Free HESI LPN Exit practice for HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 (HESI LPN). Answer 99 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress tracking on N
What is the most appropriate nursing action when a patient on anticoagulant therapy develops sudden, severe back pain?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a patient on anticoagulant therapy experiences sudden, severe back pain, the priority nursing action is to assess for signs of internal bleeding. Severe back pain in this context could be indicative of internal bleeding, such as a retroperitoneal bleed, which is a critical condition requiring immediate attention. Administering pain medication or applying a cold compress may mask or delay the identification of a potentially life-threatening situation. Repositioning the patient for comfort is not the priority when internal bleeding needs to be ruled out.
What is the primary role of the sinoatrial (SA) node in the heart?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Pacemaker of the heart. The SA node, known as the natural pacemaker, initiates the electrical impulses that set the rhythm for the heartbeat. It is responsible for coordinating the heart's contractions by generating electrical signals at regular intervals. Choice B is incorrect as the SA node's primary function is not related to blood pressure regulation. Choice C is incorrect as the SA node does not cause electrical conduction delay but rather initiates and conducts the electrical impulses. Choice D is incorrect as the SA node does not directly stimulate muscle contraction but rather initiates the electrical events that lead to muscle contraction.
A Native American client is admitted with a diagnosis of psychosis not otherwise specified. The client's family seems to regard the client's hallucinations as normal. What assessment can be made?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice A is correct because the family may interpret the client's hallucinations through their cultural lens, potentially viewing them as normal or spiritually significant. Understanding and acknowledging the cultural context is essential for providing culturally sensitive care. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while talking circles and seeking guidance from a medicine man may be culturally relevant interventions in some contexts, the priority in this situation is to recognize and respect the family's perspective on the client's hallucinations.
The PN observes a UAP bathing a bedfast client with the bed in the high position. Which action should the PN take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the PN to take in this situation is to instruct the UAP to lower the bed for safety. Keeping the bed in the lowest position during care activities is crucial for preventing falls and injuries to both the client and the caregiver. Instructing the UAP to lower the bed addresses the immediate safety concern. Choice A is incorrect because simply supervising the UAP without addressing the unsafe bed height does not ensure the client's safety. Choice B is incorrect as the priority is to address the safety concern rather than offering assistance to the UAP. Choice C is incorrect as assuming care of the client immediately does not address the root issue of the high bed position.
For an older postoperative client with the nursing diagnosis 'impaired mobility related to fear of falling,' which desired outcome best directs the nurse's actions for the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging the client to use self-affirmation statements is the most appropriate desired outcome in this scenario. By utilizing self-affirmation statements, the client can address their fears directly and build confidence, which can ultimately lead to a reduction in fear of falling. While ambulating with assistance (choice A) is important, the focus here is on addressing the fear itself. Instructing the client in the use of a walker (choice B) and placing a gait belt on the client (choice D) are interventions that may be helpful but do not directly address the client's fear of falling.
Which action should the PN implement when using standard precautions to provide client care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. When using standard precautions, healthcare providers should wear clean exam gloves to perform perineal catheter care. This approach helps prevent the transmission of pathogens and ensures the safety of both the client and the healthcare provider. Choice A is incorrect because applying sterile gloves for a finger stick blood sample is unnecessary when non-sterile gloves would suffice. Choice C is incorrect because replacing the needle cap after giving an intramuscular injection is not directly related to standard precautions. Choice D is incorrect because wearing a paper gown is not a standard precaution for preventing the transmission of droplet pathogens.
A female client taking a liquid iron preparation expresses concern that her tooth color has darkened since starting the medication. What action should the PN implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the PN to implement is to teach the client to use a straw when taking the medication to reduce further tooth staining. Using a straw minimizes contact between the iron preparation and the teeth, helping prevent additional staining. Choice B is incorrect because withholding doses without consulting the healthcare provider could be detrimental to the client's health. Choice C is incorrect because darkening of tooth color is not an expected effect of liquid iron preparation and should not be reassured as a desired effect. Choice D is incorrect as it does not directly address the client's concern about tooth staining.
The home health PN suspects elder abuse after observing fresh lacerations on the arms and legs of an older adult male client who lives with his daughter. Which action is most important for the PN to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important action for the PN to take in this situation is to report the findings to the supervisor for referral to adult protective services. Suspected elder abuse must be reported promptly to ensure the safety and protection of the client. Documenting the lacerations in the client's record is important but not as critical as reporting the suspected abuse. Asking the daughter who is the potential abuser may not yield accurate information and could compromise the safety of the client. Applying dressings to the wounds is a lower priority compared to addressing the suspected elder abuse.
A client is post-operative day two from an abdominal surgery and reports feeling weak and lightheaded when attempting to get out of bed. What is the nurse's priority action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse's priority action should be to assist the client back to bed and monitor vital signs. The client's symptoms of feeling weak and lightheaded could indicate potential issues like hypotension or dehydration, which need to be assessed promptly. Encouraging fluids (Choice A) could be beneficial but is not the immediate priority. Administering an antiemetic (Choice C) may not address the underlying cause of the client's symptoms. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after the client has been stabilized and assessed.
Which of the following is a primary intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Giving 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as glucose tablets, is the primary intervention for hypoglycemia. This rapid-acting carbohydrate helps quickly raise blood sugar levels, providing immediate relief to the patient. Administering insulin (Choice A) would further lower blood sugar levels, exacerbating the hypoglycemia. Providing a complex carbohydrate meal (Choice B) would not act quickly enough to address the immediate low blood sugar issue. Encouraging the patient to exercise (Choice D) is inappropriate during hypoglycemia as it can further deplete glucose levels.
What is the first step in using an automated external defibrillator (AED) on a patient who has collapsed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Turn on the AED and follow the voice prompts. This is the first step in using an AED as the device will guide you through the process of analyzing the heart rhythm and delivering a shock if necessary. Choice A, applying the pads to the chest, comes after turning on the AED. Checking the patient's pulse (Choice C) is not necessary before using an AED as the device is specifically designed to assess the need for defibrillation. Ensuring the area is clear (Choice D) is important for safety but is not the initial step in using an AED.
The client diagnosed with HIV is taught by the nurse that the condition is transmitted through
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
HIV can be transmitted from a mother to her baby during childbirth or breastfeeding, making choice A the correct answer. Tears, human bites, and insect bites are not common modes of HIV transmission. While human bites can potentially transmit the virus, it is less common compared to mother-to-child transmission.
