community health hesi practice exam Community Health HESI Practice Exam - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

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Community Health HESI Practice Exam

1. Which facilities are capable of performing minor surgeries and some simple laboratory examinations?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Secondary level health care facilities are equipped to perform minor surgeries and simple laboratory examinations. Intermediate level care (choice B) refers to a level of care between primary and secondary care, focusing on more complex procedures than minor surgeries. Tertiary level care (choice C) is specialized care that includes services like cardiac surgery and neurosurgery. Primary health care (choice D) is the first point of contact for individuals and is not typically equipped for minor surgeries or complex laboratory tests.

2. Which statement specifically describes occupational health nursing?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Occupational health nursing involves all aspects mentioned in the statements: prevention, recognition, treatment of injury and illness, application of nursing principles in conserving workers' health, and the requirement of special skills in health, education, and counseling. Choice A focuses on prevention, recognition, and treatment but does not encompass all aspects of occupational health nursing. Choice C only mentions the application of nursing principles without including prevention and treatment. Choice D specifically highlights the need for special skills but does not cover all the aspects of occupational health nursing.

3. You are teaching a client about the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) planned for post-operative care. Which statement indicates further teaching may be needed by the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: PCA allows patients to self-administer pain medication within prescribed limits, without the need to call the nurse before taking an additional dose. Choice B suggests a misunderstanding of how PCA works, as the patient should be educated that they can self-administer doses within the safety parameters set by the healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D demonstrate proper understanding of PCA, hence are not indicative of needing further teaching.

4. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.

5. The home health nursing director is conducting an educational program for registered nurses and practical nurses about Medicare reimbursement. To obtain payment for Medicare services, what must be included in the client's record?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Documentation of skilled care services is required for Medicare reimbursement. Medicare reimbursement is based on the provision of skilled care services, not on prescriptions or preventative healthcare services. Including a copy of the client's health history and social security card is not a requirement for Medicare reimbursement.

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