when speaking. Based on these observations, what documentation should the PN include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Flat affect.' Flat affect refers to a lack of emotional expression, which the PN observed in the client. This observation is significant as it can provide valuable information for the client's mental health assessment and subsequent care planning. Choice A, 'Impaired verbalization,' does not capture the lack of emotional expression seen in the client. Choice B, 'Depressed mood,' may not accurately reflect the observed behavior of the client. Choice D, 'Diminished LOC,' pertains to the level of consciousness, which was not indicated as being a concern in the scenario provided.
The PN determines that a client with cirrhosis is experiencing peripheral neuropathy. What action should the PN take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Protecting the client's feet from injury is the most appropriate action for a client with cirrhosis experiencing peripheral neuropathy. Peripheral neuropathy can lead to a loss of sensation, making the client prone to unnoticed injuries. Applying a heating pad (Choice B) is contraindicated as it may cause burns or further damage to the affected area. Keeping the client's feet elevated (Choice C) is not directly related to managing peripheral neuropathy and may not provide significant benefit. Assessing the feet and legs for jaundice (Choice D) is important for monitoring liver function in clients with cirrhosis, but in this case, the priority is to prevent injury to the feet due to decreased sensation.
A client post-thoracotomy is complaining of severe pain with deep breathing and coughing. What should the nurse encourage the client to do to manage the pain and prevent respiratory complications?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Splinting the chest with a pillow helps manage pain during deep breathing and coughing, which is essential to prevent respiratory complications such as atelectasis or pneumonia after thoracic surgery. Holding a pillow against the chest while coughing (splinting) supports the incision site and reduces the pain associated with deep breathing and coughing. Encouraging shallow breaths (Choice B) can lead to respiratory complications due to inadequate lung expansion. Increasing pain medication (Choice C) should be done based on healthcare provider orders and not solely for this situation. Avoiding deep breathing exercises (Choice D) can worsen respiratory function and increase the risk of complications.
When caring for a patient with a chest tube, which nursing action is most important?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most crucial nursing action when caring for a patient with a chest tube is to keep the drainage system below chest level (choice B). This position helps ensure proper drainage and prevents backflow of fluid or air into the pleural space, promoting optimal functioning of the chest tube. Clamping the chest tube every 2 hours (choice A) is incorrect as it can obstruct the drainage system and lead to complications. Emptying the drainage system every hour (choice C) is unnecessary unless there are specific clinical indications. Removing the chest tube when drainage decreases significantly (choice D) is also incorrect as the decision should be based on overall clinical assessment rather than drainage amount alone.
When teaching a patient with diabetes about foot care, which of the following should the nurse emphasize?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Trimming toenails straight across and filing the edges is crucial in diabetic foot care to prevent ingrown toenails and foot injuries. Soaking feet daily can lead to dryness and skin breakdown, increasing the risk of infection. Selecting well-fitting shoes is important to prevent pressure points and skin damage, not tight-fitting shoes. Using heating pads can result in burns or injuries due to decreased sensation in diabetic feet, so it's essential to avoid them.
Which condition is commonly screened for in newborns using the Guthrie test?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Guthrie test is specifically designed to screen newborns for phenylketonuria (PKU), a metabolic disorder that can lead to intellectual disability if left untreated. Phenylketonuria is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme required to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Screening for PKU in newborns is crucial as early diagnosis and intervention can prevent the severe consequences associated with the condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the Guthrie test is not used to screen for cystic fibrosis, Down syndrome, or sickle cell anemia.
What dietary considerations must the nurse keep in mind for a patient who is an Orthodox Jew?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Orthodox Jews follow dietary laws (Kashrut) that prohibit mixing meat and dairy products in the same meal. This restriction is known as 'not mixing milk and meat.' Therefore, choice B is the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because being an Orthodox Jew does not mean they can eat any food unless it is Yom Kippur, avoid meat on Ash Wednesday, or are necessarily vegetarian.
A 12-year-old child is receiving a blood transfusion via an infusion pump and begins to complain of 'itchy' skin 15 minutes after the unit of blood is started. The child appears flushed. What action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Stopping the transfusion immediately is crucial when signs of a transfusion reaction, such as itching and flushing, occur. This action is taken to prevent further exposure to the potentially harmful transfused blood. Applying lotion to the skin, inspecting the infusion site, or obtaining vital signs can be important but are secondary to stopping the transfusion to ensure the safety of the child. Applying lotion may not address the underlying issue of a possible transfusion reaction. Inspecting the infusion site and obtaining vital signs can be done after stopping the transfusion, as patient safety is the top priority in this situation.
The nurse determines that a client with cirrhosis is experiencing peripheral neuropathy. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Protecting the client's feet from injury is essential when managing peripheral neuropathy in a client with cirrhosis. Peripheral neuropathy can result in reduced sensation, increasing the risk of injury. Applying a heating pad or keeping the client's feet elevated would not address the primary concern of preventing injury. Assessing the feet and legs for jaundice is important for monitoring liver function, but it is not directly related to managing peripheral neuropathy in this case.
