Free HESI LPN Fundamentals of Nursing practice for HESI Fundamentals Study Guide (HESI LPN). Answer 91 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode,
A healthcare professional is preparing to perform nasal tracheal suctioning for a client. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the healthcare professional to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Using surgical asepsis when performing nasal tracheal suctioning is crucial to prevent infection. Choice A is incorrect because the suction catheter should be held with the dominant hand to ensure better control and precision during the procedure. Choice B is incorrect as suctioning should be applied for no longer than 10 to 15 seconds to avoid trauma to the mucous membranes. Choice C is incorrect as the catheter should be disposed of properly after single-use to prevent cross-contamination and infection.
In an emergency situation, the charge nurse on the night shift at an urgent care center has to deal with admitting clients of higher acuity than usual due to a large fire in the area. Which style of leadership and decision-making would be best in this circumstance?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In an emergency situation such as dealing with patients of higher acuity due to a large fire, it is crucial for the charge nurse to assume a decision-making role. This style of leadership allows for quick and efficient decision-making to manage the increased acuity of patients effectively. Seeking input from staff (Choice B) may delay critical decisions needed in emergencies. Using a non-directive approach (Choice C) or shared decision-making with others (Choice D) may not be suitable in urgent situations where immediate actions are required to address the high acuity of patients.
A healthcare professional is planning weight loss strategies for a group of clients who are obese. Which of the following actions by the professional will improve the clients' commitment to a long-term goal of weight loss?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Helping the clients increase their self-motivation is crucial for long-term weight loss success. By empowering clients to find their internal drive to make healthy choices, they are more likely to stay committed to their goals. Choice B is incorrect because recommending a strict diet plan immediately may not consider the clients' individual preferences and needs, leading to potential disengagement. Choice C is incorrect as focusing solely on exercise without addressing dietary changes does not provide a comprehensive approach to weight loss. Choice D is incorrect because setting only short-term goals may not foster sustained progress towards achieving a healthier weight.
A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client is short of breath and has a pulse oximetry reading of 88%. What action should the LPN take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Repositioning the client to a high Fowler's position should be the first action taken by the LPN. This position helps improve oxygenation by maximizing lung expansion, making it easier for the client to breathe. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without addressing positioning may not fully optimize oxygen delivery. Notifying the healthcare provider should come after immediate interventions. Encouraging pursed-lip breathing is beneficial but should follow the initial positioning to further assist the client in managing their breathing difficulty.
While changing the linen on the client's bed, what should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When changing the linen on a client's bed, it is essential for the nurse to hold the linen away from their body and clothing. This practice helps prevent contamination and maintain a clean environment. Folding the linen neatly before placing it in the laundry (Choice B) is a good practice but not the immediate action required during linen changing. Wearing clean gloves while handling the linen (Choice C) is important in certain situations but may not be necessary for routine linen changing. Placing the linen directly on the floor until the new linen is in place (Choice D) is incorrect as it can lead to contamination and is not hygienic.
A client is receiving morphine via PCA infusion device after abdominal surgery. Which of the following statements indicates that the client knows how to use the device?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice C is the correct answer because it demonstrates that the client understands the importance of communicating with the nurse if the pain persists while using the PCA device. This is crucial as it ensures proper pain management and monitoring. Choices A and B are incorrect because delaying the use of the device until necessary or being cautious about pushing the button too much do not necessarily reflect understanding of using the PCA device effectively. Choice D is incorrect as having someone else, like an adult child, push the dose button goes against the principle of the client self-administering the medication through the PCA device.
The nurse is providing care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely to assess for complications?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Blood glucose. When caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is essential due to the increased risk of hyperglycemia associated with TPN infusion. Elevated blood glucose levels can lead to complications such as hyperglycemia, which can be harmful to the client. While monitoring serum potassium (Choice A), serum sodium (Choice C), and serum calcium (Choice D) are also important aspects of care, when specifically considering TPN administration, blood glucose monitoring takes precedence due to the potential for significant complications related to glucose imbalances.
A healthcare professional working in the emergency department is witnessing the signing of informed consent forms for the treatment of multiple clients during their shift. Which of the following signatures may the healthcare professional legally witness?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. A 16-year-old who is married can legally sign an informed consent form. In this case, being married at 16 may indicate legal emancipation or the ability to consent to medical treatment. Choice B is incorrect because having schizophrenia doesn't automatically imply incapacity to provide informed consent. Choice C is incorrect as an adoptive parent does not have the legal authority to provide consent for medical treatment on behalf of a child without proper documentation. Choice D is incorrect as a 17-year-old mother would generally not have the legal capacity to give consent for her toddler, as parental consent is usually required for minors.
The patient has been in bed for several days and needs to be ambulated. Which action will the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the nurse should take first when a patient needs to be mobilized after being in bed for several days is to dangle the patient at the bedside. Dangling at the bedside is the initial step to assess the patient's tolerance to sitting up and moving. It helps prevent orthostatic hypotension and allows the nurse to evaluate the patient's response to upright positioning before attempting further ambulation. Maintaining a narrow base of support (Choice A) is related to assisting with ambulation but is not the first step. Encouraging isometric exercises (Choice C) and suggesting a high-calcium diet (Choice D) are not immediate actions needed to initiate mobilization in this scenario.
When assessing the skin of an immobilized patient, what should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assessing the skin of an immobilized patient, it is essential to use a standardized tool like the Braden Scale. This tool helps in systematically evaluating the patient's risk of developing pressure ulcers. Assessing the skin every 4 hours (Choice A) may be too frequent or unnecessary unless there are specific concerns or orders. Limiting fluid intake (Choice B) is not directly related to skin assessment in an immobilized patient. Having special times for inspection to avoid interrupting routine care (Choice D) is not as crucial as using a standardized tool for consistent and comprehensive skin assessment.
The LPN/LVN is assessing the nutritional status of several clients. Which client has the greatest nutritional need for additional intake of protein?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B, a lactating woman nursing her 3-day-old infant. During lactation, women have increased nutritional needs, including protein, to support milk production for their infants. Protein is essential for proper growth and development. While choice A, a college-age track runner with a sprained ankle, may require protein for tissue repair, the lactating woman's need is greater due to the demands of breastfeeding. Choice C, a school-aged child with Type 2 diabetes, may have specific dietary considerations related to diabetes management but does not necessarily require additional protein intake compared to a lactating woman. Choice D, an elderly man being treated for a peptic ulcer, may need protein for wound healing, but the nutritional need for a lactating woman is higher to support her infant's growth.
