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HESI Mental Health Practice Questions
1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of depression. The nurse knows that which characteristic is most indicative of depression?
- A. Grandiose ideation.
- B. Self-destructive thoughts.
- C. Suspiciousness of others.
- D. A negative view of self and the future.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A negative view of self and the future (D) is a prominent characteristic of depression. It reflects the core symptoms of low self-esteem and hopelessness that are commonly associated with this condition. Grandiose ideation (A) and suspiciousness of others (C) are more indicative of other mental health disorders like paranoia. While self-destructive thoughts (B) can be present in depression, they are not as specific and common as the negative self-view and hopelessness, making option (D) the most indicative characteristic of depression.
2. When caring for a client who has overdosed on PCP, the nurse should be especially cautious about which of the following client behaviors?
- A. Visual hallucinations
- B. Violent behavior
- C. Bizarre behavior
- D. Loud screaming
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Violent behavior.' When a client has overdosed on PCP, the nurse should be particularly cautious about the manifestation of violent behavior. PCP overdose can lead to aggressive and unpredictable actions, posing a significant risk to both the client and healthcare providers. Visual hallucinations (choice A), bizarre behavior (choice C), and loud screaming (choice D) can also occur with PCP overdose, but the primary concern should be the potential for violent behavior, making it the most critical behavior to monitor and manage.
3. For a female client with major depressive disorder reporting feelings of hopelessness and helplessness, what is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Encourage the client to join a support group.
- B. Refer the client for cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT).
- C. Assess the client's risk for suicide.
- D. Suggest the client participate in daily exercise.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client's risk for suicide. When a client expresses feelings of hopelessness and helplessness, it indicates a high risk of self-harm or suicide. Therefore, the priority intervention should be to assess the client's safety. Encouraging the client to join a support group (choice A) may be beneficial but not the priority at this time. Referring the client for cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) (choice B) and suggesting daily exercise (choice D) are important interventions in managing depression but assessing the risk for suicide takes precedence due to the immediate safety concern.
4. The community health nurse talks to a male client who has bipolar disorder. The client explains that he sleeps 4 to 5 hours a night and is working with his partner to start two new businesses and build an empire. The client stopped taking his medications several days ago. What nursing problem has the highest priority?
- A. Excessive work activity.
- B. Decreased need for sleep.
- C. Medication management.
- D. Inflated self-esteem.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most important nursing problem is medication management (C) because compliance with the medication regimen will help prevent hospitalization. The client is also exhibiting signs of mania, such as excessive work activity (A), decreased need for sleep (B), and inflated self-esteem (D); however, these problems do not have the priority of medication management. Managing the medications is crucial to stabilize the client's condition and prevent potential harm associated with untreated bipolar disorder.
5. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?
- A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
- B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
- C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
- D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.
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