Patients are coming into the emergency room as a result of an apartment house fire. You are examining a patient who is in distress but has no visible burn marks. You suspect that she is suffering from inhalation burns. Which of the following signs would NOT be associated with inhalation burns?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clear sputum would not be associated with inhalation burns. Inhalation burns typically present with symptoms like singed nasal hairs, conjunctivitis, hoarseness, and possibly soot in sputum due to smoke inhalation. Clear sputum suggests that there is no significant inflammation or injury to the respiratory tract, which is not consistent with the typical findings in inhalation burns. The other choices are associated with inhalation burns: singed nasal hairs can occur due to exposure to hot air or gases, conjunctivitis can result from irritating substances in smoke, and hoarseness can be due to airway irritation.
While providing oral care for a client who is unconscious, the nurse positions the client laterally and uses a basin to collect secretions. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Using oral swabs with normal saline is the best intervention in this scenario as it effectively cleans the oral cavity without causing irritation or dryness, which is crucial for an unconscious client. Swabbing the oral cavity with a washcloth may not provide thorough cleaning, and it can potentially cause irritation. Providing a Yankauer tip for oral suction is not necessary unless there are excessive secretions that need to be suctioned. Supporting the head with a small pillow, although important for comfort, is not directly related to oral care in an unconscious client.
The client with schizophrenia who continues to repeat the last words heard is exhibiting a sign of disturbed thought processes. Which nursing problem should the nurse document in the medical record?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Disturbed thought processes. Echolalia, the repetition of words, is a sign of disturbed thought processes commonly seen in clients with schizophrenia. It reflects a disorganization in thinking rather than a sensory perception issue (Choice A). Impaired social interaction (Choice B) refers to difficulties in relating to others, which is not the primary concern in echolalia. Risk for self-directed violence (Choice C) focuses on potential harm to self, which is separate from the repetitive behavior of echolalia.
The PN is reviewing instructions for the use of pilocarpine eye drops with a client who has glaucoma. The client replies that the drops are used to anesthetize the eye if eye pain is experienced. What action should the PN implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Pilocarpine eye drops are used to reduce intraocular pressure in glaucoma, not to anesthetize the eye. The PN should reteach the client about the purpose of the medication to ensure proper use and understanding, which is crucial for effective treatment. Choice A is incorrect because just documenting understanding without addressing the client's misconception is not enough. Choice B is incorrect as it provides incorrect information about the purpose of the eye drops and may lead to further misunderstanding. Choice D is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information stating that the drops provide pain relief, which is not their primary purpose.
The UAP reports to the PN that an assigned client experiences SOB when the bed is lowered for bathing. Which action should the PN implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Advising the UAP to allow the client to rest before completing the bath is the most appropriate action to take. This helps manage the shortness of breath (SOB) experienced by the client and prevents further stress. By giving the client time to rest, the PN ensures the client's comfort and safety during care activities. The other options are not the most immediate or appropriate actions in this scenario: obtaining further data about activity intolerance (choice A) may delay addressing the current issue, obtaining vital signs and pulse oximetry (choice C) is important but not as immediate as allowing the client to rest, and notifying the healthcare provider (choice D) is premature before trying a simple intervention like allowing the client to rest.
An older postoperative client has the nursing diagnosis 'impaired mobility related to fear of falling.' Which desired outcome best directs the PN's actions for the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Using self-affirmation statements helps the client reduce fear and regain confidence in mobility, which is essential for improving impaired mobility. Choice A focuses more on the frequency of ambulation rather than addressing the fear of falling. Choice B involves the physical therapist and the use of a walker, which may not directly address the client's fear. Choice D is a safety measure but does not specifically target the client's fear of falling.
A client is recovering from a right-sided mastectomy and is concerned about lymphedema. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching to minimize this risk?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Advise against lifting heavy objects with the affected arm. Lifting heavy objects with the affected arm can increase the risk of lymphedema. It is important for clients to avoid activities that strain the affected arm to minimize the risk of developing lymphedema. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because wearing tight clothing on the affected arm, sleeping on the affected side, and frequent massage of the affected arm can potentially worsen lymphedema or impede the recovery process. Tight clothing can impede lymphatic flow, sleeping on the affected side can restrict circulation, and frequent massage can exacerbate swelling in the arm.
During a blood transfusion, which sign or symptom should prompt the healthcare provider to immediately stop the transfusion?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Elevated temperature and chills. These symptoms are indicative of a transfusion reaction, which can be severe and life-threatening. It is crucial to stop the transfusion immediately and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment and management. Elevated temperature and chills are classic signs of a transfusion reaction, specifically indicating a possible febrile non-hemolytic reaction. Choice A, a slight increase in blood pressure, is not typically a reason to stop a transfusion unless it is a significant sudden increase. Mild nausea (Choice C) and a slight headache (Choice D) are common side effects of blood transfusions and are not primary indicators of a transfusion reaction that require immediate cessation of the transfusion.
What is the priority intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention in an acute asthma attack. Bronchodilators help to quickly open the airways, relieve bronchospasm, and improve breathing. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids may be beneficial for other conditions but is not the priority in an acute asthma attack. Applying a high-flow oxygen mask may be necessary in severe cases of respiratory distress but is not the initial priority when managing an acute asthma attack. Performing chest physiotherapy is not indicated as the primary intervention for an acute asthma attack and may not address the immediate need to open the airways and improve breathing.
What is the primary cause of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Insulin deficiency. Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs due to a severe lack of insulin, causing the body to break down fat for energy, leading to the production of ketones and acidification of the blood. Option B, Overhydration, is incorrect as DKA is characterized by dehydration rather than overhydration. Option C, Excess carbohydrate intake, is incorrect because while high blood sugar levels can contribute to DKA, the primary cause is insulin deficiency. Option D, Excess insulin, is also incorrect as DKA is not caused by an excess of insulin but rather by a lack of it.
When administering parenteral iron, which action would be inconsistent with proper administration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Using the deltoid muscle for administration. Administering parenteral iron in the deltoid muscle is not recommended due to the risk of irritation and pain. The Z-track method (choice A) is preferred to prevent staining and irritation of the skin when administering irritating medications like iron. Using an air bubble (choice B) to avoid withdrawing medication into subcutaneous tissue is a common practice to ensure accurate administration. Not massaging the injection site (choice C) is also a standard practice to prevent potential irritation or bleeding at the injection site.
In which type of cardiomyopathy does septal involvement occur?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Septal involvement is a characteristic feature of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, where the septal wall of the heart thickens. This thickening can obstruct blood flow out of the heart, leading to complications such as arrhythmias and heart failure. This differentiates it from other types of cardiomyopathy. In congestive cardiomyopathy (choice A), the heart's chambers become enlarged and weakened, but there is no specific mention of septal involvement. Dilated cardiomyopathy (choice B) involves dilation and impaired contraction of the heart chambers, not specifically septal thickening. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice D) is characterized by stiffening of the heart muscle, affecting its ability to fill properly, without direct involvement of the septum.