A client with a terminal illness is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following findings indicates that the client's death is imminent?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cold extremities are a common sign observed in clients nearing death. This occurs due to decreased blood circulation as the body's systems begin to shut down. Cold extremities indicate poor perfusion and reduced function of vital organs. Increased appetite (Choice B) is not typically seen in clients approaching death; instead, a decreased appetite is more common. Elevated blood pressure (Choice C) is not a typical finding in clients nearing the end of life, as blood pressure tends to decrease. An increased level of consciousness (Choice D) is also not indicative of imminent death, as clients near death often experience decreased level of consciousness or become unresponsive.
A client is drawing up and mixing insulin under the observation of a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that psychomotor learning has taken place?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because the ability to demonstrate the appropriate technique shows that the client has acquired the psychomotor skills needed for insulin preparation. Merely discussing, stating an understanding, or writing the steps does not confirm that the client can physically perform the task correctly. Being able to demonstrate indicates practical application and mastery of the skill. Choice A is incorrect because discussing the technique does not necessarily mean the client can physically perform it. Choice C is incorrect as stating an understanding does not guarantee the client's ability to perform the task. Choice D is incorrect because writing the steps does not assess the client's physical execution of the technique.
The pediatric clinic nurse examines a toddler with a tentative diagnosis of neuroblastoma. Findings observed by the nurse that are associated with this problem include which of these?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Neuroblastoma, a common solid tumor in children, often presents with symptoms related to the mass effect it causes. Abdominal mass and weakness are classic signs of neuroblastoma due to the tumor originating in the adrenal glands near the kidneys and potentially compressing nearby structures. Lymphedema and nerve palsy (Choice A) are not typically associated with neuroblastoma. Hearing loss and ataxia (Choice B) are more common in conditions affecting the central nervous system rather than neuroblastoma. Headaches and vomiting (Choice C) are nonspecific symptoms and are less commonly linked to neuroblastoma compared to the characteristic abdominal findings.
An adolescent client in an outpatient mental health facility tells the nurse that it is hard to follow his treatment plans because his friends discourage him. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct approach for the nurse is to ask the client to elaborate on how their friends discourage them. By doing so, the nurse shows empathy, encourages the client to express their feelings, and gains insight into the situation. This open-ended question can help the nurse understand the specific issues the client is facing and work towards finding solutions collaboratively. Choices B, C, and D do not effectively address the client's concerns or encourage further discussion. Choice B is directive and may come off as judgmental, choice C assumes the friends are not supportive without exploring further, and choice D dismisses the client's feelings and the impact of peer influence.
A healthcare professional is providing teaching to a client who had a new medication prescription. Which of the following manifestations of a mild allergic reaction should the professional include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Urticaria, also known as hives, is a common manifestation of a mild allergic reaction. It presents as raised, red, itchy welts on the skin. Ptosis is drooping of the upper eyelid and is not typically associated with allergic reactions. Nausea is a gastrointestinal symptom that can occur with various conditions but is not specific to allergic reactions. Hematuria, which is the presence of blood in the urine, is not a typical manifestation of an allergic reaction.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Enoxaparin is a medication that is administered subcutaneously, which means it should be injected into the fatty tissue layer beneath the skin. Administering enoxaparin at a 90-degree angle ensures proper absorption and reduces the risk of injecting the medication into muscle tissue, which could affect its effectiveness. Injecting the medication at a 45-degree angle may lead to improper absorption as it may not reach the subcutaneous tissue adequately. Injecting the medication into the muscle instead of subcutaneously can alter the absorption rate and therapeutic effects. Pinching the skin before injecting is not necessary for administering enoxaparin subcutaneously and may cause unnecessary discomfort to the client.
A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is washing her hands prior to assisting with a surgical procedure. Which of the following actions by the nurse demonstrates proper surgical hand-washing techniques?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Proper surgical hand-washing technique involves keeping the hands higher than the elbows to prevent contamination. Washing with hands held lower than the elbows can lead to potential contamination. Using a brush to scrub under the nails is not recommended as it can cause microabrasions, increasing infection risk. While washing for at least 30 seconds is a good practice for thorough hand hygiene, hand positioning is critical during surgical hand-washing. Using alcohol-based hand rub alone is insufficient for surgical hand-washing as it may not effectively remove dirt, debris, and transient microorganisms.
The charge nurse on the unit observes that one of the staff nurses is not using proper hand washing techniques. Which is the most appropriate initial approach to correct the behavior?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate initial approach to correct the behavior of improper hand washing by a staff nurse is to discuss what the nurse knows about proper hand hygiene. This approach helps in identifying any knowledge gaps the nurse may have and provides an opportunity to educate and correct the behavior. Option A is not the best choice as simply reminding the nurse about the importance of hand washing may not address the underlying issue of knowledge or technique. Option C, providing a review of the hand washing policy, may be necessary but is not the most immediate step to take. Option D, referring the nurse to the infection control nurse, is premature and may not be necessary if the issue can be resolved through education and communication first.
While observing a student nurse administering a narcotic analgesic IM injection without aspirating, what should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When the nurse observes a student nurse making a mistake during a procedure, such as not aspirating before administering a medication, the nurse should provide immediate, discreet feedback to correct the error. Walking up and whispering in the student's ear to stop, aspirate, and then inject is appropriate as it corrects the mistake while maintaining the student's dignity and confidence. Option A is not as effective as it indirectly addresses the issue. Option B is not the best approach as the student needs immediate correction. Option C is not ideal as loudly stating the mistake may embarrass the student and is not necessary for a discreet correction.
The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a wound infection. Which type of dressing is most appropriate to use to promote healing by secondary intention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hydrocolloid dressings are ideal for promoting healing by secondary intention in wound infections. These dressings create a moist environment that supports autolytic debridement and facilitates the healing process. Dry gauze dressings (Option A) may lead to adherence, causing trauma upon removal and disrupting the wound bed. Wet-to-dry dressings (Option B) are primarily used for mechanical debridement and can be painful during dressing changes. Transparent film dressings (Option C) are more suitable for superficial wounds with minimal exudate and are not typically used for wound infections requiring healing by secondary intention.