When caring for a child with sickle cell disease, the PN expects that the child will most likely describe which symptom when experiencing a sickle cell crisis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a sickle cell crisis, a child with sickle cell disease is most likely to describe joint pain. Sickle cell disease leads to the blockage of blood flow by sickled red blood cells, causing ischemia and pain, often felt in the joints and other body parts. Fatigue (choice C) is a nonspecific symptom that can occur in various conditions but is not a characteristic symptom of a sickle cell crisis. While decreased hemoglobin (choice A) can be observed in sickle cell disease, it is not a symptom typically described by a child during a sickle cell crisis. Infection (choice D) can trigger a sickle cell crisis but is not the symptom most likely to be described by the child during the crisis.
A male client attends a community support program for mentally impaired and chemically abusing clients. The client tells the PN that his drugs of choice are cocaine and heroin. What is the greatest health risk for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Hepatitis. Hepatitis is the greatest health risk for this client due to the potential for contracting the disease through needle-sharing, common among drug users. This can lead to serious liver complications. While hypertension, glaucoma, and diabetes are all important health concerns, they are not directly associated with the drug abuse mentioned in the scenario.
While caring for a client with an AV fistula in the left forearm, the PN observed a palpable buzzing sensation over the fistula. What action should the PN take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A palpable buzzing sensation, known as a thrill, over an AV fistula indicates proper functioning. The correct action for the PN is to document that the fistula is intact. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to loosen the fistula dressing when the thrill is felt. Choice B is incorrect as a bounding pulse is not related to the observed buzzing sensation. Choice D is incorrect because applying pressure is unnecessary when a thrill is present, indicating proper AV fistula function.
What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Graves' disease is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism. It is characterized by an overactive thyroid gland due to autoantibodies stimulating the thyroid. Hashimoto's thyroiditis is actually a cause of hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. Thyroid nodules and pituitary adenoma are not common causes of hyperthyroidism.
Which of the following components of nutrition has a primary function of helping with tissue growth and repair?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Protein is the correct answer as it is essential for tissue growth and repair. Proteins are composed of amino acids, the building blocks of body tissues. While vitamins D and E have important roles in the body, they are not primarily responsible for tissue growth and repair. Fats are crucial for various bodily functions, like providing energy, but they are not the primary component involved in tissue growth and repair.
During the immediate postoperative period following a total hip replacement, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Keeping the client's hip aligned with the knees abducted is crucial to prevent dislocation of the prosthesis, which is a priority immediately after total hip replacement surgery. This position helps maintain the stability of the new hip joint. Encouraging the client to use a walker or cane (Choice A) is important but not as critical as ensuring proper hip alignment. Teaching the client to sit on the side of the bed before standing (Choice C) is a good practice but not as essential as maintaining hip alignment. Monitoring urinary flow via an indwelling catheter (Choice D) is not directly related to preventing complications immediately after a total hip replacement.
Which task could the nurse safely delegate to the UAP?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because oral feeding of a stable child is a task that can be safely delegated to a UAP. This task does not require nursing assessment or clinical judgment. Choice B involves assessment, which requires the nurse's clinical judgment. Choice C involves recording client goals during staff rounds, which may require interpretation and understanding of the goals set. Choice D involves evaluating a client's pain following medication administration, which requires assessment and clinical judgment by a nurse.
The nurse and UAP enter a client's room and find the client lying on the bed. The nurse determines that the client is unresponsive. Which instruction should the nurse give the UAP first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to instruct the UAP to obtain emergency help first. In a situation where a client is unresponsive, the priority is to ensure that help is summoned promptly. This allows for the availability of necessary resources and assistance for resuscitation or other emergency interventions. Feeling for a carotid pulse or checking the blood pressure can be important assessments but are secondary to obtaining immediate help. Bringing a glucometer to the room, while relevant in certain situations, is not the priority when the client's unresponsiveness indicates a need for urgent intervention.
What should the nurse do to complete a focused assessment for a female client with inflamed and painful hemorrhoids?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Asking the client about the duration of discomfort related to hemorrhoids is the best intervention to implement for a focused assessment. This information provides important context for assessing the severity and chronicity of the condition, which is crucial for developing an appropriate care plan. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the need to gather information about the duration of symptoms, which is essential for understanding the client's condition.
A client is complaining of a tingling sensation in the fingers, nose tip, and earlobes 24 hours after a total thyroidectomy. Which measure should the PN implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Obtain prescribed calcium gluconate for tetany. Tingling sensations post-thyroidectomy may indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication that requires prompt treatment with calcium gluconate to prevent tetany. Initiating L-thyroxine replacement therapy (choice B) is important but not the first priority in this situation. Applying sequential compression devices (choice A) is not indicated for tingling sensations and does not address the potential complication of hypocalcemia. Preparing for an emergency tracheotomy (choice D) is not warranted based on the client's symptoms of tingling sensations.
When administering IV fluids to a client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF), what is the nurse's primary concern?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The primary concern when administering IV fluids to a client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is monitoring for signs of fluid overload. Clients with CHF are particularly vulnerable to fluid overload, which can exacerbate their condition. Signs of fluid overload include edema and difficulty breathing. Therefore, the nurse must closely monitor these signs to prevent worsening of the client's condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while ensuring hydration, preventing electrolyte imbalances, and maintaining the prescribed rate of fluid administration are important, they are secondary concerns compared to the critical task of monitoring for fluid overload in a client with CHF.
