Free HESI LPN Fundamentals of Nursing practice for HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank (HESI LPN). Answer 90 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mod
What action should the nurse take to prevent the development of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client who is postoperative day 2 following hip replacement surgery?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action to prevent DVT in a postoperative client is to apply sequential compression devices (SCDs) to promote venous return. This helps prevent stasis of blood in the lower extremities, reducing the risk of clot formation. Encouraging bed rest (Choice A) may lead to decreased mobility and increase the risk of DVT. Massaging the client's legs (Choice C) is contraindicated in the presence of DVT as it can dislodge a clot. Encouraging ankle and foot exercises (Choice D) may be beneficial for circulation, but SCDs are more effective at preventing DVT in this scenario.
A client in an oncology clinic is being assessed by a nurse while undergoing treatment for ovarian cancer. Which of the following statements by the client indicates she is experiencing psychological distress?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice A is the correct answer as nightmares about upcoming surgery indicate psychological distress commonly associated with fears, anxiety, and stress related to the treatment. Choices B, C, and D suggest positive emotions and proactive behaviors that are not typical signs of psychological distress in this context. Feeling more energetic, making future plans, and looking forward to treatment are generally positive indicators of coping and adjustment to the situation.
In a mass casualty scenario at a child day care center, which child would the triage nurse prioritize for treatment last?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a mass casualty scenario, the triage nurse would prioritize the toddler with severe deep abrasions covering over 98% of the body for treatment last. This child is categorized as 'expectant' due to the extensive injuries, which are unlikely to be survivable even with immediate treatment. The other choices describe injuries that are serious but have a higher likelihood of survival with appropriate and timely intervention. The infant with an intermittent bulging anterior fontanel may have increased intracranial pressure requiring urgent evaluation, the preschooler with leg fractures can be stabilized and treated effectively, and the school-age child with singed hair likely has superficial burns which can be managed promptly.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being discharged with home oxygen therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Petroleum jelly is flammable and should not be used with oxygen therapy due to the risk of fire. The client should avoid using petroleum-based products around oxygen equipment. Choices A, C, and D are all appropriate statements for a client with COPD receiving home oxygen therapy. Keeping the oxygen tank upright ensures proper oxygen flow, avoiding smoking or exposure to smoke helps prevent respiratory aggravation, and knowing to seek medical help promptly for breathing difficulties is essential for managing COPD effectively.
The mother of a toddler calls the nurse for help as the baby is choking on his food. The nurse determines that the Heimlich maneuver is necessary based on which finding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is option A: Inability of the toddler to cry or speak. In cases of choking, the inability to cry or speak indicates a severe airway obstruction where the Heimlich maneuver is necessary to clear the obstruction and establish a patent airway. Option B, coughing forcefully, represents a partial obstruction where the child can still move air, making the Heimlich maneuver not immediately necessary. Option C, gagging but able to breathe, suggests a partial obstruction where air is moving, and the child can still breathe, not requiring immediate intervention like the Heimlich maneuver. Option D, wheezing during respiration, is more indicative of a lower airway issue such as asthma rather than an upper airway obstruction that necessitates the Heimlich maneuver.
When assisting an older adult client with dysphagia following a CVA during mealtime, what should the nurse prioritize?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to ensure the client is sitting upright while eating. This position helps prevent aspiration and facilitates swallowing. Offering tart or sour foods (Choice A) may not be suitable for someone with dysphagia as they can be difficult to swallow and may increase the risk of aspiration. Providing soft and easily swallowable foods (Choice C) is crucial for individuals with swallowing difficulties. While giving thickened liquids (Choice D) is a common intervention for dysphagia, the priority during mealtime should be ensuring the client's proper positioning to support safe swallowing and prevent aspiration.
The nurse is caring for a client with a central venous catheter. What is the most important action for the nurse to take to prevent infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Maintaining sterile technique when handling a central venous catheter is crucial in preventing infections. Changing the catheter dressing every 72 hours, while important for overall catheter care, does not directly address infection prevention. Flushing the catheter with heparin solution daily is essential for maintaining patency but does not primarily prevent infections. Ensuring the catheter is clamped when not in use is important for preventing air embolism but is not the most critical action to prevent infection. The most effective way to prevent infections is by strictly adhering to sterile techniques during catheter handling, which minimizes the risk of introducing pathogens into the catheter site.