The patient has undergone surgery for a broken leg and has a cast in place. What should the nurse do to prevent skin impairment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To prevent skin impairment in a patient with a cast, the nurse should assess surfaces exposed to the edges of the cast for pressure areas. This is important to prevent pressure ulcers or skin breakdown. Keeping the patient's blood pressure low (Choice B) is not directly related to preventing skin impairment in this scenario. Allowing turning in bed (Choice C) is essential for preventing complications like pressure ulcers and is not contraindicated. Encouraging the patient's dietary intake (Choice D) to maintain hydration is not directly related to preventing skin impairment associated with a cast.
When interviewing the parents of a child with asthma, what information about the child's environment should be gathered most importantly?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assessing a child with asthma, it is crucial to gather information about potential triggers in their environment. Household pets, such as cats or dogs, are common triggers for asthma attacks due to pet dander and saliva. This information is essential to identify if exposure to pets at home could be exacerbating the child's asthma symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in the context of asthma triggers. New furniture, lead-based paint, and plants like cactus are not typically primary triggers for asthma attacks compared to common allergens like pet dander.
A nurse delegates a position change to a nursing assistive personnel. The nurse instructs the assistive personnel (AP) to place the patient in the lateral position. Which finding by the nurse indicates a correct outcome?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Patient is lying on side.' In the side-lying (or lateral) position, the patient rests on the side with the major portion of body weight on the dependent hip and shoulder. Choice B, 'Patient is lying on back,' is incorrect as it describes a supine position. Choice C, 'Patient is lying semiprone,' is incorrect as it refers to a position where the patient is partially lying on the abdomen. Choice D, 'Patient is lying on abdomen,' is incorrect as it describes a prone position where the patient is lying face down.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has fluid overload. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client has fluid overload, the nurse's first action should be to evaluate electrolytes. Electrolyte levels can be significantly affected by fluid imbalances, and assessing them will guide the nurse in determining the appropriate interventions. Restricting fluid intake (choice B) may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Administering diuretics (choice C) should be based on the electrolyte evaluation and overall assessment. Monitoring vital signs (choice D) is essential but does not provide direct information on the client's electrolyte status, which is crucial in managing fluid overload.
When performing nasotracheal suctioning for a client with a respiratory infection, what technique should the nurse use?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When performing nasotracheal suctioning for a client with a respiratory infection, the nurse should apply intermittent suction when withdrawing the catheter. This technique helps minimize mucosal damage and is considered best practice. Choice B, suctioning continuously while inserting the catheter, is incorrect as continuous suctioning can cause trauma to the airway. Choice C, suctioning intermittently while inserting the catheter, is also incorrect as it can increase the risk of hypoxia and mucosal damage. Choice D, using a Yankauer suction device, is not appropriate for nasotracheal suctioning as it is typically used for oral suctioning. Therefore, the correct technique is to apply intermittent suction when withdrawing the catheter to ensure effective and safe suctioning.
During an initial history and physical assessment of a 3-month-old brought into the clinic for spitting up and excessive gas, what would the nurse expect to find?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Restlessness and increased mucus production are common signs of gastrointestinal issues or reflux in infants, which could explain the symptoms of spitting up and excessive gas. Increased temperature and lethargy (Choice A) are more indicative of an infection rather than gastrointestinal issues. Increased sleeping and listlessness (Choice C) are not typical signs associated with the symptoms described. Diarrhea and poor skin turgor (Choice D) are not directly related to the symptoms of spitting up and gas in this scenario.
A 3-year-old child has had multiple tooth extractions while under general anesthesia. The client returns from the post-anesthesia care unit crying but awake. Which approach is likely to be successful?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, it is crucial to prioritize the comfort of the child. By examining the mouth last, discomfort is minimized, and the child is given the opportunity to settle down. Choosing to examine the mouth first may escalate the distress of the child further. While reassuring the child is important, in this case, addressing the physical discomfort before providing emotional reassurance is more effective. Offering a pacifier may provide some comfort, but addressing the immediate physical discomfort by examining the mouth last is the most appropriate action to help the child settle down after the procedure.
The healthcare provider is providing teaching to an immobilized patient with impaired skin integrity about diet. Which diet will the healthcare provider recommend?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: High protein, high calorie. An immobilized patient with impaired skin integrity requires a diet high in protein and calories to repair injured tissue and rebuild depleted protein stores. This helps in promoting wound healing and preventing further breakdown of the skin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while vitamins and minerals are essential for overall health, in this case, the priority is on providing sufficient protein and calories to support healing and recovery in an immobilized patient with impaired skin integrity.
A client who is non-ambulatory notifies the nurse that his trash can is on fire. After the nurse confirms the fire, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to Evacuate the client (Choice A). In the event of a fire, the safety of the client is the top priority. The RACE (Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish) mnemonic is used in fire emergencies. The first step is to Rescue or Evacuate the individual from immediate danger. Attempting to extinguish the fire (Choice B) may endanger both the client and the nurse. Calling the fire department (Choice C) is important but should come after ensuring the client's safety. Closing the door to contain the fire (Choice D) is not appropriate in this scenario because the priority is to remove the client from harm's way.
During the initial physical assessment of a newly admitted client with a pressure ulcer, an LPN observes that the client's skin is dry and scaly. The nurse applies emollients and reinforces the dressing on the pressure ulcer. Legally, were the nurse's actions adequate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Providing supportive nursing care, such as applying emollients and reinforcing the dressing on the pressure ulcer, meets the immediate needs of the client and is in line with legal and professional standards. Option A is incorrect because increasing activity may not be directly related to the immediate skin care needs of the client. Option C is incorrect as debridement might not be immediately necessary based on the initial assessment. Option D is incorrect as nurses are often authorized to initiate treatments within their scope of practice without waiting for healthcare provider prescriptions, especially for routine care like skin moisturization and dressing reinforcement.
A healthcare provider is providing range of motion to the shoulder and must perform external rotation. Which action will the provider take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for external rotation of the shoulder involves moving the patient's arm until the thumb is upward and lateral to the head with the elbow flexed. This position maximizes external rotation at the shoulder joint. Choices A, moving the arm in a full circle, B, moving the arm across the body, and C, moving the arm behind the body with the elbow straight, do not describe external rotation and are incorrect. Therefore, Choice D is the correct action for performing external rotation.
