HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Study Guide
1. Which statement best describes time management strategies applied to the role of a nurse manager?
- A. Schedule staff efficiently to cover the needs of the managed unit
- B. Assume a fair share of direct client care to set an example
- C. Set daily goals with a prioritization of tasks
- D. Delegate tasks to reduce workload associated with direct care and meetings
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Setting daily goals and prioritizing tasks is crucial for effective time management as a nurse manager. This approach helps in organizing and focusing on the most important responsibilities, ensuring that key tasks are completed efficiently. Choice A is incorrect as scheduling staff efficiently, while important, is more related to staffing management than direct time management strategies. Choice B is incorrect as assuming direct client care does not necessarily align with effective time management strategies for a nurse manager, as their primary role is overseeing and coordinating care. Choice D, while delegation is a key aspect of time management, the emphasis on reducing workload specifically associated with direct care and meetings may not always be the primary focus of a nurse manager's time management strategies.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing information for a change-of-shift report. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional include in the report?
- A. Input and output measurements for the shift
- B. Blood pressure readings from the previous day
- C. Bone scan scheduled for today
- D. Medication regimen from the medication administration record
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a change-of-shift report, healthcare professionals should include the medication regimen from the medication administration record. This information ensures continuity of care and helps incoming staff understand the patient's medication needs and schedule. While input and output measurements, blood pressure readings, and scheduled procedures like a bone scan are important aspects of patient care, they may not be immediately relevant for the incoming shift. Focusing on medication details helps prevent errors and ensures the patient receives the correct medications at the right times.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's fluid and electrolyte status. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. BUN 15 mg/dL
- B. Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
- C. Sodium 143 mEq/L
- D. Potassium 5.4 mEq/L
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L is above the expected reference range, indicating hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious complications such as dysrhythmias, making it important for the healthcare professional to report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and C fall within normal ranges and do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health, so they would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider. Elevated BUN or creatinine levels may indicate kidney dysfunction, while a sodium level of 143 mEq/L falls within the normal range for adults and does not typically require urgent intervention.
4. The healthcare provider is assessing an immobile patient for deep vein thromboses (DVTs). Which action will the healthcare provider take?
- A. Remove elastic stockings every 4 hours.
- B. Measure the calf circumference of both legs.
- C. Lightly rub the lower leg for redness and tenderness.
- D. Dorsiflex the foot while assessing for patient discomfort.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action when assessing an immobile patient for deep vein thromboses (DVTs) is to measure the calf circumference of both legs. This helps in detecting swelling or changes that may indicate the presence of a DVT. Removing elastic stockings every 4 hours (Choice A) is not necessary and can disrupt circulation. Lightly rubbing the lower leg for redness and tenderness (Choice C) can potentially dislodge a clot if present. Dorsiflexing the foot while assessing for patient discomfort (Choice D) is not a specific assessment for DVT and may not provide relevant information in this context.
5. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?
- A. 31 gtt/min.
- B. 62 gtt/min.
- C. 93 gtt/min.
- D. 124 gtt/min.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.
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