HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Practice Exam
1. What title should be given to this role in the occupational health nurse job description? A registered nurse who teaches and prepares nursing students to function as expert clinicians/practitioners, administrators, educators, researchers, or consultants at the work site.
- A. researcher
- B. case manager
- C. health educator
- D. health promotion specialist
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct title for the role described in the job description is a health educator. A health educator is responsible for teaching and preparing nursing students for various professional roles. Choice A, researcher, is incorrect because the main focus in the job description is on teaching and preparing students, not conducting research. Choice B, case manager, does not align with the role of teaching and preparing nursing students. Choice D, health promotion specialist, is also not the best fit as the primary focus in the job description is on education and preparation, rather than promoting health within a specific population.
2. An example of the continuum health model of health and wellness would be:
- A. a person is either well or not, and the emphasis is on continuously and aggressively treating people who are ill
- B. predicting that a person will most likely continue good health practices, based on his or her health practices in the past, such as getting flu shots
- C. using acupuncture and therapeutic touch to cure disease instead of traditional medical therapies
- D. none of the above
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The continuum health model emphasizes ongoing health practices based on past behaviors. Choice A is incorrect as it describes a more binary approach to health. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on alternative therapies rather than the continuity of health practices.
3. Which of the following activities is an example of tertiary prevention?
- A. Health education
- B. Regular exercise
- C. Screening tests
- D. Physical therapy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, physical therapy. Tertiary prevention focuses on rehabilitation and treatment to prevent complications from a disease or injury. Physical therapy falls under this category as it helps individuals recover and improve functionality after an illness or injury. Choices A, B, and C are not examples of tertiary prevention. Health education (choice A) is more aligned with primary prevention by promoting healthy behaviors to prevent disease onset. Regular exercise (choice B) can be categorized under both primary and secondary prevention as it aims to prevent disease development and detect conditions early. Screening tests (choice C) are part of secondary prevention as they aim to detect diseases at an early stage for prompt treatment.
4. A client with chronic congestive heart failure should be instructed to contact the home health nurse if which finding occurs?
- A. Weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a 48-hour period
- B. Urinating 4 to 5 times a day
- C. A significant decrease in appetite
- D. Appearance of non-pitting ankle edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A rapid weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a 48-hour period may indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure, requiring prompt medical evaluation and intervention. This finding is crucial in managing chronic congestive heart failure as it signifies a potential exacerbation of the condition. Choices B, C, and D are less concerning in this context. Urinating 4 to 5 times a day is within the normal range for most individuals and may not be directly related to heart failure. A significant decrease in appetite may be due to various factors and might not be an immediate cause for concern in heart failure patients. The appearance of non-pitting ankle edema, although related to heart failure, is a more chronic and less urgent symptom when compared to a rapid weight gain, which requires immediate attention.
5. A 4-month-old child taking digoxin (Lanoxin) has a blood pressure of 92/78; resting pulse of 78; respirations 28, and a potassium level of 4.8 mEq/L. The client is irritable and has vomited twice since the morning dose of digoxin. Which finding is most indicative of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Lethargy
- C. Irritability
- D. Vomiting
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia (abnormally slow heart rate) is a key sign of digoxin toxicity. In this scenario, the child's symptoms of irritability, vomiting, along with the resting pulse of 78 despite being on digoxin, suggest an impending bradycardia due to digoxin toxicity. Lethargy can also be a sign, but in this case, the child is irritable rather than lethargic. Vomiting, though a symptom, is not as specific to digoxin toxicity as bradycardia. Irritability, while present, is not the most indicative finding of digoxin toxicity compared to bradycardia.
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