The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old 2 hours after tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. Which of the following assessments must be reported immediately?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Increased restlessness must be reported immediately as it may indicate bleeding or other complications post-tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. This could be a sign of a developing issue that requires urgent intervention. Vomiting of dark emesis, complaints of throat pain, and an apical heart rate of 110 are important to monitor but do not indicate an immediate need for reporting as compared to the potential seriousness of increased restlessness in this scenario.
In an emergency department, a nurse is assessing a client who reports right lower quadrant pain, nausea, and vomiting for the past 48 hours. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the nurse should take first is to auscultate bowel sounds. This step is crucial to assess bowel activity before proceeding with palpation or administering medications. Assessing bowel sounds can provide valuable information about bowel motility and potential obstructions. Administering an antiemetic or offering pain medication may be necessary but should come after assessing bowel sounds to ensure appropriate treatment. Palpating the abdomen should be avoided initially to prevent potential discomfort or complications, especially if there is suspected abdominal pathology.
The nurse is having difficulty reading the healthcare provider's written order that was written right before the shift change. What action should be taken?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should call the provider for clarification. In situations where there is difficulty reading an order, it is crucial to directly contact the healthcare provider to ensure the correct order is understood and followed. Leaving the order for the oncoming staff (Choice A) may lead to misunderstandings and errors. Contacting the charge nurse (Choice B) may cause delays as they may also need to contact the provider. Asking the pharmacy (Choice C) is not the most direct and immediate action in this scenario, as the provider is the one who can provide immediate clarification.
What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.
A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Taking warfarin at the same time every day is essential to maintain a consistent blood level of the medication. This statement indicates that the client understands the teaching about the importance of consistency in medication timing. Choice B, regarding using a soft-bristled toothbrush, is not directly related to warfarin therapy and does not assess the client's understanding of warfarin administration. Choice C suggesting taking warfarin at bedtime is incorrect; it is generally recommended to take warfarin at the same time each day to avoid variations in drug levels. Choice D about avoiding foods high in vitamin K is relevant as vitamin K can interfere with warfarin's anticoagulant effects. However, it is not the best indicator of understanding the teaching on medication timing, which is crucial for warfarin efficacy.
A charge nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse perform tracheostomy care for a client. Which of the following actions by the newly licensed nurse requires intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Obtaining cotton balls for tracheostomy care is not recommended due to the risk of fiber contamination. Sterile gauze should be used instead. Choice B, using a sterile water bottle, is a correct and appropriate action for tracheostomy care to maintain cleanliness. Choice C, checking the suction equipment, is also a necessary step to ensure it is functioning properly for the procedure. Choice D, wearing a sterile gown, is a standard precaution to maintain a sterile environment during tracheostomy care.
A client is admitted for evaluation and control of HTN. Several hours after the client's admission, the nurse discovers the client supine on the floor, unresponsive to verbal or painful stimuli. The nurse's first reaction at this time is to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a situation where a client is found unresponsive on the floor, the nurse's first priority is to establish an airway. This is crucial to ensure that the client can breathe adequately and receive oxygen. Without a patent airway, the client's oxygenation and ventilation may be compromised, leading to serious consequences. Calling for assistance is important, but establishing an airway takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's ability to breathe. Checking the client's pulse and blood pressure can be done after ensuring a clear airway. Performing CPR is not the immediate action needed unless the client's breathing and pulse are absent after the airway has been secured.
A nurse is reviewing the correct use of a fire extinguisher with a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse direct the client to take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct first step in using a fire extinguisher is to remove the safety pin. This action enables the extinguisher to be activated and used effectively. Choice B, aiming the extinguisher at the base of the fire, comes after removing the safety pin. Choice C, squeezing the handle to release the extinguishing agent, and choice D, sweeping the extinguisher from side to side, are subsequent steps in using a fire extinguisher and should follow removing the safety pin.