The PN is caring for a laboring client whose last sterile vaginal examination revealed the cervix was 3 cm dilated, 50% effaced, and the presenting part was at 0 station. An hour later, the client tells the PN that she wants to go to the bathroom. Which action is most important for the PN to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The sudden urge to use the bathroom may indicate that labor is progressing quickly. Checking the cervical dilation will help determine if the client is in the transition phase of labor and if it is appropriate to allow her to get up. Reviewing the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern (Choice A) is important but not the most immediate action in this scenario. Checking the perineum for an increase in bloody show (Choice B) is relevant but not as crucial as assessing cervical dilation. Palpating the client's bladder for distention (Choice D) is not the priority when the client wants to go to the bathroom during labor.
Before administering an antibiotic that can cause nephrotoxicity, which lab value is most important for the nurse to review?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Serum Creatinine. Serum creatinine is a key indicator of kidney function. Reviewing this value is crucial as it helps assess the client's risk for nephrotoxicity before administering the antibiotic. Elevated serum creatinine levels can indicate impaired kidney function, which would increase the risk of nephrotoxicity. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly related to kidney function and nephrotoxicity. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels assess for anemia, serum calcium levels monitor calcium balance, and WBC count evaluates for infections. While these values are important for overall patient assessment, they are not as specific to assessing nephrotoxicity risk as serum creatinine.
In which stage of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is a young adult attempting to achieve when deciding to change his work hours to devote more time to his community?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Self-Actualization. The young adult is striving for self-actualization, the highest level in Maslow's hierarchy of needs. Self-actualization is characterized by individuals seeking personal growth, self-fulfillment, and the ability to contribute to society. Choice B, Intimacy vs. Isolation, focuses on relationships and occurs at a different stage. Choice C, Altruism, although related to community contribution, does not specifically address personal growth and fulfillment as in self-actualization. Choice D, Purposefulness, is not a stage in Maslow's hierarchy of needs and is not directly relevant to the scenario described.
A client tells the PN that she has a family history of cancer and has increased the amount of dairy products in her diet to reduce her risk of getting cancer. How should the PN respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Increasing fruits and vegetables in the diet is more beneficial in reducing cancer risk due to their high levels of antioxidants and fiber, which help protect against cancer. While exercise is important for overall health, in this context, focusing on fruits and vegetables is more relevant to reducing cancer risk than exercise alone. Providing information about cancer warning signs is not directly addressing the client's dietary choice. While Vitamin D is essential for various health aspects, the primary focus here should be on a diet rich in fruits and vegetables for cancer risk reduction.
A child with glomerulonephritis is admitted in the acute edematous phase. Based on this diagnosis, which nursing intervention should the PN plan to include in the child's plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to measure blood pressure every 4 to 6 hours. In glomerulonephritis, monitoring blood pressure is crucial as hypertension is a common complication. This helps in assessing the child's condition and response to treatment. Choice A, recommending parents bring favorite snacks, is not related to managing glomerulonephritis. Choice B, encouraging ambulation daily to the playroom, may not be appropriate during the acute edematous phase when the child may be experiencing fluid overload. Choice D, offering a selection of fresh fruit for each meal, is not directly relevant to managing the complications of glomerulonephritis.
A client who is post-operative from a bowel resection is experiencing abdominal distention and pain. The nurse notices the client has not passed gas or had a bowel movement. What should the nurse assess first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing bowel sounds is crucial in this situation as it helps determine if the client's gastrointestinal tract is functioning properly. Absent or hypoactive bowel sounds can indicate an ileus, a common post-operative complication. Assessing fluid intake (Choice B) is important but should come after assessing bowel sounds. Pain assessment (Choice C) is essential but addressing the physiological issue should take precedence. Checking the surgical incision (Choice D) is relevant but not the priority when the client is experiencing abdominal distention and potential gastrointestinal complications.
What is a priority when providing care for a patient with a newly inserted tracheostomy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When caring for a patient with a newly inserted tracheostomy, the priority is to monitor for signs of infection and ensure a patent airway. This is crucial to prevent complications such as airway obstruction or infection. While keeping the tracheostomy tube clean and dry is important for overall care, it is not the highest priority when compared to ensuring a patent airway. Providing regular oral hygiene is essential for the patient's comfort but takes a secondary role to maintaining airway patency. Encouraging the patient to cough and deep breathe may be beneficial but is not as critical as monitoring for infection and keeping the airway clear.
In which condition is the 'butterfly rash' most commonly seen?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The 'butterfly rash' across the cheeks and nose is a classic sign of SLE, an autoimmune disease. This rash is a key dermatological manifestation of SLE, often triggered or worsened by exposure to sunlight. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the 'butterfly rash' is not commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, or dermatomyositis.
What disorder closely matches Suzy's symptoms?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Suzy's symptoms are characteristic of Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD). BPD includes instability in relationships, self-image, and emotions, as well as impulsivity and self-harm. Choice A, Antisocial personality disorder, is characterized by a disregard for others' rights and lack of empathy, which does not align with Suzy's symptoms. Schizoid personality disorder, choice C, is characterized by a lack of interest in social relationships, which is not a prominent feature in Suzy's case. Dissociative Identity Disorder, choice D, involves the presence of two or more distinct identities or personality states, which is not reflected in Suzy's symptoms.
The practical nurse is caring for a client whose urine drug screen is positive for cocaine. Which behavior is this client likely to exhibit during cocaine withdrawal?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Powerful craving for more. During cocaine withdrawal, individuals often experience intense cravings for the drug, along with symptoms such as fatigue, depression, and anxiety. These cravings can be overpowering and lead to a strong desire to seek out more cocaine to alleviate the withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as elevated energy level, euphoria, and high self-esteem are more associated with the effects of cocaine rather than withdrawal symptoms. Withdrawal from cocaine is characterized by the opposite, such as fatigue, low mood, and intense cravings.
A client with peripheral neuropathy due to cirrhosis is at risk for injury. What should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Protecting the client's feet from injury is critical as peripheral neuropathy can lead to decreased sensation and increased risk of trauma. This measure helps prevent wounds, ulcers, and other complications. Applying a heating pad (Choice B) can worsen symptoms and cause burns due to decreased sensation. Keeping the client's feet elevated (Choice C) may help reduce swelling but does not directly address the risk of injury. Assessing for jaundice (Choice D) is important in cirrhosis but is not directly related to the client's risk of injury due to peripheral neuropathy.