The female is caring for a male patient who is uncircumcised but not ambulatory and has full function of all extremities. The nurse is providing the patient with a partial bed bath. How should perineal care be performed for this patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Perineal care should be encouraged to be done by the patient if they are capable of performing self-care. In this scenario, the patient is not ambulatory and has full function of all extremities, indicating that the patient can independently perform perineal care. Encouraging self-care promotes independence and maintains the patient's dignity. Postponing perineal care (Choice A) is incorrect because it is essential for hygiene. Choice B is incorrect as perineal care is necessary for all patients regardless of circumcision status. Choice D is incorrect as the patient is capable of performing the care independently, and promoting self-care is a priority in nursing practice.
What should be done when caring for a client who died?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When caring for a deceased client, the correct sequence of actions involves first obtaining any necessary orders, then removing tubes, washing the client, asking the family for specific requests, and finally placing identification tags. This order ensures proper care and respect for the deceased individual. Option A presents the correct order of actions. Choice B is incorrect because washing the client should be done after removing tubes. Choice C is incorrect as it does not follow the correct order of actions. Choice D is incorrect because asking the family should be done after caring for the client's body, not before.
The nurse is preparing to administer a medication through a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which action should the LPN/LVN take to ensure proper administration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To ensure proper administration through a nasogastric tube, the LPN/LVN should flush the tube with 30 ml of water before and after medication administration. This action helps ensure the tube is patent, prevents clogging, and helps deliver the medication effectively. Checking the placement of the tube by auscultation (Choice A) is essential but does not directly relate to ensuring proper administration. Administering the medication with food (Choice C) may not always be appropriate for all medications and may not necessarily prevent nausea. Diluting the medication with normal saline (Choice D) is not a standard practice for all medications administered via an NG tube and may alter the medication's effectiveness.
A client has left lower atelectasis. In which of the following positions should the nurse place the client for postural drainage?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Postural drainage is a technique used to help remove secretions from specific lung segments. For left lower atelectasis, placing the client in the right lateral Trendelenburg position is most effective. This position helps target the affected area, using gravity to assist in drainage. Placing the client in a supine or low Fowler's position (Choice A) may not effectively target the affected area. Side lying with the right side of the chest elevated (Choice C) would not utilize gravity for optimal drainage. Placing the client prone with pillows under the extremities (Choice D) is not ideal for postural drainage of the left lower lobe.
When a healthcare professional makes an initial assessment of a client who is post-op following gastric resection, the client's NG tube is not draining. The healthcare professional's attempt to irrigate the tube with 10ml of 0.9% NaCl was unsuccessful, so they determine that the tube was obstructed. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
If an NG tube is obstructed and cannot be irrigated successfully, notifying the healthcare provider is the appropriate action to take for further management. This is crucial as the healthcare provider may need to assess the situation, provide guidance, or intervene with specific interventions. Attempting to irrigate the tube with a larger volume of saline (Choice B) may exacerbate the situation if the tube is truly obstructed. Replacing the NG tube with a new one (Choice C) should not be the initial action unless advised by the healthcare provider. Repositioning the client (Choice D) may not necessarily resolve the tube obstruction and should not be the primary intervention in this scenario.
A client is hospitalized for an infection of a surgical wound following abdominal surgery. To promote healing and fight wound infection, the nurse plans to arrange to increase the client's intake of:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Vitamin C and Zinc. Vitamin C is essential for collagen synthesis, which is important for wound healing. Zinc plays a crucial role in immune function and also aids in wound healing. Vitamin B12 and Calcium (Choice B) are not directly associated with wound healing properties. Vitamin D and Iron (Choice C) are important for overall health but are not specifically targeted for wound healing. Vitamin A and Potassium (Choice D) do not have direct wound healing properties and are not the best choices to promote wound healing and fight infection.
A home health nurse who has attended a training session for the therapeutic use of aromatherapy with essential oils is planning to use this modality with some of her clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse consult the provider before using this complementary therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: a client who has asthma. Essential oils have the potential to trigger asthma symptoms due to their strong scents and chemical components. Consulting with the healthcare provider is crucial before using aromatherapy with essential oils to ensure the safety and well-being of the client with asthma. Choices B, C, and D do not pose immediate risks with aromatherapy use, making them less of a priority for consultation compared to asthma. Clients with diabetes, hypertension, or depression do not have the same immediate risks associated with the use of aromatherapy as clients with asthma. However, it is still advisable for the nurse to be aware of any potential interactions or contraindications with these conditions and consult with the provider if needed.
Which task can the RN delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Checking the blood pressure of a 2-hour postoperative client is a task that can be safely delegated to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) as it falls within their scope of practice. This task is routine and does not require specialized nursing knowledge or critical decision-making. Options A, B, and D involve tasks that require a higher level of training and critical thinking beyond the scope of a UAP. Taking a history, adjusting tube feeding rates, and monitoring a client receiving chemotherapy are responsibilities that should be performed by licensed healthcare providers who have the necessary skills and training.
A client is lying on the bathroom floor after a nurse responds to a call light. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse's priority in this situation is to assess the client for injuries. Checking for injuries first is crucial to determine the extent of harm caused by the fall and to provide immediate care. Moving hazardous objects can wait until the client's safety is ensured. Notifying the provider and asking the client about how she felt prior to the fall are important but are secondary to assessing for injuries in this urgent scenario. It is essential to address immediate physical needs before investigating the cause of the fall or notifying other healthcare team members.
A patient has damage to the cerebellum. Which disorder is most important for the nurse to assess?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When the cerebellum is damaged, it leads to impaired balance. The cerebellum plays a crucial role in coordinating movements and maintaining balance. Therefore, assessing the patient's balance is essential in determining the extent of cerebellar damage. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because hemiplegia refers to paralysis of one side of the body, muscle sprain is a soft tissue injury, and lower extremity paralysis involves loss of function in the lower limbs. These conditions are not directly associated with damage to the cerebellum.
When lifting a bedside cabinet to move it closer to a client who is sitting in a chair, which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent self-injury?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to stand close to the cabinet when lifting it. This action keeps the object close to the nurse's center of gravity, reducing the risk of back strain. Bending at the waist (Choice A) can increase the risk of back injury as it puts strain on the lower back. Keeping feet close together (Choice B) does not provide a stable base of support for lifting a heavy object. Using back muscles for lifting (Choice C) is incorrect as it can lead to back strain and injury. Therefore, standing close to the cabinet when lifting it is the safest and most effective approach to prevent self-injury.
