HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Practice Exam
1. As a community organizer, the PHN facilitates the planning and implementation of program subjects in the community. In the light of the PHC approach, these programs/projects should be characterized by the following except:
- A. managed by the community leaders/members
- B. managed by non-government organizations for the people to ensure success
- C. compatible with available resources
- D. developmental in nature
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the context of the PHC approach, programs should be characterized by being managed by community leaders/members (Choice A). This ensures community involvement and ownership. Programs should also be compatible with available resources (Choice C) to be sustainable and effective. Additionally, programs should be developmental in nature (Choice D), focusing on long-term improvements. Choice B is incorrect because programs should not be solely managed by non-government organizations; instead, they should be driven by the community to promote sustainability and empowerment.
2. The occurrence of non-communicable diseases (NCDs) is on the rise and is attributed to the changing lifestyle of Filipinos. The major NCDs are cardiovascular diseases (CVDs), cancer, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and diabetes mellitus (DM). The community health nurse can help address these problems. The major risk factors common to the above-mentioned four major NCDs are:
- A. Unhealthy diet, physical inactivity, and smoking
- B. Hypertension, sedentary lifestyle, and poor stress management
- C. Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, and smoking
- D. Unhealthy diet, alcoholism, and sedentary lifestyle
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Unhealthy diet, physical inactivity, and smoking.' These are major risk factors associated with cardiovascular diseases (CVDs), cancer, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and diabetes mellitus (DM). Unhealthy diet can lead to obesity and other health issues, physical inactivity contributes to various chronic conditions, and smoking is a well-known risk factor for cancer and respiratory diseases. Choice B is incorrect as hypertension is a condition that can result from these risk factors rather than being a risk factor itself. Poor stress management, although important for overall health, is not a major risk factor for the mentioned NCDs. Choice C is incorrect as although obesity is a risk factor, it is not mentioned in the question stem. Choice D is incorrect as alcoholism is not listed among the major NCDs or the common risk factors provided.
3. The nurse is teaching childbirth preparation classes. One woman asks about her rights to develop a birthing plan. Which response made by the nurse would be best?
- A. "What is your reason for wanting such a plan?"
- B. "Have you talked with your health care provider about this?"
- C. "Let us discuss your rights as a couple."
- D. "Write your ideal plan for the next class."
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Discussing the rights as a couple allows for open communication and helps ensure that the birthing plan aligns with the couple's preferences and medical advice.
4. The nurse is planning care for a client with increased intracranial pressure. The best position for this client is
- A. Trendelenburg
- B. Prone
- C. Semi-Fowler's
- D. Side-lying with head flat
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Semi-Fowler's. This position helps to reduce intracranial pressure by promoting venous drainage from the head while maintaining adequate oxygenation. Option A, Trendelenburg position, is incorrect as it involves placing the patient with the head lower than the body, which can increase intracranial pressure. Option B, Prone position, is also incorrect as it involves lying on the stomach, which can further elevate intracranial pressure. Option D, Side-lying with head flat, does not provide the same benefits as the Semi-Fowler's position in terms of promoting venous drainage and maintaining oxygenation in a client with increased intracranial pressure.
5. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Anemia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.
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