A male client with TB returns to the clinic for daily antibiotic injections for a urinary infection. The client has been taking anti-tubercular medications for 10 weeks and states he has ringing in his ears. Which prescribed medication should the PN report to the HCP?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to ringing in the ears (tinnitus). This symptom should be reported to the HCP immediately, as it may indicate a need to adjust or discontinue the medication. Choice A, Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin, is not the cause of ototoxicity. Choices C and D, Rifampin and Isoniazid, are anti-tubercular medications but are not associated with causing ringing in the ears.
At the end of a 12-hour shift, the PN observes the urine in a client's drainage bag as seen in the picture. Which action should the PN take next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Noting the white blood cell count is the most appropriate action in this situation. Changes in urine appearance could indicate infection, and assessing the white blood cell count helps in evaluating the possibility of infection. This is crucial for understanding the client's overall condition. The other options are not directly related to assessing infection based on urine appearance. Offering analgesics, checking glucose levels, or determining bladder distention may not address the underlying issue of a potential infection.
In what order should the PN implement these steps to provide wound care? (Place in correct order.)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'D - All of the Above.' The PN should first don procedure gloves to maintain aseptic technique, then remove the dressing to assess the wound, and finally apply prescribed medications to the wound. This sequence ensures that non-sterile tasks like donning gloves are done before sterile tasks like applying medications, reducing the risk of wound contamination. Choices A, B, and C are all essential steps in providing effective wound care.
A client is recovering from a craniotomy and has a ventriculostomy in place. The nurse notices the drainage from the ventriculostomy is suddenly increasing. What should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A sudden increase in drainage from a ventriculostomy could indicate a serious complication such as increased intracranial pressure or hemorrhage. The priority action in this situation is to notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention. Increasing the head of the bed may be beneficial in some situations but is not the first action to take. Clamping the ventriculostomy tube is inappropriate as it can lead to increased intracranial pressure. Measuring the client's head circumference is not the priority when there is a sudden increase in ventriculostomy drainage.
Which type of isolation is required for a patient with measles?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Airborne isolation. Measles is highly contagious and can be transmitted through airborne particles, so airborne isolation is necessary to prevent its spread. Choice A, Contact isolation, is incorrect because measles is not primarily transmitted through direct contact. Choice C, Droplet isolation, is also incorrect as measles is not transmitted through large droplets but through smaller airborne particles. Choice D, Reverse isolation, is used to protect a patient from outside infections, not to prevent the spread of a contagious disease like measles.
While assessing an older male client who takes psychotropic medications, the nurse observes uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking. Which information in the client's medical record should the nurse review?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The symptoms of uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking are indicative of tardive dyskinesia, a possible side effect of long-term use of psychotropic medications. Reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia is crucial to assess if these symptoms are related to the medication. Option A, the prescription for lorazepam, is less relevant as the focus should be on potential side effects rather than the specific medication. Option B, history of Parkinson's disease, is not directly related to the observed symptoms, which are more likely linked to medication side effects. Option D, recent urine drug screen report, is not as pertinent in this context compared to reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia.
A client who is at full-term gestation is in active labor and complains of a cramp in her leg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for a client in active labor complaining of a leg cramp is to extend the leg and flex the foot. This action helps stretch the muscles that are cramping, providing relief. Massaging the calf and foot (Choice A) may not be as effective for relieving the cramp. Elevating the leg above the heart (Choice B) is not indicated for a leg cramp. Checking the pedal pulse in the affected leg (Choice C) is unrelated to addressing the leg cramp.
A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.
Prior to giving digoxin, the PN assesses that a 2-month-old infant's heart rate is 120 beats/minute. Based on this finding, what action should the PN take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A heart rate of 120 beats per minute is within the normal range for a 2-month-old infant. Therefore, it is safe to administer the digoxin and document the heart rate as part of routine care. Choice A is incorrect as withholding the medication is not necessary since the heart rate is normal. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to delay the administration until the next scheduled dose when the heart rate is within the normal range. Choice D is incorrect as the primary nurse is not needed to administer the medication since the heart rate is normal and falls within the safe range for administration.
The PN assigns a UAP to assist with the personal care of a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Which instruction should the PN provide the UAP?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis, it is important to encourage self-care to maintain the client's independence. Allowing rest periods helps prevent fatigue, which is crucial in managing MS exacerbations. Choice A is incorrect as hot baths can exacerbate symptoms in MS. Choice C is about communication techniques and not directly related to client care during an exacerbation. Choice D is not a priority intervention during an MS exacerbation.
A post-operative client develops a sudden onset of chest pain and dyspnea. The nurse suspects a pulmonary embolism (PE). What is the priority nursing action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering oxygen via face mask is the priority nursing action in a post-operative client suspected of a pulmonary embolism. This intervention helps ensure adequate oxygenation while further assessments and interventions are initiated. Elevating the client's legs is not indicated for a suspected pulmonary embolism; it is more appropriate for conditions like shock. Immediate surgery is not the priority in this situation as the client is experiencing acute symptoms requiring prompt intervention. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, the immediate focus should be on providing oxygen to the client to support respiratory function.
Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to its effects on the electrical conduction of the heart. High levels of potassium can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, potentially leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is not the most likely cause of cardiac arrhythmias compared to hyperkalemia. Hypernatremia (choice C), referring to high sodium levels, is not directly associated with causing cardiac arrhythmias. While hypokalemia (choice D), low potassium levels, can also lead to cardiac arrhythmias, hyperkalemia is the more likely culprit in causing severe disturbances in heart rhythm.
What is the most appropriate nursing action when a patient on anticoagulant therapy develops sudden, severe back pain?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a patient on anticoagulant therapy experiences sudden, severe back pain, the priority nursing action is to assess for signs of internal bleeding. Severe back pain in this context could be indicative of internal bleeding, such as a retroperitoneal bleed, which is a critical condition requiring immediate attention. Administering pain medication or applying a cold compress may mask or delay the identification of a potentially life-threatening situation. Repositioning the patient for comfort is not the priority when internal bleeding needs to be ruled out.
What is the primary role of the sinoatrial (SA) node in the heart?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Pacemaker of the heart. The SA node, known as the natural pacemaker, initiates the electrical impulses that set the rhythm for the heartbeat. It is responsible for coordinating the heart's contractions by generating electrical signals at regular intervals. Choice B is incorrect as the SA node's primary function is not related to blood pressure regulation. Choice C is incorrect as the SA node does not cause electrical conduction delay but rather initiates and conducts the electrical impulses. Choice D is incorrect as the SA node does not directly stimulate muscle contraction but rather initiates the electrical events that lead to muscle contraction.