A client post-mastectomy is concerned about the risk of lymphedema. What should the nurse include in the discharge instructions to minimize this risk?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To minimize the risk of lymphedema after a mastectomy, it is essential to instruct the client to avoid venipunctures and blood pressure measurements on the affected arm. These procedures can lead to trauma or impede lymphatic flow, increasing the risk of lymphedema. Wearing compression garments helps manage lymphedema but is not preventive. Performing vigorous exercises can strain the affected arm and increase the risk of lymphedema. Keeping the affected arm elevated at all times is unnecessary and not an effective preventive measure against lymphedema.
Which of the following is a critical step in preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is a critical step in preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) because it helps reduce the risk of aspiration, which is a significant factor in the development of VAP. Elevating the head of the bed enhances pulmonary hygiene, decreases the risk of microaspiration, and promotes better lung function. Performing oral care with chlorhexidine is essential for oral hygiene but is not specifically aimed at preventing VAP. Administering prophylactic antibiotics without a clear indication can lead to antibiotic resistance and is not a recommended routine practice to prevent VAP. Changing the ventilator circuit daily is essential for infection control but is not the most critical step in preventing VAP.
Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The olfactory nerve (Cranial Nerve I) is indeed responsible for the sense of smell. It is located in the nasal cavity and transmits olfactory information to the brain. The optic nerve (Choice B) is responsible for vision, the trigeminal nerve (Choice C) is responsible for sensation in the face, and the vagus nerve (Choice D) is responsible for various functions such as heart rate, digestion, and speech. Therefore, the correct answer is the olfactory nerve (Choice A).
When a woman in early pregnancy is leaving the clinic, she blushes and asks the nurse if it is true that sex during pregnancy is bad for the baby. What is the best response for the nurse to give?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice D is the best response as it reassures the patient that intercourse in a normal pregnancy will not harm the baby. It also shows empathy by acknowledging that many women experience changes in sexual desire during pregnancy. This response validates the patient's concerns and opens up a dialogue about her feelings. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks information about changes in sexual desire and oversimplifies the situation. Choice B is dismissive of the patient's concerns and does not provide adequate information. Choice C is not the best response as it suggests asking the doctor without offering immediate reassurance or addressing the patient's worries.
The PN administered darbepoetin alfa to a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which serum laboratory value should the PN monitor to assess the effectiveness of this drug?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Darbepoetin alfa is used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with CKD. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and to adjust the dosage to avoid complications such as hypertension or thrombosis. Monitoring calcium (Choice A), phosphorus (Choice B), or white blood cell count (Choice D) is not directly related to the effectiveness of darbepoetin alfa in treating anemia associated with CKD.
A client has a prescription for a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management during the postoperative period following a lumbar laminectomy. Which information should the nurse reinforce about the action of this adjuvant pain modality?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. TENS works by delivering a mild electrical stimulus to the skin, which can help close the 'gates' in the nervous system to block pain signals from reaching the brain, thus reducing pain perception. Choice A is incorrect because TENS does not distract from pain but rather helps manage it. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different pain management technique involving medication in the spinal canal. Choice C is incorrect because TENS acts peripherally on nerve conduction rather than dulling pain perception in the cerebral cortex.
An older client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for assessment of a recent onset of dementia. The PN notes that in the evening this client often becomes restless, confused, and agitated. Which intervention is most important for the PN to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Sundowning, a phenomenon where dementia symptoms worsen in the evening, can be managed by ensuring the client is close to the nurses' station for frequent monitoring and quick intervention, if necessary. This reduces the risk of harm and helps manage agitation. Asking family members to remain with the client may not always be feasible and does not address the need for close monitoring. Administering benzodiazepines should not be the first-line intervention for sundowning as it can increase the risk of falls and other adverse effects. Postponing medication administration may disrupt the client's routine and potentially worsen symptoms.
According to the principle of asepsis, which situation should the PN consider to be sterile?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
According to the principle of asepsis, the one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room is considered non-sterile, while the central area remains sterile. Therefore, the PN should consider the situation described in choice A to be sterile. Choice B is incorrect because a glove that may have touched hair is contaminated. Choice C is incorrect as a sterile item placed on a damp surface is considered contaminated. Choice D is incorrect as a sterile kit set up at the PN's waist level is prone to contamination.
A post-operative client is prescribed sequential compression devices (SCDs) while on bed rest. What is the primary purpose of this device?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).' Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are primarily used to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) by promoting blood flow in the legs and reducing venous stasis, which is a common risk for post-operative clients who are on bed rest. While SCDs do improve circulation in the legs indirectly, their primary purpose is DVT prevention. Preventing pressure ulcers is typically achieved through repositioning and support surfaces, not with SCDs, making choice C incorrect. SCDs are not used to alleviate post-operative pain, so choice D is also incorrect.
What is the function of the epiglottis during swallowing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The epiglottis is a flap of tissue that closes over the trachea during swallowing to prevent food and liquids from entering the airway. Choice A is correct because the primary function of the epiglottis is to act as a lid over the trachea, ensuring that food goes down the esophagus and not into the windpipe. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not describe the specific role of the epiglottis during swallowing.
Which of the following is NOT a second-line agent used for the treatment of Tuberculosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, Rifabutin. Rifabutin is actually a first-line drug used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Choices A, B, and D (Amikacin, Moxifloxacin, and Cycloserine) are considered second-line agents for tuberculosis treatment. These drugs are used when the first-line medications are either ineffective or cannot be tolerated by the patient.