A nurse at an assisted living facility is preparing an in-service for residents about electrical safety. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for electrical safety is to avoid taping electrical cords to the floor. Taping cords can create tripping hazards, leading to falls and potential injuries. Choice B, cleaning electrical equipment before disconnection, is not directly related to electrical safety but rather to equipment maintenance. Choice C, covering exposed wires with tape before use, is incorrect as exposed wires should be properly insulated and repaired by a qualified professional. Choice D, disconnecting electrical equipment by grasping the plug, is unsafe and can lead to electrical shocks. It is always recommended to unplug devices by holding the plug itself, not by pulling the cord.
In a client with liver cirrhosis, which symptom would be most concerning during assessment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Altered mental status would be the most concerning symptom in a client with liver cirrhosis. It may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. While jaundice, ascites, and hepatomegaly are common in liver cirrhosis, they do not directly correlate with the urgency and severity of hepatic encephalopathy as altered mental status does. Therefore, altered mental status takes priority for immediate attention and intervention.
The nurse is preparing a handout on infant feeding to be distributed to families visiting the clinic. Which notation should be included in the teaching materials?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Introducing solid foods one at a time, starting with cereal, is recommended to monitor for any food allergies or intolerances in infants. Choice B is incorrect as finely ground meat should be introduced later due to the risk of choking and is not necessary for iron intake. Choice C is incorrect as egg white should be avoided early due to the risk of allergies. Choice D is incorrect as solid foods should not be mixed with formula in a bottle to prevent overfeeding and promote healthy eating habits.
A client with a terminal illness asks the nurse about what would happen if she arrived at the emergency department and had difficulty breathing, despite declining resuscitation in her living will. Which of the following responses should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response is to provide oxygen through a tube in the client's nose. Oxygen therapy can offer comfort and support breathing without being considered resuscitative. Therefore, this intervention aligns with the client's wish to decline resuscitation. Option A is not directly related to addressing the client's immediate breathing difficulty. Option C does not acknowledge the client's living will decision. Option D involves a more invasive procedure that may go against the client's wishes to decline resuscitation.
A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in clients with chronic kidney disease. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, aiming to increase hemoglobin levels and improve symptoms of anemia in these patients. Monitoring serum potassium (Choice A) is important in clients with kidney disease, but it is more related to assessing electrolyte balance rather than the direct effectiveness of epoetin alfa. Serum creatinine (Choice C) and blood urea nitrogen (Choice D) are kidney function tests that help evaluate kidney health but do not specifically reflect the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy.
A client with a history of hypertension is taking a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are medications that can lower heart rate, leading to bradycardia as a potential side effect. It is essential for the LPN/LVN to monitor for this adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blocker use. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial to ensure patient safety and to prevent any potential complications.
A healthcare professional is supervising the logrolling of a patient. To which patient is the healthcare professional most likely providing care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Logrolling is a technique used to move a patient as a single unit to prevent twisting or bending of the spine. Patients who have undergone neck surgery require special care to ensure the spinal column remains in straight alignment to prevent further injury. Therefore, the correct answer is a patient with neck surgery. Choice B, a patient with hypostatic pneumonia, does not require logrolling, as it is a condition affecting the lungs, not the spine. Choice C, a patient with a total knee replacement, does not typically necessitate logrolling, as the procedure focuses on the knee joint, not the spine. Choice D, a patient with a stage IV pressure ulcer, requires wound care but does not necessarily involve logrolling unless the ulcer is located in a critical area that requires special handling.
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has been prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Eating foods high in potassium can lead to hyperkalemia when taken with digoxin, indicating a need for further teaching. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements that demonstrate understanding of digoxin therapy. Taking the pulse, maintaining a consistent dosing schedule, and avoiding antacids to prevent interactions with digoxin are all appropriate client responses.
A nurse receives a report about a client receiving IV fluids infusing at 125 mL/hr but notes they have only received 80 mL over the last 2 hours. What should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct first action for the nurse to take is to check the IV tubing for obstruction. This step is crucial in ensuring that the IV fluids are flowing properly and that there are no blockages preventing the correct infusion rate. Increasing the flow rate (Choice B) without confirming the tubing's status could lead to potential complications if there is indeed an obstruction. Changing the IV site (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation unless there are specific clinical indications. Notifying the physician (Choice D) can be done after checking the tubing for obstruction, as the physician may need to be informed depending on the findings.
A healthcare professional is preparing a care plan for a patient who is immobile. Which psychosocial aspect will the professional assess for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct. Loss of hope is a significant psychosocial aspect that healthcare professionals should assess for in patients who are immobile. Immobility can lead to feelings of hopelessness and depression, impacting the patient's mental well-being. Assessing for loss of hope allows healthcare professionals to provide appropriate support and interventions to address the patient's emotional needs. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they primarily relate to physical changes (bone mass, strength, weight) rather than the psychosocial aspect of hope.
A client has restraints on each extremity. Which of the following assessments should the nurse perform first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client is restrained, the nurse should prioritize assessing peripheral pulses first. This assessment is crucial to monitor circulation and ensure the restraints are not impeding blood flow. Comfort level, elimination needs, and skin integrity are also important assessments; however, assessing peripheral pulses takes precedence to prevent complications such as impaired circulation and tissue damage. By assessing peripheral pulses initially, the nurse can promptly identify and address any circulation issues, which are critical in preventing serious complications.
The nurse manager is reviewing medication documentation. Which of the following statements should the nurse plan to include in teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Use the complete name of the medication magnesium sulfate.' When documenting medications, it is crucial to use the complete name to avoid confusion and errors. Abbreviating medication names (choice B) can lead to misinterpretation and errors in medication administration. Using generic names only for medications (choice C) may not provide enough specificity, leading to potential medication errors. While documenting the dosage and route of administration is important, it is also vital to include the complete medication name (choice D) for accurate record-keeping and to ensure clarity in medication administration.
When responding to a call light and finding a client on the bathroom floor, what should the nurse do FIRST?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Checking the client for injuries is the priority when finding them on the bathroom floor. This action ensures the client's safety as it allows for immediate assessment of any potential harm. Calling for help may be necessary, but assessing for injuries takes precedence to address any immediate threats to the client's well-being. Moving the client to a sitting position or assisting them back to bed should only be done after ensuring there are no serious injuries requiring prompt medical attention. Therefore, the correct first action is to check the client for injuries.