A Native American client is admitted with a diagnosis of psychosis not otherwise specified. The client's family seems to regard the client's hallucinations as normal. What assessment can be made?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice A is correct because the family may interpret the client's hallucinations through their cultural lens, potentially viewing them as normal or spiritually significant. Understanding and acknowledging the cultural context is essential for providing culturally sensitive care. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while talking circles and seeking guidance from a medicine man may be culturally relevant interventions in some contexts, the priority in this situation is to recognize and respect the family's perspective on the client's hallucinations.
The PN observes a UAP bathing a bedfast client with the bed in the high position. Which action should the PN take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the PN to take in this situation is to instruct the UAP to lower the bed for safety. Keeping the bed in the lowest position during care activities is crucial for preventing falls and injuries to both the client and the caregiver. Instructing the UAP to lower the bed addresses the immediate safety concern. Choice A is incorrect because simply supervising the UAP without addressing the unsafe bed height does not ensure the client's safety. Choice B is incorrect as the priority is to address the safety concern rather than offering assistance to the UAP. Choice C is incorrect as assuming care of the client immediately does not address the root issue of the high bed position.
For an older postoperative client with the nursing diagnosis 'impaired mobility related to fear of falling,' which desired outcome best directs the nurse's actions for the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging the client to use self-affirmation statements is the most appropriate desired outcome in this scenario. By utilizing self-affirmation statements, the client can address their fears directly and build confidence, which can ultimately lead to a reduction in fear of falling. While ambulating with assistance (choice A) is important, the focus here is on addressing the fear itself. Instructing the client in the use of a walker (choice B) and placing a gait belt on the client (choice D) are interventions that may be helpful but do not directly address the client's fear of falling.
Which action should the PN implement when using standard precautions to provide client care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. When using standard precautions, healthcare providers should wear clean exam gloves to perform perineal catheter care. This approach helps prevent the transmission of pathogens and ensures the safety of both the client and the healthcare provider. Choice A is incorrect because applying sterile gloves for a finger stick blood sample is unnecessary when non-sterile gloves would suffice. Choice C is incorrect because replacing the needle cap after giving an intramuscular injection is not directly related to standard precautions. Choice D is incorrect because wearing a paper gown is not a standard precaution for preventing the transmission of droplet pathogens.
A female client taking a liquid iron preparation expresses concern that her tooth color has darkened since starting the medication. What action should the PN implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the PN to implement is to teach the client to use a straw when taking the medication to reduce further tooth staining. Using a straw minimizes contact between the iron preparation and the teeth, helping prevent additional staining. Choice B is incorrect because withholding doses without consulting the healthcare provider could be detrimental to the client's health. Choice C is incorrect because darkening of tooth color is not an expected effect of liquid iron preparation and should not be reassured as a desired effect. Choice D is incorrect as it does not directly address the client's concern about tooth staining.
The home health PN suspects elder abuse after observing fresh lacerations on the arms and legs of an older adult male client who lives with his daughter. Which action is most important for the PN to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important action for the PN to take in this situation is to report the findings to the supervisor for referral to adult protective services. Suspected elder abuse must be reported promptly to ensure the safety and protection of the client. Documenting the lacerations in the client's record is important but not as critical as reporting the suspected abuse. Asking the daughter who is the potential abuser may not yield accurate information and could compromise the safety of the client. Applying dressings to the wounds is a lower priority compared to addressing the suspected elder abuse.
A client is post-operative day two from an abdominal surgery and reports feeling weak and lightheaded when attempting to get out of bed. What is the nurse's priority action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse's priority action should be to assist the client back to bed and monitor vital signs. The client's symptoms of feeling weak and lightheaded could indicate potential issues like hypotension or dehydration, which need to be assessed promptly. Encouraging fluids (Choice A) could be beneficial but is not the immediate priority. Administering an antiemetic (Choice C) may not address the underlying cause of the client's symptoms. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after the client has been stabilized and assessed.
Which of the following is a primary intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Giving 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as glucose tablets, is the primary intervention for hypoglycemia. This rapid-acting carbohydrate helps quickly raise blood sugar levels, providing immediate relief to the patient. Administering insulin (Choice A) would further lower blood sugar levels, exacerbating the hypoglycemia. Providing a complex carbohydrate meal (Choice B) would not act quickly enough to address the immediate low blood sugar issue. Encouraging the patient to exercise (Choice D) is inappropriate during hypoglycemia as it can further deplete glucose levels.
What is the first step in using an automated external defibrillator (AED) on a patient who has collapsed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Turn on the AED and follow the voice prompts. This is the first step in using an AED as the device will guide you through the process of analyzing the heart rhythm and delivering a shock if necessary. Choice A, applying the pads to the chest, comes after turning on the AED. Checking the patient's pulse (Choice C) is not necessary before using an AED as the device is specifically designed to assess the need for defibrillation. Ensuring the area is clear (Choice D) is important for safety but is not the initial step in using an AED.
The client diagnosed with HIV is taught by the nurse that the condition is transmitted through
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
HIV can be transmitted from a mother to her baby during childbirth or breastfeeding, making choice A the correct answer. Tears, human bites, and insect bites are not common modes of HIV transmission. While human bites can potentially transmit the virus, it is less common compared to mother-to-child transmission.
Patients are coming into the emergency room as a result of an apartment house fire. You are examining a patient who is in distress but has no visible burn marks. You suspect that she is suffering from inhalation burns. Which of the following signs would NOT be associated with inhalation burns?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clear sputum would not be associated with inhalation burns. Inhalation burns typically present with symptoms like singed nasal hairs, conjunctivitis, hoarseness, and possibly soot in sputum due to smoke inhalation. Clear sputum suggests that there is no significant inflammation or injury to the respiratory tract, which is not consistent with the typical findings in inhalation burns. The other choices are associated with inhalation burns: singed nasal hairs can occur due to exposure to hot air or gases, conjunctivitis can result from irritating substances in smoke, and hoarseness can be due to airway irritation.
While providing oral care for a client who is unconscious, the nurse positions the client laterally and uses a basin to collect secretions. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Using oral swabs with normal saline is the best intervention in this scenario as it effectively cleans the oral cavity without causing irritation or dryness, which is crucial for an unconscious client. Swabbing the oral cavity with a washcloth may not provide thorough cleaning, and it can potentially cause irritation. Providing a Yankauer tip for oral suction is not necessary unless there are excessive secretions that need to be suctioned. Supporting the head with a small pillow, although important for comfort, is not directly related to oral care in an unconscious client.
The client with schizophrenia who continues to repeat the last words heard is exhibiting a sign of disturbed thought processes. Which nursing problem should the nurse document in the medical record?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Disturbed thought processes. Echolalia, the repetition of words, is a sign of disturbed thought processes commonly seen in clients with schizophrenia. It reflects a disorganization in thinking rather than a sensory perception issue (Choice A). Impaired social interaction (Choice B) refers to difficulties in relating to others, which is not the primary concern in echolalia. Risk for self-directed violence (Choice C) focuses on potential harm to self, which is separate from the repetitive behavior of echolalia.