The nurse is assigned to administer medications in a long-term care facility. A disoriented resident has no identification band or picture. What is the best nursing action for the nurse to take prior to administering the medications to this resident?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a long-term care facility, when a disoriented resident lacks identification, it is crucial to confirm the resident's identity before administering medication to prevent errors. Asking a regular staff member who is familiar with the resident to confirm their identity is the best course of action. This ensures accuracy and safety in medication administration. Holding the medication until a family member can confirm the identity could delay necessary treatment. Re-orienting the resident is important for their well-being but does not address the immediate medication safety concern. Confirming room and bed numbers, though important for administration logistics, does not verify the resident's identity.
Based on the principle of asepsis, which situation should the nurse consider to be sterile?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because an open sterile Foley catheter kit set up at waist level is considered sterile if it has not been contaminated. Choice A is incorrect because the one-inch border around a sterile field is considered non-sterile. Choice B is incorrect because a sterile glove that might have touched the nurse's hair is likely contaminated. Choice C is incorrect because a wrapped, unopened sterile gauze pad placed on a damp tabletop may have become contaminated.
The nurse is assisting the recreational director of a long-term care facility in planning outdoor activities for the wheelchair-bound older residents who are mentally alert. Which activity meets the physical and social needs of these residents?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A tea party in the courtyard provides a social and physical activity suitable for wheelchair-bound older residents who are mentally alert. It offers an opportunity for social interaction, enjoyment of the outdoors, and participation in a physical activity without the need for extensive mobility. An open-air concert may not provide the same level of social interaction or physical engagement as a tea party. A team ring-toss competition may be physically challenging for wheelchair-bound residents. A picnic in the park could present challenges related to accessibility and might not foster the same level of social interaction as a tea party in a more contained courtyard setting.
The nurse observes a UAP performing oral hygiene on an unconscious client who is lying in a flat side-lying position with an emesis basin on a towel under the chin. Which action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to tell the UAP to continue because the unconscious client is positioned safely for oral care. Placing an unconscious client in a side-lying position helps prevent aspiration, and having an emesis basin under the chin is appropriate to catch any fluids. Therefore, the nurse should acknowledge that the UAP is performing the procedure correctly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Placing the client in a Fowler's position is not necessary for this procedure as the client is already positioned safely. Praise and encouragement for family participation are important aspects but not the immediate action needed in this scenario. Enrolling the UAP in a hospital education class is not warranted as the current procedure is being performed correctly.
During a fire incident in a long-term care facility's kitchen, which task is most crucial for the PN to perform instead of delegating to UAP?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a fire emergency, the most critical task for the PN is to identify the method for transporting and evacuating each resident. This task ensures a safe and organized evacuation plan, which is essential for everyone's safety. Delegating this responsibility to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) may lead to errors or delays in the evacuation process. Closing doors to residents' rooms (Choice A) can help contain the fire but is not as urgent as planning the evacuation. While offering comfort and reassurance (Choice B) is important, it should not take precedence over ensuring a safe evacuation. Providing blankets (Choice D) is helpful but does not directly address the primary concern of safely evacuating residents.
A client is recovering from abdominal surgery and has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place. The nurse notes that the client is experiencing nausea despite the NG tube being patent. What is the nurse's best action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering an antiemetic as prescribed is the best action for the nurse to take when a client with a patent NG tube is experiencing nausea. This intervention can help relieve nausea effectively. Increasing suction on the NG tube (Choice A) may not address the underlying cause of the nausea and could potentially lead to complications. Irrigating the NG tube with saline (Choice C) is not indicated for addressing nausea in this scenario. Repositioning the client to the left side (Choice D) is not the priority intervention for nausea in a client with a patent NG tube.
Which of the following dietary modifications should be recommended for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A low sodium, low potassium diet is often recommended for patients with CKD to manage fluid balance and prevent electrolyte imbalances that the kidneys can no longer regulate effectively. High protein diets, as mentioned in choice A, can put extra strain on the kidneys, making it an incorrect choice. Choice B, which suggests a low protein, high potassium diet, is also incorrect because high potassium levels can be harmful to individuals with CKD. Choice D, advocating for a high calcium, low phosphorus diet, is not the typical dietary recommendation for CKD patients, even though managing calcium and phosphorus levels is important in their diet.
Which vitamin deficiency is most associated with night blindness?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Vitamin A. Vitamin A deficiency leads to night blindness because this vitamin is crucial for the formation of rhodopsin, a photopigment in the retina. Rhodopsin is essential for vision in low-light conditions. Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to anemia and neurological issues but is not directly related to night blindness. Vitamin C deficiency can cause scurvy, affecting connective tissues, but not night vision. Vitamin D deficiency can lead to bone disorders but is not primarily associated with night blindness.
The nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus how to differentiate between hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis. What statement indicates to the nurse that the client has an understanding of this condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Shakiness is a symptom of hypoglycemia, which is low blood sugar. Taking glucose can help raise blood sugar levels quickly in this situation. Fruity breath odor and excessive urination are signs of ketoacidosis, a complication of diabetes involving high levels of ketones in the blood. Blurred vision can be a symptom of high blood sugar, but it is not specific to hypoglycemia.
The nurse is performing a psychosocial assessment on an adolescent aged 14. Which emotional response is typical during early adolescence?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Moodiness is a typical emotional response during early adolescence. Hormonal changes and developmental challenges contribute to this behavior. While anger and combativeness can also be present during adolescence, they are not as consistently typical as moodiness. Cooperativeness, on the other hand, is a trait more commonly associated with later stages of development and maturity, rather than early adolescence.
