HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Practice Exam
1. When designing a home health care program for disabled children, which factor should be considered when assessing reimbursement for services from private insurance companies?
- A. greater access to any healthcare provider
- B. allowance for early discharge
- C. concern for the quality of care
- D. approval by the network healthcare provider
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When assessing reimbursement for services from private insurance companies, approval by the network healthcare provider is crucial. This approval ensures that the services provided are within the approved network, allowing for reimbursement. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the reimbursement process by private insurance companies. While greater access to any healthcare provider, allowance for early discharge, and concern for the quality of care are important considerations when designing a home health care program, they do not specifically impact the reimbursement process from private insurance companies.
2. The home health care agency can expect to obtain Medicare reimbursement for which home visit performed by a registered nurse or a practical nurse?
- A. assessment of the speech pattern of a mobile adult who had a mild stroke last year
- B. safety teaching for an older male client whose wife complains that he uses an unsafe ladder while painting
- C. wound care for a client who had postoperative infection following abdominal surgery two weeks ago
- D. evaluation of crutch use by a 65-year-old client who broke his tibia while snow skiing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because wound care for a postoperative infection qualifies for Medicare reimbursement. Medicare typically covers skilled nursing care, like wound care, required due to a postoperative infection. Choices A, B, and D involve assessments, teaching, and evaluation, which may not always be eligible for Medicare reimbursement unless they are directly related to skilled nursing care for a specific medical condition.
3. A 4-month-old child taking digoxin (Lanoxin) has a blood pressure of 92/78; resting pulse of 78; respirations 28, and a potassium level of 4.8 mEq/L. The client is irritable and has vomited twice since the morning dose of digoxin. Which finding is most indicative of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Lethargy
- C. Irritability
- D. Vomiting
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia (abnormally slow heart rate) is a key sign of digoxin toxicity. In this scenario, the child's symptoms of irritability, vomiting, along with the resting pulse of 78 despite being on digoxin, suggest an impending bradycardia due to digoxin toxicity. Lethargy can also be a sign, but in this case, the child is irritable rather than lethargic. Vomiting, though a symptom, is not as specific to digoxin toxicity as bradycardia. Irritability, while present, is not the most indicative finding of digoxin toxicity compared to bradycardia.
4. A person with no known illness whose daily routine consists of walking and following a healthy diet would be best characterized as engaging in which kind of activities?
- A. health balance
- B. disease prevention
- C. health promotion
- D. self-fulfillment
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: health promotion. Health promotion activities involve maintaining a healthy lifestyle to prevent illness. In this scenario, the person is actively engaging in behaviors that promote their overall health and well-being, such as walking and following a healthy diet. Choice A, 'health balance,' is vague and does not specifically address the proactive nature of the person's actions. Choice B, 'disease prevention,' while related, focuses more on specific actions taken to prevent diseases rather than the broader concept of promoting overall health. Choice D, 'self-fulfillment,' does not directly relate to the activities described in the question.
5. A client with chronic congestive heart failure should be instructed to contact the home health nurse if which finding occurs?
- A. Weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a 48-hour period
- B. Urinating 4 to 5 times a day
- C. A significant decrease in appetite
- D. Appearance of non-pitting ankle edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A rapid weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a 48-hour period may indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure, requiring prompt medical evaluation and intervention. This finding is crucial in managing chronic congestive heart failure as it signifies a potential exacerbation of the condition. Choices B, C, and D are less concerning in this context. Urinating 4 to 5 times a day is within the normal range for most individuals and may not be directly related to heart failure. A significant decrease in appetite may be due to various factors and might not be an immediate cause for concern in heart failure patients. The appearance of non-pitting ankle edema, although related to heart failure, is a more chronic and less urgent symptom when compared to a rapid weight gain, which requires immediate attention.
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