The PN is reviewing instructions for the use of pilocarpine eye drops with a client who has glaucoma. The client replies that the drops are used to anesthetize the eye if eye pain is experienced. What action should the PN implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Pilocarpine eye drops are used to reduce intraocular pressure in glaucoma, not to anesthetize the eye. The PN should reteach the client about the purpose of the medication to ensure proper use and understanding, which is crucial for effective treatment. Choice A is incorrect because just documenting understanding without addressing the client's misconception is not enough. Choice B is incorrect as it provides incorrect information about the purpose of the eye drops and may lead to further misunderstanding. Choice D is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information stating that the drops provide pain relief, which is not their primary purpose.
The UAP reports to the PN that an assigned client experiences SOB when the bed is lowered for bathing. Which action should the PN implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Advising the UAP to allow the client to rest before completing the bath is the most appropriate action to take. This helps manage the shortness of breath (SOB) experienced by the client and prevents further stress. By giving the client time to rest, the PN ensures the client's comfort and safety during care activities. The other options are not the most immediate or appropriate actions in this scenario: obtaining further data about activity intolerance (choice A) may delay addressing the current issue, obtaining vital signs and pulse oximetry (choice C) is important but not as immediate as allowing the client to rest, and notifying the healthcare provider (choice D) is premature before trying a simple intervention like allowing the client to rest.
An older postoperative client has the nursing diagnosis 'impaired mobility related to fear of falling.' Which desired outcome best directs the PN's actions for the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Using self-affirmation statements helps the client reduce fear and regain confidence in mobility, which is essential for improving impaired mobility. Choice A focuses more on the frequency of ambulation rather than addressing the fear of falling. Choice B involves the physical therapist and the use of a walker, which may not directly address the client's fear. Choice D is a safety measure but does not specifically target the client's fear of falling.
A client is recovering from a right-sided mastectomy and is concerned about lymphedema. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching to minimize this risk?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Advise against lifting heavy objects with the affected arm. Lifting heavy objects with the affected arm can increase the risk of lymphedema. It is important for clients to avoid activities that strain the affected arm to minimize the risk of developing lymphedema. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because wearing tight clothing on the affected arm, sleeping on the affected side, and frequent massage of the affected arm can potentially worsen lymphedema or impede the recovery process. Tight clothing can impede lymphatic flow, sleeping on the affected side can restrict circulation, and frequent massage can exacerbate swelling in the arm.
During a blood transfusion, which sign or symptom should prompt the healthcare provider to immediately stop the transfusion?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Elevated temperature and chills. These symptoms are indicative of a transfusion reaction, which can be severe and life-threatening. It is crucial to stop the transfusion immediately and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment and management. Elevated temperature and chills are classic signs of a transfusion reaction, specifically indicating a possible febrile non-hemolytic reaction. Choice A, a slight increase in blood pressure, is not typically a reason to stop a transfusion unless it is a significant sudden increase. Mild nausea (Choice C) and a slight headache (Choice D) are common side effects of blood transfusions and are not primary indicators of a transfusion reaction that require immediate cessation of the transfusion.
What is the priority intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention in an acute asthma attack. Bronchodilators help to quickly open the airways, relieve bronchospasm, and improve breathing. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids may be beneficial for other conditions but is not the priority in an acute asthma attack. Applying a high-flow oxygen mask may be necessary in severe cases of respiratory distress but is not the initial priority when managing an acute asthma attack. Performing chest physiotherapy is not indicated as the primary intervention for an acute asthma attack and may not address the immediate need to open the airways and improve breathing.
What is the primary cause of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Insulin deficiency. Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs due to a severe lack of insulin, causing the body to break down fat for energy, leading to the production of ketones and acidification of the blood. Option B, Overhydration, is incorrect as DKA is characterized by dehydration rather than overhydration. Option C, Excess carbohydrate intake, is incorrect because while high blood sugar levels can contribute to DKA, the primary cause is insulin deficiency. Option D, Excess insulin, is also incorrect as DKA is not caused by an excess of insulin but rather by a lack of it.
When administering parenteral iron, which action would be inconsistent with proper administration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Using the deltoid muscle for administration. Administering parenteral iron in the deltoid muscle is not recommended due to the risk of irritation and pain. The Z-track method (choice A) is preferred to prevent staining and irritation of the skin when administering irritating medications like iron. Using an air bubble (choice B) to avoid withdrawing medication into subcutaneous tissue is a common practice to ensure accurate administration. Not massaging the injection site (choice C) is also a standard practice to prevent potential irritation or bleeding at the injection site.
In which type of cardiomyopathy does septal involvement occur?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Septal involvement is a characteristic feature of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, where the septal wall of the heart thickens. This thickening can obstruct blood flow out of the heart, leading to complications such as arrhythmias and heart failure. This differentiates it from other types of cardiomyopathy. In congestive cardiomyopathy (choice A), the heart's chambers become enlarged and weakened, but there is no specific mention of septal involvement. Dilated cardiomyopathy (choice B) involves dilation and impaired contraction of the heart chambers, not specifically septal thickening. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice D) is characterized by stiffening of the heart muscle, affecting its ability to fill properly, without direct involvement of the septum.
The PN is caring for a laboring client whose last sterile vaginal examination revealed the cervix was 3 cm dilated, 50% effaced, and the presenting part was at 0 station. An hour later, the client tells the PN that she wants to go to the bathroom. Which action is most important for the PN to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The sudden urge to use the bathroom may indicate that labor is progressing quickly. Checking the cervical dilation will help determine if the client is in the transition phase of labor and if it is appropriate to allow her to get up. Reviewing the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern (Choice A) is important but not the most immediate action in this scenario. Checking the perineum for an increase in bloody show (Choice B) is relevant but not as crucial as assessing cervical dilation. Palpating the client's bladder for distention (Choice D) is not the priority when the client wants to go to the bathroom during labor.
Before administering an antibiotic that can cause nephrotoxicity, which lab value is most important for the nurse to review?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Serum Creatinine. Serum creatinine is a key indicator of kidney function. Reviewing this value is crucial as it helps assess the client's risk for nephrotoxicity before administering the antibiotic. Elevated serum creatinine levels can indicate impaired kidney function, which would increase the risk of nephrotoxicity. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly related to kidney function and nephrotoxicity. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels assess for anemia, serum calcium levels monitor calcium balance, and WBC count evaluates for infections. While these values are important for overall patient assessment, they are not as specific to assessing nephrotoxicity risk as serum creatinine.