Thirty minutes after receiving IV morphine, a postoperative client continues to rate pain as 7 on a 10-point scale. Which action should the PN implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate action for the PN to implement first is to implement complementary pain relief methods. This includes repositioning the client, applying heat or cold packs, or using relaxation techniques. These strategies can provide additional pain relief before the next dose of medication is due or before seeking further instructions from the healthcare provider. Calling the healthcare provider immediately to request a different analgesic (Choice A) may not be necessary at this moment since other non-pharmacological methods can be attempted first. Determining when morphine can be given again (Choice B) is important but addressing the client's immediate pain relief takes precedence. Observing the dressing for bleeding (Choice D) is important but not the first priority when the client is experiencing unrelieved pain.
During an inspection of a client's fingernails, the nurse notices a suspected abnormality in the shape and character of the nails. Which finding should the nurse document?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clubbed nails are a significant finding in clients with chronic hypoxia or lung disease. This abnormality is characterized by an increased curvature of the nails and softening of the nail bed. It can indicate underlying health conditions such as respiratory or cardiovascular issues. Splinter hemorrhages (B) are small areas of bleeding under the nails, typically associated with infective endocarditis. Longitudinal ridges (C) are often a normal age-related change in the nails. Koilonychia or spoon nails (D) present as a concave shape of the nails and are commonly seen in clients with iron deficiency anemia or hemochromatosis. Therefore, documenting clubbed nails is the most relevant abnormality to report and investigate further.
When administering an analgesic to a client with low back pain, which intervention should the practical nurse implement to promote the effectiveness of the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Massaging the lower back and positioning the client in proper alignment can help relieve muscle tension and enhance the effectiveness of analgesics by providing additional comfort and promoting better pain management. This intervention directly addresses the site of pain and can improve the medication's efficacy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while they may have benefits in other situations, they are not directly related to promoting the effectiveness of analgesics in clients with low back pain. Encouraging ambulation and deep breathing, assisting with range of motion exercises, and offering water and high-fiber foods are important for overall patient care but are not specific to enhancing analgesic effectiveness in this context.
While conducting a mental status examination of a newly admitted male client, the PN notes that his head is lowered, and he shows no emotion or expression when speaking. Based on these observations, what documentation should the PN include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Flat affect.' Flat affect refers to a lack of emotional expression, which the PN observed in the client. This observation is significant as it can provide valuable information for the client's mental health assessment and subsequent care planning. Choice A, 'Impaired verbalization,' does not capture the lack of emotional expression seen in the client. Choice B, 'Depressed mood,' may not accurately reflect the observed behavior of the client. Choice D, 'Diminished LOC,' pertains to the level of consciousness, which was not indicated as being a concern in the scenario provided.
The PN determines that a client with cirrhosis is experiencing peripheral neuropathy. What action should the PN take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Protecting the client's feet from injury is the most appropriate action for a client with cirrhosis experiencing peripheral neuropathy. Peripheral neuropathy can lead to a loss of sensation, making the client prone to unnoticed injuries. Applying a heating pad (Choice B) is contraindicated as it may cause burns or further damage to the affected area. Keeping the client's feet elevated (Choice C) is not directly related to managing peripheral neuropathy and may not provide significant benefit. Assessing the feet and legs for jaundice (Choice D) is important for monitoring liver function in clients with cirrhosis, but in this case, the priority is to prevent injury to the feet due to decreased sensation.
A client post-thoracotomy is complaining of severe pain with deep breathing and coughing. What should the nurse encourage the client to do to manage the pain and prevent respiratory complications?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Splinting the chest with a pillow helps manage pain during deep breathing and coughing, which is essential to prevent respiratory complications such as atelectasis or pneumonia after thoracic surgery. Holding a pillow against the chest while coughing (splinting) supports the incision site and reduces the pain associated with deep breathing and coughing. Encouraging shallow breaths (Choice B) can lead to respiratory complications due to inadequate lung expansion. Increasing pain medication (Choice C) should be done based on healthcare provider orders and not solely for this situation. Avoiding deep breathing exercises (Choice D) can worsen respiratory function and increase the risk of complications.
When caring for a patient with a chest tube, which nursing action is most important?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most crucial nursing action when caring for a patient with a chest tube is to keep the drainage system below chest level (choice B). This position helps ensure proper drainage and prevents backflow of fluid or air into the pleural space, promoting optimal functioning of the chest tube. Clamping the chest tube every 2 hours (choice A) is incorrect as it can obstruct the drainage system and lead to complications. Emptying the drainage system every hour (choice C) is unnecessary unless there are specific clinical indications. Removing the chest tube when drainage decreases significantly (choice D) is also incorrect as the decision should be based on overall clinical assessment rather than drainage amount alone.
When teaching a patient with diabetes about foot care, which of the following should the nurse emphasize?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Trimming toenails straight across and filing the edges is crucial in diabetic foot care to prevent ingrown toenails and foot injuries. Soaking feet daily can lead to dryness and skin breakdown, increasing the risk of infection. Selecting well-fitting shoes is important to prevent pressure points and skin damage, not tight-fitting shoes. Using heating pads can result in burns or injuries due to decreased sensation in diabetic feet, so it's essential to avoid them.