The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has been prescribed an iron supplement. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Taking an iron supplement with milk can decrease its absorption, indicating a need for further teaching.
The nurse notices that the mother of a 9-year-old Vietnamese child always looks at the floor when she talks to the nurse. What action should the LPN take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the LPN should continue asking the mother questions about the child. The mother's behavior of looking at the floor may be a cultural practice, such as avoiding direct eye contact, which should be respected. By maintaining the conversation with the mother, the nurse acknowledges and respects her communication style, fostering trust and open dialogue. Option A is not the best choice as it may disregard the cultural context and the importance of the mother's input. Option C is unnecessary as the LPN can effectively handle the situation. Option D could be perceived as insensitive and may disrupt the rapport between the nurse and the mother.
The healthcare professional is assessing a client with a history of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following assessment findings would be most concerning?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with rheumatoid arthritis, the presence of fever is most concerning because it may indicate an infection or systemic involvement, necessitating immediate attention. Morning stiffness and joint deformities are common manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis itself and are expected findings in these clients. Weight loss can occur in rheumatoid arthritis due to various factors such as decreased appetite or systemic inflammation, but it is not as acutely concerning as fever, which may signal a more urgent issue.
A patient has been diagnosed with osteoporosis and lactose intolerance. What intervention will the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for a patient diagnosed with osteoporosis and lactose intolerance is to monitor their intake of vitamin D. Since the patient has lactose intolerance, encouraging dairy alternatives (Choice A) would not be appropriate. Increasing intake of caffeinated drinks (Choice C) is not beneficial for managing osteoporosis and may even have negative effects on bone health. Assisting the patient with daily activities (Choice D) is a general nursing intervention that may not directly address the specific needs related to osteoporosis and lactose intolerance.
When should discharge planning be initiated for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Discharge planning should begin during the admission process for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure. Initiating discharge planning early ensures timely and effective care transitions, which are crucial for managing the client's condition and preventing readmissions. Waiting until after the client stabilizes (choice B) could lead to delays in arranging necessary follow-up care and support services. Similarly, waiting for the client to request discharge planning (choice C) may result in missed opportunities for comprehensive care coordination. Planning at the time of discharge (choice D) is too late, as early intervention is key to promoting the client's well-being and recovery in the long term.
A client who is nonambulatory notifies the nurse that his trash can is on fire. After the nurse confirms the fire, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take next, after confirming the fire, is to evacuate the client. In a fire situation, following the RACE mnemonic, the priority is to rescue or evacuate clients to ensure their safety. Activating the emergency fire alarm (Choice A) is important to alert others and the fire department, but evacuating the client takes precedence. Extinguishing the fire (Choice B) may put the nurse and client at risk and is best left to trained personnel. Confining the fire (Choice D) is not the nurse's responsibility; the focus should be on ensuring the client's safety by evacuating them.
During a staff meeting, a nurse is discussing the purpose of regulatory agencies. Which of the following tasks should the nurse identify as the responsibility of state licensing boards?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
State licensing boards are primarily responsible for ensuring that health care providers comply with regulations. This includes overseeing licensure requirements, investigating complaints, and enforcing disciplinary actions. Monitoring evidence-based practice for clients with specific diagnoses is typically within the domain of professional organizations or healthcare institutions. Setting quality standards for accrediting health care facilities is usually the role of accrediting bodies such as The Joint Commission. Lastly, determining the safety of medications for administration to clients falls under the purview of regulatory agencies like the Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
A client who requires maximal support is being taught how to use a two-wheeled walker by a nurse. Which of the following actions by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. When using a two-wheeled walker, the client should stand with elbows slightly bent to maintain balance and stability. This position helps distribute weight effectively and promotes proper use of the walker. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A does not demonstrate proper posture while using the walker. Choice B of picking up the walker with each step is not the correct technique and can lead to instability. Choice D of stooping slightly forward is also incorrect as it can affect balance and posture negatively.
The nurse is caring for an older adult patient who has been diagnosed with a stroke. Which intervention will the nurse add to the care plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Encourage the patient to perform as many self-care activities as possible. For a patient who has had a stroke, promoting independence and engaging in self-care activities help maintain mobility and foster a sense of autonomy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because providing assistance with a bed bath, coordinating with physical therapy for gait training, or advising bed rest without indications may not be the best interventions for promoting optimal recovery and independence in a stroke patient.
A client requires bed rest and has a prescription for anti-embolic stockings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take is to remove the anti-embolic stockings at least once per shift. This is essential to assess the client's circulation and skin integrity. Option A is incorrect because the stockings should be applied without creases to ensure proper compression. Option B is incorrect as the stockings should be applied when the client's legs are elevated, not in a dependent position. Option D is incorrect as removing the stockings while the client is sitting in a reclining chair is not necessary and does not provide the appropriate assessment opportunity.
The patient has been diagnosed with diabetes. When admitted, the patient is unkempt and is in need of a bath and foot care. When questioned about hygiene habits, the nurse learns the patient takes a bath once a week and a sponge bath every other day. To provide ultimate care for this patient, which principle should the nurse keep in mind?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the patient's diagnosis of diabetes may necessitate adjustments to their hygiene practices. The nurse should recognize that certain illnesses, like diabetes, can impact hygiene needs. Choice A is incorrect because appearing unkempt does not necessarily indicate a lack of importance on hygiene practices; it may be due to various factors. Choice B is incorrect as health conditions can influence personal preferences and habits. Choice D is incorrect as cultural views on cleanliness are not the primary focus when addressing hygiene practices related to a specific illness.
A client is reporting pain to a nurse. When documenting the quality of the client's pain on an initial pain assessment, the nurse should record which of the following client statements?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. When documenting the quality of pain, it is essential to record the client's description of how the pain feels in their own words. Choice A simply states the intensity of pain but does not describe its quality. Choices C and D provide information related to aggravating factors and associated symptoms, respectively, but they do not describe the quality of pain. Therefore, choice B, which describes the pain as a dull ache in the stomach, is the most appropriate statement to document for assessing the quality of the client's pain.