In which stage of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is a young adult attempting to achieve when deciding to change his work hours to devote more time to his community?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Self-Actualization. The young adult is striving for self-actualization, the highest level in Maslow's hierarchy of needs. Self-actualization is characterized by individuals seeking personal growth, self-fulfillment, and the ability to contribute to society. Choice B, Intimacy vs. Isolation, focuses on relationships and occurs at a different stage. Choice C, Altruism, although related to community contribution, does not specifically address personal growth and fulfillment as in self-actualization. Choice D, Purposefulness, is not a stage in Maslow's hierarchy of needs and is not directly relevant to the scenario described.
A client tells the PN that she has a family history of cancer and has increased the amount of dairy products in her diet to reduce her risk of getting cancer. How should the PN respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Increasing fruits and vegetables in the diet is more beneficial in reducing cancer risk due to their high levels of antioxidants and fiber, which help protect against cancer. While exercise is important for overall health, in this context, focusing on fruits and vegetables is more relevant to reducing cancer risk than exercise alone. Providing information about cancer warning signs is not directly addressing the client's dietary choice. While Vitamin D is essential for various health aspects, the primary focus here should be on a diet rich in fruits and vegetables for cancer risk reduction.
A child with glomerulonephritis is admitted in the acute edematous phase. Based on this diagnosis, which nursing intervention should the PN plan to include in the child's plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to measure blood pressure every 4 to 6 hours. In glomerulonephritis, monitoring blood pressure is crucial as hypertension is a common complication. This helps in assessing the child's condition and response to treatment. Choice A, recommending parents bring favorite snacks, is not related to managing glomerulonephritis. Choice B, encouraging ambulation daily to the playroom, may not be appropriate during the acute edematous phase when the child may be experiencing fluid overload. Choice D, offering a selection of fresh fruit for each meal, is not directly relevant to managing the complications of glomerulonephritis.
A client who is post-operative from a bowel resection is experiencing abdominal distention and pain. The nurse notices the client has not passed gas or had a bowel movement. What should the nurse assess first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing bowel sounds is crucial in this situation as it helps determine if the client's gastrointestinal tract is functioning properly. Absent or hypoactive bowel sounds can indicate an ileus, a common post-operative complication. Assessing fluid intake (Choice B) is important but should come after assessing bowel sounds. Pain assessment (Choice C) is essential but addressing the physiological issue should take precedence. Checking the surgical incision (Choice D) is relevant but not the priority when the client is experiencing abdominal distention and potential gastrointestinal complications.
What is a priority when providing care for a patient with a newly inserted tracheostomy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When caring for a patient with a newly inserted tracheostomy, the priority is to monitor for signs of infection and ensure a patent airway. This is crucial to prevent complications such as airway obstruction or infection. While keeping the tracheostomy tube clean and dry is important for overall care, it is not the highest priority when compared to ensuring a patent airway. Providing regular oral hygiene is essential for the patient's comfort but takes a secondary role to maintaining airway patency. Encouraging the patient to cough and deep breathe may be beneficial but is not as critical as monitoring for infection and keeping the airway clear.
In which condition is the 'butterfly rash' most commonly seen?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The 'butterfly rash' across the cheeks and nose is a classic sign of SLE, an autoimmune disease. This rash is a key dermatological manifestation of SLE, often triggered or worsened by exposure to sunlight. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the 'butterfly rash' is not commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, or dermatomyositis.
What disorder closely matches Suzy's symptoms?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Suzy's symptoms are characteristic of Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD). BPD includes instability in relationships, self-image, and emotions, as well as impulsivity and self-harm. Choice A, Antisocial personality disorder, is characterized by a disregard for others' rights and lack of empathy, which does not align with Suzy's symptoms. Schizoid personality disorder, choice C, is characterized by a lack of interest in social relationships, which is not a prominent feature in Suzy's case. Dissociative Identity Disorder, choice D, involves the presence of two or more distinct identities or personality states, which is not reflected in Suzy's symptoms.
The practical nurse is caring for a client whose urine drug screen is positive for cocaine. Which behavior is this client likely to exhibit during cocaine withdrawal?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Powerful craving for more. During cocaine withdrawal, individuals often experience intense cravings for the drug, along with symptoms such as fatigue, depression, and anxiety. These cravings can be overpowering and lead to a strong desire to seek out more cocaine to alleviate the withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as elevated energy level, euphoria, and high self-esteem are more associated with the effects of cocaine rather than withdrawal symptoms. Withdrawal from cocaine is characterized by the opposite, such as fatigue, low mood, and intense cravings.
A client with peripheral neuropathy due to cirrhosis is at risk for injury. What should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Protecting the client's feet from injury is critical as peripheral neuropathy can lead to decreased sensation and increased risk of trauma. This measure helps prevent wounds, ulcers, and other complications. Applying a heating pad (Choice B) can worsen symptoms and cause burns due to decreased sensation. Keeping the client's feet elevated (Choice C) may help reduce swelling but does not directly address the risk of injury. Assessing for jaundice (Choice D) is important in cirrhosis but is not directly related to the client's risk of injury due to peripheral neuropathy.
A male client with TB returns to the clinic for daily antibiotic injections for a urinary infection. The client has been taking anti-tubercular medications for 10 weeks and states he has ringing in his ears. Which prescribed medication should the PN report to the HCP?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to ringing in the ears (tinnitus). This symptom should be reported to the HCP immediately, as it may indicate a need to adjust or discontinue the medication. Choice A, Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin, is not the cause of ototoxicity. Choices C and D, Rifampin and Isoniazid, are anti-tubercular medications but are not associated with causing ringing in the ears.
At the end of a 12-hour shift, the PN observes the urine in a client's drainage bag as seen in the picture. Which action should the PN take next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Noting the white blood cell count is the most appropriate action in this situation. Changes in urine appearance could indicate infection, and assessing the white blood cell count helps in evaluating the possibility of infection. This is crucial for understanding the client's overall condition. The other options are not directly related to assessing infection based on urine appearance. Offering analgesics, checking glucose levels, or determining bladder distention may not address the underlying issue of a potential infection.
In what order should the PN implement these steps to provide wound care? (Place in correct order.)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'D - All of the Above.' The PN should first don procedure gloves to maintain aseptic technique, then remove the dressing to assess the wound, and finally apply prescribed medications to the wound. This sequence ensures that non-sterile tasks like donning gloves are done before sterile tasks like applying medications, reducing the risk of wound contamination. Choices A, B, and C are all essential steps in providing effective wound care.