Which condition is commonly screened for in newborns using the Guthrie test?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Guthrie test is specifically designed to screen newborns for phenylketonuria (PKU), a metabolic disorder that can lead to intellectual disability if left untreated. Phenylketonuria is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme required to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Screening for PKU in newborns is crucial as early diagnosis and intervention can prevent the severe consequences associated with the condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the Guthrie test is not used to screen for cystic fibrosis, Down syndrome, or sickle cell anemia.
What dietary considerations must the nurse keep in mind for a patient who is an Orthodox Jew?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Orthodox Jews follow dietary laws (Kashrut) that prohibit mixing meat and dairy products in the same meal. This restriction is known as 'not mixing milk and meat.' Therefore, choice B is the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because being an Orthodox Jew does not mean they can eat any food unless it is Yom Kippur, avoid meat on Ash Wednesday, or are necessarily vegetarian.
A 12-year-old child is receiving a blood transfusion via an infusion pump and begins to complain of 'itchy' skin 15 minutes after the unit of blood is started. The child appears flushed. What action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Stopping the transfusion immediately is crucial when signs of a transfusion reaction, such as itching and flushing, occur. This action is taken to prevent further exposure to the potentially harmful transfused blood. Applying lotion to the skin, inspecting the infusion site, or obtaining vital signs can be important but are secondary to stopping the transfusion to ensure the safety of the child. Applying lotion may not address the underlying issue of a possible transfusion reaction. Inspecting the infusion site and obtaining vital signs can be done after stopping the transfusion, as patient safety is the top priority in this situation.
The nurse determines that a client with cirrhosis is experiencing peripheral neuropathy. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Protecting the client's feet from injury is essential when managing peripheral neuropathy in a client with cirrhosis. Peripheral neuropathy can result in reduced sensation, increasing the risk of injury. Applying a heating pad or keeping the client's feet elevated would not address the primary concern of preventing injury. Assessing the feet and legs for jaundice is important for monitoring liver function, but it is not directly related to managing peripheral neuropathy in this case.
When caring for a child with sickle cell disease, the PN expects that the child will most likely describe which symptom when experiencing a sickle cell crisis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a sickle cell crisis, a child with sickle cell disease is most likely to describe joint pain. Sickle cell disease leads to the blockage of blood flow by sickled red blood cells, causing ischemia and pain, often felt in the joints and other body parts. Fatigue (choice C) is a nonspecific symptom that can occur in various conditions but is not a characteristic symptom of a sickle cell crisis. While decreased hemoglobin (choice A) can be observed in sickle cell disease, it is not a symptom typically described by a child during a sickle cell crisis. Infection (choice D) can trigger a sickle cell crisis but is not the symptom most likely to be described by the child during the crisis.
A male client attends a community support program for mentally impaired and chemically abusing clients. The client tells the PN that his drugs of choice are cocaine and heroin. What is the greatest health risk for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Hepatitis. Hepatitis is the greatest health risk for this client due to the potential for contracting the disease through needle-sharing, common among drug users. This can lead to serious liver complications. While hypertension, glaucoma, and diabetes are all important health concerns, they are not directly associated with the drug abuse mentioned in the scenario.
While caring for a client with an AV fistula in the left forearm, the PN observed a palpable buzzing sensation over the fistula. What action should the PN take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A palpable buzzing sensation, known as a thrill, over an AV fistula indicates proper functioning. The correct action for the PN is to document that the fistula is intact. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to loosen the fistula dressing when the thrill is felt. Choice B is incorrect as a bounding pulse is not related to the observed buzzing sensation. Choice D is incorrect because applying pressure is unnecessary when a thrill is present, indicating proper AV fistula function.
What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Graves' disease is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism. It is characterized by an overactive thyroid gland due to autoantibodies stimulating the thyroid. Hashimoto's thyroiditis is actually a cause of hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. Thyroid nodules and pituitary adenoma are not common causes of hyperthyroidism.
Which of the following components of nutrition has a primary function of helping with tissue growth and repair?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Protein is the correct answer as it is essential for tissue growth and repair. Proteins are composed of amino acids, the building blocks of body tissues. While vitamins D and E have important roles in the body, they are not primarily responsible for tissue growth and repair. Fats are crucial for various bodily functions, like providing energy, but they are not the primary component involved in tissue growth and repair.
During the immediate postoperative period following a total hip replacement, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Keeping the client's hip aligned with the knees abducted is crucial to prevent dislocation of the prosthesis, which is a priority immediately after total hip replacement surgery. This position helps maintain the stability of the new hip joint. Encouraging the client to use a walker or cane (Choice A) is important but not as critical as ensuring proper hip alignment. Teaching the client to sit on the side of the bed before standing (Choice C) is a good practice but not as essential as maintaining hip alignment. Monitoring urinary flow via an indwelling catheter (Choice D) is not directly related to preventing complications immediately after a total hip replacement.
Which task could the nurse safely delegate to the UAP?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because oral feeding of a stable child is a task that can be safely delegated to a UAP. This task does not require nursing assessment or clinical judgment. Choice B involves assessment, which requires the nurse's clinical judgment. Choice C involves recording client goals during staff rounds, which may require interpretation and understanding of the goals set. Choice D involves evaluating a client's pain following medication administration, which requires assessment and clinical judgment by a nurse.