A healthcare professional is reviewing measures to prevent back injuries with assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction to prevent back injuries while lifting is to spread your feet apart to provide a wide base of support. This helps in maintaining stability and reduces the risk of back injury. Choice B is incorrect as lifting objects with your back straight and using your legs is the recommended technique. Choice C is incorrect because assistive devices can actually help prevent back injuries by providing support. Choice D is incorrect as bending at the waist to reach objects can strain the back muscles and increase the risk of injury.
The nurse is providing education about the importance of proper foot care to a patient diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which primary goal is the nurse trying to achieve?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Prevention of amputation. Patients with diabetes are at a higher risk of foot complications, such as ulcers, infections, and ultimately, amputations. Proper foot care education aims to prevent these serious complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while they are also important aspects of foot care, the primary goal in diabetes management is to prevent severe outcomes like amputation.
Postoperatively, signs of hemorrhagic shock are observed. The nurse notifies the surgeon, who instructs to continue monitoring vitals every 15 minutes and report back in one hour. What should the nurse do next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to continue monitoring the patient as instructed. This is crucial to assess the patient's condition and response to initial interventions. Administering IV fluids or preparing for transfer to the ICU should only be done based on further assessment or explicit orders from the healthcare provider. Notifying the nurse manager, as suggested in choice A, without further assessment or intervention could delay immediate patient care and management.
A client with diabetes mellitus is learning to self-administer insulin. Which action by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Drawing up insulin after warming the vial to room temperature indicates a need for further teaching, as insulin should be at room temperature for administration. Choice A is correct as rotating injection sites helps prevent lipodystrophy. Choice C is correct as pinching the skin helps ensure proper subcutaneous injection. Choice D is correct as injecting insulin at a 90-degree angle is the recommended technique for subcutaneous injections.
The client is advised to take dexamethasone (Decadron) with food or milk. What is the physiological basis for this advice?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Stimulates hydrochloric acid production. Dexamethasone can stimulate the production of hydrochloric acid in the stomach, which may lead to irritation of the stomach lining. Taking dexamethasone with food or milk helps to neutralize or buffer the acid, reducing the risk of stomach irritation. Choice A is incorrect because dexamethasone does not inhibit pepsin production. Choice C is incorrect as dexamethasone does not slow stomach emptying time. Choice D is incorrect as dexamethasone does not reduce hydrochloric acid production.
What action should the nurse take if she observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) soaking a client's foot in a basin of warm water placed on the bed during a total bed bath for a confused and lethargic client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take is to remove the basin of water from the client's bed immediately. Soaking a client's foot in a basin of water placed on the bed can lead to spills, create infection risks, and is not a safe practice. It is essential to prioritize the safety and well-being of the client by ensuring a safe environment during care procedures. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the immediate risk associated with the situation. Reminding the UAP to dry between the client's toes, advising about potential skin damage, or adding skin cream do not mitigate the immediate hazards of having a basin of water on the bed.
A client has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cleaning the perineal area with antiseptic solution daily is essential to prevent infection when caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. This practice helps reduce the risk of introducing pathogens into the urinary tract. Ensuring the catheter tubing is free of kinks (Choice A) is important for maintaining proper urine flow but is not directly related to preventing infection. Irrigating the catheter with normal saline every shift (Choice C) is not a routine practice and can increase the risk of introducing pathogens. Securing the catheter to the client's leg (Choice D) is important for stability but does not directly prevent infection.
During assessment, what is an indication of thrombophlebitis in a client who has been on bed rest for the past month?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Calf swelling is a common sign of thrombophlebitis, which is inflammation of a vein due to a blood clot. Prolonged immobility can predispose individuals to thrombophlebitis. Calf swelling occurs due to the obstruction of blood flow, causing localized edema. This condition can lead to serious complications like pulmonary embolism if not promptly addressed. Elevated blood pressure, decreased urine output, and a generalized rash are not typically associated with thrombophlebitis. Elevated blood pressure may be linked to other conditions like hypertension, decreased urine output to kidney dysfunction, and a generalized rash to allergic reactions or skin conditions. Therefore, in a client on bed rest, calf swelling should raise suspicion of thrombophlebitis and prompt further evaluation and intervention.
A client in the emergency department is being cared for by a nurse and has abdominal trauma. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as an indication of hypovolemic shock?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Tachycardia is a hallmark sign of hypovolemic shock. When a client experiences significant blood loss, the body compensates by increasing the heart rate to maintain adequate perfusion to vital organs. Elevated blood pressure is not typically seen in hypovolemic shock; instead, hypotension is a more common finding. Warm, dry skin is characteristic of neurogenic shock, not hypovolemic shock. Decreased respiratory rate is not a typical manifestation of hypovolemic shock, as the body usually tries to increase respiratory effort to improve oxygenation in response to hypovolemia.
A nurse is caring for an older adult client who becomes agitated when the nurse requests the client's dentures be removed prior to surgery. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response is to provide a clear rationale for the request, as stated in option D. By explaining the purpose behind removing the dentures, the nurse helps the client understand the necessity, which can reduce agitation and promote cooperation. Option A demonstrates empathy by addressing the client's potential concern about being seen without dentures but lacks a direct explanation. Option B dismisses the client's feelings with a casual statement that may not address the underlying issue. Option C is authoritarian and lacks empathy, potentially escalating the client's agitation.
A client is 24 hours postoperative following an inguinal hernia repair. The client is tolerating clear liquids well, has active bowel sounds, and is expressing a desire for "real food." The nurse tells the client, "I will call the surgeon and ask for a change in diet." The surgeon hears the nurse's report and prescribes a full liquid diet. The nurse used which of the following levels of critical thinking?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse demonstrated complex critical thinking by assessing the client's condition, evaluating the need for a change, and making a recommendation to the surgeon. In this scenario, the nurse went beyond simply following instructions or making routine decisions (basic critical thinking). There was a depth of analysis and decision-making involved, showing a higher level of critical thinking than basic or commitment levels. Integrity is about adherence to ethical principles and honesty, not directly related to the critical thinking process.
A nurse is caring for a competent adult client who tells the nurse, 'I am leaving the hospital this morning whether the doctor discharges me or not.' The nurse believes that this is not in the client's best interest and prepares to administer a PRN sedative medication the client has not requested along with the scheduled morning medication. Which of the following types of tort is the nurse about to commit?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse is about to commit false imprisonment by unlawfully restricting the client's freedom of movement. In this scenario, the nurse's actions of preparing to administer sedative medication against the client's will in an effort to prevent them from leaving the hospital constitute false imprisonment. Assault (choice A) involves the threat of bodily harm, which is not present here. Negligence (choice C) refers to a breach in the duty of care, which is not the primary issue in this situation. Breach of confidentiality (choice D) involves disclosing confidential information without consent, which is unrelated to the scenario described.
