community health hesi practice exam Community Health HESI Practice Exam - Nursing Elites
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Community Health HESI Practice Exam

1. A child and his family were exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis about 2 months ago. To confirm the presence or absence of an infection, it is most important for all family members to have a

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The PPD (purified protein derivative) intradermal test is the standard screening method for detecting tuberculosis infection. It helps identify individuals who have been infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A chest x-ray (Choice A) is used to assess the extent of active disease, not for screening purposes. Blood culture (Choice B) is not typically used for tuberculosis screening. Sputum culture (Choice C) is used to confirm active tuberculosis in symptomatic individuals, not for initial screening purposes.

2. What does the nurse perform to determine the family nursing problems/needs?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: assessment. Assessment is the initial step in identifying family nursing problems/needs. During assessment, the nurse collects data to understand the family's health status, strengths, weaknesses, and potential areas for intervention. This process helps in developing an accurate picture of the family's situation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because goal setting, family health care plan formulation, and evaluation come after the assessment phase. Goal setting occurs once the issues are identified, the family health care plan is developed based on assessment findings, and evaluation is the final step to assess the effectiveness of the interventions implemented.

3. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.

4. A home health nurse knows that a 70-year-old male client who is convalescing at home following a hip replacement is at risk for developing decubitus ulcers. Which physical characteristic of aging contributes to such a risk?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thinning of the skin with loss of elasticity is the physical characteristic of aging that contributes to an increased risk of developing decubitus ulcers. As individuals age, the skin becomes thinner and loses its elasticity, making it more susceptible to damage from pressure, leading to the formation of pressure ulcers. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly contribute to the development of decubitus ulcers in this context.

5. Which of the following activities is an example of tertiary prevention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, physical therapy. Tertiary prevention focuses on rehabilitation and treatment to prevent complications from a disease or injury. Physical therapy falls under this category as it helps individuals recover and improve functionality after an illness or injury. Choices A, B, and C are not examples of tertiary prevention. Health education (choice A) is more aligned with primary prevention by promoting healthy behaviors to prevent disease onset. Regular exercise (choice B) can be categorized under both primary and secondary prevention as it aims to prevent disease development and detect conditions early. Screening tests (choice C) are part of secondary prevention as they aim to detect diseases at an early stage for prompt treatment.

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