The nurse and UAP enter a client's room and find the client lying on the bed. The nurse determines that the client is unresponsive. Which instruction should the nurse give the UAP first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to instruct the UAP to obtain emergency help first. In a situation where a client is unresponsive, the priority is to ensure that help is summoned promptly. This allows for the availability of necessary resources and assistance for resuscitation or other emergency interventions. Feeling for a carotid pulse or checking the blood pressure can be important assessments but are secondary to obtaining immediate help. Bringing a glucometer to the room, while relevant in certain situations, is not the priority when the client's unresponsiveness indicates a need for urgent intervention.
What should the nurse do to complete a focused assessment for a female client with inflamed and painful hemorrhoids?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Asking the client about the duration of discomfort related to hemorrhoids is the best intervention to implement for a focused assessment. This information provides important context for assessing the severity and chronicity of the condition, which is crucial for developing an appropriate care plan. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the need to gather information about the duration of symptoms, which is essential for understanding the client's condition.
A client is complaining of a tingling sensation in the fingers, nose tip, and earlobes 24 hours after a total thyroidectomy. Which measure should the PN implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Obtain prescribed calcium gluconate for tetany. Tingling sensations post-thyroidectomy may indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication that requires prompt treatment with calcium gluconate to prevent tetany. Initiating L-thyroxine replacement therapy (choice B) is important but not the first priority in this situation. Applying sequential compression devices (choice A) is not indicated for tingling sensations and does not address the potential complication of hypocalcemia. Preparing for an emergency tracheotomy (choice D) is not warranted based on the client's symptoms of tingling sensations.
When administering IV fluids to a client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF), what is the nurse's primary concern?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The primary concern when administering IV fluids to a client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is monitoring for signs of fluid overload. Clients with CHF are particularly vulnerable to fluid overload, which can exacerbate their condition. Signs of fluid overload include edema and difficulty breathing. Therefore, the nurse must closely monitor these signs to prevent worsening of the client's condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while ensuring hydration, preventing electrolyte imbalances, and maintaining the prescribed rate of fluid administration are important, they are secondary concerns compared to the critical task of monitoring for fluid overload in a client with CHF.
A client post-mastectomy is concerned about the risk of lymphedema. What should the nurse include in the discharge instructions to minimize this risk?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To minimize the risk of lymphedema after a mastectomy, it is essential to instruct the client to avoid venipunctures and blood pressure measurements on the affected arm. These procedures can lead to trauma or impede lymphatic flow, increasing the risk of lymphedema. Wearing compression garments helps manage lymphedema but is not preventive. Performing vigorous exercises can strain the affected arm and increase the risk of lymphedema. Keeping the affected arm elevated at all times is unnecessary and not an effective preventive measure against lymphedema.
Which of the following is a critical step in preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is a critical step in preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) because it helps reduce the risk of aspiration, which is a significant factor in the development of VAP. Elevating the head of the bed enhances pulmonary hygiene, decreases the risk of microaspiration, and promotes better lung function. Performing oral care with chlorhexidine is essential for oral hygiene but is not specifically aimed at preventing VAP. Administering prophylactic antibiotics without a clear indication can lead to antibiotic resistance and is not a recommended routine practice to prevent VAP. Changing the ventilator circuit daily is essential for infection control but is not the most critical step in preventing VAP.
Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The olfactory nerve (Cranial Nerve I) is indeed responsible for the sense of smell. It is located in the nasal cavity and transmits olfactory information to the brain. The optic nerve (Choice B) is responsible for vision, the trigeminal nerve (Choice C) is responsible for sensation in the face, and the vagus nerve (Choice D) is responsible for various functions such as heart rate, digestion, and speech. Therefore, the correct answer is the olfactory nerve (Choice A).
When a woman in early pregnancy is leaving the clinic, she blushes and asks the nurse if it is true that sex during pregnancy is bad for the baby. What is the best response for the nurse to give?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice D is the best response as it reassures the patient that intercourse in a normal pregnancy will not harm the baby. It also shows empathy by acknowledging that many women experience changes in sexual desire during pregnancy. This response validates the patient's concerns and opens up a dialogue about her feelings. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks information about changes in sexual desire and oversimplifies the situation. Choice B is dismissive of the patient's concerns and does not provide adequate information. Choice C is not the best response as it suggests asking the doctor without offering immediate reassurance or addressing the patient's worries.
The PN administered darbepoetin alfa to a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which serum laboratory value should the PN monitor to assess the effectiveness of this drug?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Darbepoetin alfa is used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with CKD. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and to adjust the dosage to avoid complications such as hypertension or thrombosis. Monitoring calcium (Choice A), phosphorus (Choice B), or white blood cell count (Choice D) is not directly related to the effectiveness of darbepoetin alfa in treating anemia associated with CKD.
A client has a prescription for a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management during the postoperative period following a lumbar laminectomy. Which information should the nurse reinforce about the action of this adjuvant pain modality?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. TENS works by delivering a mild electrical stimulus to the skin, which can help close the 'gates' in the nervous system to block pain signals from reaching the brain, thus reducing pain perception. Choice A is incorrect because TENS does not distract from pain but rather helps manage it. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different pain management technique involving medication in the spinal canal. Choice C is incorrect because TENS acts peripherally on nerve conduction rather than dulling pain perception in the cerebral cortex.