During an assessment, a nurse is evaluating the breath sounds of an adult client diagnosed with pneumonia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assessing breath sounds in a client with pneumonia, the nurse should follow a systematic pattern from side-to-side moving down the client's chest. This approach ensures a comprehensive evaluation of breath sounds across different lung fields. Asking the client to breathe in deeply through their nose (Choice B) is not necessary for assessing breath sounds. Instructing the client to sit upright with their head slightly tilted backward (Choice C) is not directly related to assessing breath sounds and may not be required. Placing the diaphragm of the stethoscope on the client's chest (Choice D) is not the correct technique for auscultating breath sounds, as the diaphragm should be used for this purpose.
A nurse is evaluating a client's use of a cane. What is the correct use?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct way to use a cane is for the client to hold it on the stronger side of the body. This positioning allows the cane to provide support to the weaker side, assisting with balance and stability. Placing the cane on the weaker side (Choice B) may not provide adequate support and could lead to an increased risk of falls. Holding the cane in front of the weaker side (Choice C) or in front of the stronger side (Choice D) does not optimize the support and stability needed while walking with a cane.
A nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse providing care for a client who reports pain. The nurse checked the client's MAR and noted the last dose of pain medication was administered 6 hours ago. The prescription specifies administration every 4 hours PRN for pain. The nurse administered the medication and followed up with the client 40 minutes later, who reported improvement. What did the newly licensed nurse overlook in the nursing process?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Assessment.' In the nursing process, assessment is the first step, crucial before any intervention. Assessment involves gathering data about the client's condition to establish a baseline for evaluating responses to interventions. In this scenario, the newly licensed nurse missed assessing the client's pain intensity, location, quality, and other relevant factors before administering the pain medication. While the follow-up evaluation with the client is commendable, it cannot replace the initial assessment. Planning involves setting goals and outcomes, intervention is the action taken to achieve these goals, and evaluation assesses the client's response to the intervention.
A postoperative client has been diagnosed with paralytic ileus. When performing auscultation of the client's abdomen, the nurse expects the bowel sounds to be:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In paralytic ileus, bowel sounds are typically absent or significantly reduced due to decreased motility of the intestines. This absence of bowel sounds is a key characteristic used in diagnosing paralytic ileus. Hyperactive bowel sounds are not expected in this condition as there is a lack of normal peristalsis. Normal bowel sounds would not be present in paralytic ileus, and hypoactive bowel sounds, which indicate decreased bowel motility, are more commonly associated with conditions like postoperative ileus or constipation, rather than paralytic ileus.
A nurse is preparing change of shift report after the night shift using one SBAR communication tool. Which of the following data should the nurse include when reporting background information?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. When providing background information in a shift report using the SBAR communication tool, the nurse should include details related to medication administration and orders. This helps ensure continuity of care and accurate handover of responsibilities. Choices A, C, and D do not typically fall under background information for shift reports. A blood pressure reading, pain rating, and code status are more relevant to the patient's current condition and status, rather than background information about medications or orders.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer 750 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride IV to infuse over 7 hours. The healthcare professional should set the pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the mL/hr rate for the infusion, divide the total volume (750 mL) by the total time (7 hours). 750 mL ÷ 7 hours = 107 mL/hr. This means that the pump should be set to deliver approximately 107 mL/hr. Choice B (75 mL/hr) is incorrect because it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice C (90 mL/hr) is incorrect as it does not align with the accurate calculation. Choice D (60 mL/hr) is incorrect as it does not match the correct mL/hr rate obtained through the calculation.
When orienting a newly licensed nurse on taking a telephone prescription, which statement indicates understanding of the process?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because a second nurse should verify and enter the prescription into the client's medical record to ensure accuracy. This step is crucial to prevent errors in transcription and administration. Choice B is incorrect as having another nurse listen to the phone call does not ensure accurate transcription. Choice C is incorrect because the provider clarifying the prescription upon signing the health record does not replace the need for proper documentation. Choice D is incorrect because the 'read back' process is essential for all telephone prescriptions to confirm accuracy and prevent errors in transcription or administration.
A client tells the nurse, "I have to check with my partner and see if they think I am ready to go home." The nurse responds, "How do you feel about going home today?" Which clarifying technique is the nurse using to enhance communication with the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Reflecting is the correct answer as it involves echoing back the client's feelings and concerns, helping them explore their thoughts. In this scenario, the nurse mirrors the client's statement to encourage the client to delve deeper into their emotions. Pacing involves matching the rate and flow of communication, paraphrasing is restating in different words, and restating is repeating what the client said without adding new information. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are not the appropriate clarifying technique demonstrated in the situation described.
During a mass casualty event, a nurse is caring for multiple clients. Which of the following clients is the nurse's priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a mass casualty event, the priority client for the nurse is the one with partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to the face, neck, and chest. Clients with severe burns in critical areas require immediate attention due to the potential for life-threatening complications such as airway compromise, fluid loss, and infection. Crush injuries and fractures, although serious, are generally less urgent in comparison and can be managed after addressing the burns. Therefore, the client with burns to the face, neck, and chest should be the nurse's priority over the other clients described.
A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who has hypocalcemia. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as a risk factor for the development of this electrolyte imbalance?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Crohn's disease is known to impair calcium absorption, which can lead to hypocalcemia. This condition affects the intestines and can disrupt the normal absorption of nutrients, including calcium. Postoperative status following appendectomy, history of bone cancer, and hyperthyroidism are typically not directly associated with a higher risk of developing hypocalcemia compared to Crohn's disease.
A charge nurse on an acute care unit is planning care for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to promote the client's continuity of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Starting discharge planning on the day of admission is crucial to ensuring a smooth transition and continuity of care for the client. It allows for early identification of needs, coordination of services, and timely interventions. Assigning a different nurse each shift (Choice A) can disrupt continuity of care and lead to inconsistencies in the client's treatment. Limiting the number of interdisciplinary team members (Choice B) may hinder comprehensive care coordination. Requesting a satisfaction survey at discharge (Choice C) focuses more on feedback rather than proactive care planning and coordination.
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