A client is recovering from a craniotomy and has a ventriculostomy in place. The nurse notices the drainage from the ventriculostomy is suddenly increasing. What should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A sudden increase in drainage from a ventriculostomy could indicate a serious complication such as increased intracranial pressure or hemorrhage. The priority action in this situation is to notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention. Increasing the head of the bed may be beneficial in some situations but is not the first action to take. Clamping the ventriculostomy tube is inappropriate as it can lead to increased intracranial pressure. Measuring the client's head circumference is not the priority when there is a sudden increase in ventriculostomy drainage.
Which type of isolation is required for a patient with measles?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Airborne isolation. Measles is highly contagious and can be transmitted through airborne particles, so airborne isolation is necessary to prevent its spread. Choice A, Contact isolation, is incorrect because measles is not primarily transmitted through direct contact. Choice C, Droplet isolation, is also incorrect as measles is not transmitted through large droplets but through smaller airborne particles. Choice D, Reverse isolation, is used to protect a patient from outside infections, not to prevent the spread of a contagious disease like measles.
While assessing an older male client who takes psychotropic medications, the nurse observes uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking. Which information in the client's medical record should the nurse review?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The symptoms of uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking are indicative of tardive dyskinesia, a possible side effect of long-term use of psychotropic medications. Reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia is crucial to assess if these symptoms are related to the medication. Option A, the prescription for lorazepam, is less relevant as the focus should be on potential side effects rather than the specific medication. Option B, history of Parkinson's disease, is not directly related to the observed symptoms, which are more likely linked to medication side effects. Option D, recent urine drug screen report, is not as pertinent in this context compared to reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia.
A client who is at full-term gestation is in active labor and complains of a cramp in her leg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for a client in active labor complaining of a leg cramp is to extend the leg and flex the foot. This action helps stretch the muscles that are cramping, providing relief. Massaging the calf and foot (Choice A) may not be as effective for relieving the cramp. Elevating the leg above the heart (Choice B) is not indicated for a leg cramp. Checking the pedal pulse in the affected leg (Choice C) is unrelated to addressing the leg cramp.
A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.
Prior to giving digoxin, the PN assesses that a 2-month-old infant's heart rate is 120 beats/minute. Based on this finding, what action should the PN take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A heart rate of 120 beats per minute is within the normal range for a 2-month-old infant. Therefore, it is safe to administer the digoxin and document the heart rate as part of routine care. Choice A is incorrect as withholding the medication is not necessary since the heart rate is normal. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to delay the administration until the next scheduled dose when the heart rate is within the normal range. Choice D is incorrect as the primary nurse is not needed to administer the medication since the heart rate is normal and falls within the safe range for administration.
The PN assigns a UAP to assist with the personal care of a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Which instruction should the PN provide the UAP?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis, it is important to encourage self-care to maintain the client's independence. Allowing rest periods helps prevent fatigue, which is crucial in managing MS exacerbations. Choice A is incorrect as hot baths can exacerbate symptoms in MS. Choice C is about communication techniques and not directly related to client care during an exacerbation. Choice D is not a priority intervention during an MS exacerbation.
A post-operative client develops a sudden onset of chest pain and dyspnea. The nurse suspects a pulmonary embolism (PE). What is the priority nursing action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering oxygen via face mask is the priority nursing action in a post-operative client suspected of a pulmonary embolism. This intervention helps ensure adequate oxygenation while further assessments and interventions are initiated. Elevating the client's legs is not indicated for a suspected pulmonary embolism; it is more appropriate for conditions like shock. Immediate surgery is not the priority in this situation as the client is experiencing acute symptoms requiring prompt intervention. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, the immediate focus should be on providing oxygen to the client to support respiratory function.
Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to its effects on the electrical conduction of the heart. High levels of potassium can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, potentially leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is not the most likely cause of cardiac arrhythmias compared to hyperkalemia. Hypernatremia (choice C), referring to high sodium levels, is not directly associated with causing cardiac arrhythmias. While hypokalemia (choice D), low potassium levels, can also lead to cardiac arrhythmias, hyperkalemia is the more likely culprit in causing severe disturbances in heart rhythm.
You have a patient who has just had a diagnostic arthroscopy. You are instructing him about what to do when he gets home. Which of the following would you NOT instruct him to do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Patients should rest and avoid normal activities for a short period after arthroscopy to allow healing and prevent swelling, which could worsen with early activity. Elevation and icing are recommended post-procedure to reduce swelling and pain. Instructing the patient to resume normal activities within 12 hours could lead to increased swelling and delayed healing. Reporting severe pain is crucial as it could indicate a complication. Therefore, the correct instruction is not to resume normal activities immediately after arthroscopy.
Which of the following areas does the Patient's Bill of Rights cover?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Patient's Bill of Rights encompasses various areas to protect patients' rights. These include ensuring information disclosure, allowing patients to choose their healthcare providers, and giving them options to select plans that suit their needs. Therefore, all the choices - information disclosure, choice of providers, and choice of plans - are covered under the Patient's Bill of Rights. The option 'Best payment options' is not relevant to the areas typically addressed by the Patient's Bill of Rights.
Which of the following is the best method for confirming nasogastric tube placement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Checking the pH of the aspirate is the most reliable method to confirm nasogastric tube placement as it provides direct evidence of the tube's location in the stomach. When the pH is acidic (pH < 5), it indicates that the tube is correctly placed in the stomach. Auscultating over the stomach while injecting air may not always be accurate, as the sound can be misleading due to various factors. Observing the patient's response during feeding is not a definitive method for confirming tube placement, as it can be influenced by other factors. Measuring the external length of the tube does not ensure correct placement within the GI tract and can be affected by external factors like patient anatomy.
A nurse who receives a patient in the operative suite prior to the actual surgery is in charge of the patient's care. Which of the following is NOT a task related to the nurse's intraoperative care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Going over the surgical procedure with the patient is typically done preoperatively, not intraoperatively. Intraoperative tasks of a nurse involve strictly adhering to asepsis during procedures, monitoring the patient's physical status, and providing emotional support to the patient and their family during the surgery. Choices B, C, and D are all tasks that are directly related to the nurse's responsibilities during the intraoperative phase of care.
A 50-year-old female is in the hospital with peripheral artery disease. In the nursing care plan, the nurse lists the following nursing diagnosis: Ineffective tissue perfusion: peripheral related to venous stasis. Which of the following would not be an appropriate nursing action to list in the implementation of this diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Keeping the client's extremities cold would worsen perfusion issues and is not recommended. In peripheral artery disease, maintaining warmth is crucial to promote vasodilation and improve blood flow. Checking peripheral pulses for strength and symmetry, keeping the client's legs elevated to reduce venous stasis, and monitoring for constrictions that may impair circulation are appropriate nursing actions to enhance tissue perfusion in this case. Thus, option A is incorrect as it would hinder perfusion in the affected extremities.
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