An older client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for assessment of a recent onset of dementia. The PN notes that in the evening this client often becomes restless, confused, and agitated. Which intervention is most important for the PN to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Sundowning, a phenomenon where dementia symptoms worsen in the evening, can be managed by ensuring the client is close to the nurses' station for frequent monitoring and quick intervention, if necessary. This reduces the risk of harm and helps manage agitation. Asking family members to remain with the client may not always be feasible and does not address the need for close monitoring. Administering benzodiazepines should not be the first-line intervention for sundowning as it can increase the risk of falls and other adverse effects. Postponing medication administration may disrupt the client's routine and potentially worsen symptoms.
According to the principle of asepsis, which situation should the PN consider to be sterile?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
According to the principle of asepsis, the one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room is considered non-sterile, while the central area remains sterile. Therefore, the PN should consider the situation described in choice A to be sterile. Choice B is incorrect because a glove that may have touched hair is contaminated. Choice C is incorrect as a sterile item placed on a damp surface is considered contaminated. Choice D is incorrect as a sterile kit set up at the PN's waist level is prone to contamination.
A post-operative client is prescribed sequential compression devices (SCDs) while on bed rest. What is the primary purpose of this device?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).' Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are primarily used to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) by promoting blood flow in the legs and reducing venous stasis, which is a common risk for post-operative clients who are on bed rest. While SCDs do improve circulation in the legs indirectly, their primary purpose is DVT prevention. Preventing pressure ulcers is typically achieved through repositioning and support surfaces, not with SCDs, making choice C incorrect. SCDs are not used to alleviate post-operative pain, so choice D is also incorrect.
What is an essential nursing action before administering a blood transfusion?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Verifying the blood type and patient identity with another nurse is crucial before administering a blood transfusion. This step helps prevent transfusion reactions and ensures that the correct blood is given to the right patient. Checking the patient's blood pressure, although important, is not directly related to verifying blood type and patient identity. Flushing the IV line with saline is a good practice but is not as critical as confirming the blood type and patient identity. Administering pre-transfusion medications would come after verifying the blood type and patient identity.
After spinal fusion surgery, a client reports numbness and tingling in the legs. What should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After spinal fusion surgery, numbness and tingling in the legs may indicate nerve compression or damage. The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's neurovascular status in the lower extremities. This assessment will help determine the cause and severity of the symptoms, guiding further interventions. Repositioning the client may be necessary for comfort, but assessing neurovascular status is the initial step. Administering pain medication should only follow the assessment to address any discomfort. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately is not the first action unless there are emergent signs requiring urgent intervention.
A client post-lobectomy is placed on mechanical ventilation. The nurse notices the client is fighting the ventilator. What should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct first action for the nurse to take when a client is fighting the ventilator is to check the ventilator settings and alarms. This step is crucial to ensure that the ventilator is functioning correctly and providing the necessary support to the client. Increasing sedation (Choice A) should only be considered after confirming that the ventilator settings are appropriate. While manually ventilating the client (Choice B) may be required in some cases, it is not the initial action to take. Suctioning the client's airway (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation, where the primary concern is addressing the client's struggle with the ventilator.
A client who had a left hemicolectomy is experiencing a low-grade fever on post-operative day three. What is the nurse's best action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A low-grade fever on post-operative day three can be a sign of atelectasis, a common post-operative complication. Encouraging deep breathing and the use of the incentive spirometer can help prevent and treat this condition. Atelectasis is often due to shallow breathing, so option A is the best initial action to promote lung expansion. Administering antipyretic medication (option B) may help reduce the fever but does not directly address the underlying cause. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (option C) is not necessary at this point unless other concerning symptoms are present. Increasing the client's fluid intake (option D) is important for overall recovery but is not the priority in this scenario.
What is the primary reason for applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) to a patient's legs postoperatively?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are used postoperatively to prevent DVT by promoting blood circulation in the legs. This helps reduce the risk of blood clots forming in the deep veins of the legs. Choice B, to promote wound healing, is incorrect as SCDs are primarily used for circulatory purposes rather than wound healing. Choice C, to reduce postoperative pain, is incorrect as the primary purpose of SCDs is not pain management but rather prevention of DVT. Choice D, to maintain body temperature, is incorrect as SCDs are not designed for regulating body temperature but for preventing circulatory issues.
What is the best thing to say to a patient scheduled for cataract surgery who is concerned that the physician works on the correct eye?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best response reassures the patient by explaining the process of verifying and marking the correct eye, a safety measure to prevent wrong-site surgery, directly addressing the patient's concern. Choice A is close but implies the ID bracelet alone determines the correct eye, missing the verification process. Choice B talks about confirmation but lacks details about marking the correct eye. Choice C mentions the surgeon's record but does not specify the direct verification and marking process, unlike Choice D.
An older male client with Alzheimer's disease is admitted to an extended care facility. Which intervention should the PN include in the client's nursing care plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for a client with Alzheimer's disease in an extended care facility is to plan to have the same nursing staff provide care whenever possible. Consistency in caregivers helps reduce confusion and anxiety in clients with Alzheimer's disease, promoting a stable and supportive environment for the client. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on activities rather than the consistency of caregivers. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests isolating the client, which can lead to increased confusion and distress. Choice D is incorrect as introducing the client to new people immediately can be overwhelming and may exacerbate their symptoms.
Your time is up
You’ve reached the end of your allocated time, but you can still review the questions and continue navigating the exam.
Restart exam?
Reset progress and restart the exam? Your current score will be saved before your answers are cleared.