HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Practice Exam
1. When a nurse teaches a community about the importance of hand hygiene, the nurse is engaging in:
- A. Primary prevention
- B. Secondary prevention
- C. Tertiary prevention
- D. Quaternary prevention
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease or injury before it happens. Teaching about hand hygiene to the community helps in preventing infections from occurring in the first place. Choice B, Secondary prevention, involves early detection and treatment to halt or slow the progress of a condition. This would involve screening or early intervention after exposure. Choice C, Tertiary prevention, focuses on managing the disease to prevent complications, recurrence, or deterioration. This would include rehabilitation and monitoring to prevent further complications. Choice D, Quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to avoid unnecessary interventions or over-medicalization. This usually involves questioning the necessity of certain medical procedures or treatments to prevent harm to patients.
2. A senior high school student, whose immunization status is current, asks the school nurse which immunizations will be included in the precollege physical. Which vaccine should the nurse tell the student to expect to receive?
- A. Hepatitis C (HepC)
- B. Influenza type B (HIB)
- C. Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR)
- D. Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (DTaP)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR). MMR vaccine is commonly included in precollege physicals to ensure students are protected against these diseases. Choice A, Hepatitis C (HepC), is incorrect as the standard vaccine for hepatitis given in childhood is Hepatitis B. Choice B, Influenza type B (HIB), is not typically administered during precollege physicals but is recommended for younger children. Choice D, Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (DTaP), is usually given in early childhood and not typically repeated during precollege physicals.
3. All of the following are objectives of FHSIS EXCEPT:
- A. To complete the clinical picture of chronic diseases and describe their natural history
- B. To provide a standardized, facility-level database that can be accessed for more in-depth studies
- C. To minimize recording and reporting burden, allowing more time for patient care and promotive activities
- D. To ensure that data reported are useful and accurate and are disseminated in a timely and easy-to-use fashion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Completing the clinical picture of chronic diseases and describing their natural history is not an objective of FHSIS. The objectives of FHSIS include providing a standardized, facility-level database for more in-depth studies (B), minimizing recording and reporting burden to allow more time for patient care and promotive activities (C), and ensuring that reported data are useful, accurate, and disseminated in a timely and easy-to-use manner (D). Therefore, A is the exception among the listed objectives.
4. When designing a home health care program for disabled children, which factor should be considered when assessing reimbursement for services from private insurance companies?
- A. greater access to any healthcare provider
- B. allowance for early discharge
- C. concern for the quality of care
- D. approval by the network healthcare provider
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When assessing reimbursement for services from private insurance companies, approval by the network healthcare provider is crucial. This approval ensures that the services provided are within the approved network, allowing for reimbursement. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the reimbursement process by private insurance companies. While greater access to any healthcare provider, allowance for early discharge, and concern for the quality of care are important considerations when designing a home health care program, they do not specifically impact the reimbursement process from private insurance companies.
5. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Anemia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $149.99