An adult client is found to be unresponsive on morning rounds. After checking for responsiveness and calling for help, the next action that should be taken by the nurse is to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the priority is to ensure the client has a clear airway to facilitate breathing. After verifying unresponsiveness and calling for help, the nurse should open the client's airway to aid in maintaining ventilation. Checking the carotid pulse (Choice A) may be important but comes after ensuring a clear airway. Delivering abdominal thrusts (Choice B) is indicated for choking, not for an unresponsive client. Giving rescue breaths (Choice C) is also important but only after the airway has been established.
When admitting an older adult client who is Hispanic, which of the following cultural considerations should the nurse include when developing the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In Hispanic culture, there is an expectation that adult children will care for their older parents, emphasizing a strong family support system. This cultural value highlights the importance of filial piety and respect for elders within the family structure. Choice A is incorrect because Hispanic culture generally values late adulthood as a time of wisdom and experience, not a negative time. Choice C is incorrect as Hispanic culture typically involves collective family decision-making rather than assigning decision-making solely to the eldest female member. Choice D is incorrect as Hispanic culture values family support and involvement in end-of-life decisions rather than individual decision-making.
The nurse is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. Which symptom should the nurse expect to find?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Pheochromocytoma is characterized by the overproduction of catecholamines, leading to symptoms such as hypertension. Bradycardia (Choice B) is not typical in pheochromocytoma as increased catecholamines usually lead to tachycardia. Hypoglycemia (Choice C) and weight gain (Choice D) are not commonly associated symptoms of pheochromocytoma.
A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. What information should the LPN include when teaching the client about this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: 'Report any signs of infection to the healthcare provider immediately.' Methotrexate is an immunosuppressant medication commonly used to treat rheumatoid arthritis. It can lower the immune system's ability to fight infections, making it crucial for clients to promptly report any signs of infection to prevent serious complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because avoiding sunlight, taking the medication with food, and increasing fluid intake are not specific to methotrexate therapy and are not primary concerns associated with this medication.
A client with osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax). What instruction should the LPN/LVN provide to the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a client prescribed alendronate (Fosamax) is to take the medication with a full glass of water. Alendronate can cause irritation to the esophagus, so it is important to take it with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication to help prevent this irritation. Taking the medication at bedtime (choice B) may increase the risk of esophageal irritation as lying down can allow the medication to remain in the esophagus longer. Taking the medication with food (choice C) or on an empty stomach (choice D) can also interfere with the absorption of alendronate, reducing its effectiveness in treating osteoporosis.
During an assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating the body alignment of a standing patient. Which finding will the healthcare professional report as normal?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a standing assessment, the healthcare professional should observe the patient laterally. In a normal body alignment, the head is erect, and the spinal curves align in a reversed 'S' pattern, aiding in maintaining balance and posture. Choice B is incorrect because hips and shoulders should be level and not form an 'S' pattern when observed posteriorly. Choice C is incorrect as the position of the arms is not a key indicator of body alignment. Choice D is incorrect as the feet should be shoulder-width apart with toes pointing forward for optimal balance and stability.
A charge nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse prepare a sterile field. Which of the following actions should the charge nurse identify as contaminating the sterile field?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Opening the sterile field on a wet surface contaminates it, rendering it unsafe for use. Moisture can carry microorganisms that can compromise the sterility of the field. Choice B is incorrect because turning away from the sterile field alone does not necessarily contaminate it unless the nurse touches non-sterile items. Choice C is incorrect because using a non-sterile glove to touch the sterile field directly introduces contaminants. Choice D is incorrect as touching the edge of the sterile drape with a hand may not necessarily contaminate the entire field, unlike opening it on a wet surface.
A client returns from surgery with two Penrose drains in place. Anticipating frequent dressing changes, what should the nurse use around the incision site?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Montgomery straps are the correct choice in this scenario. They are specifically designed to secure dressings around drain sites, like Penrose drains, and are ideal for frequent dressing changes. Sterile gauze (Choice B) is commonly used for wound dressings but may not provide the best securement for drains. Adhesive tape (Choice C) can cause skin irritation and may not be suitable for securing drains. Elastic bandages (Choice D) are typically used for compression or support but are not appropriate for securing dressings around drain sites.
A nurse receives a report about a client who has 0.9% sodium chloride infusing IV at 125 mL/hr. When the nurse performs the initial assessment, they note that the client has received only 80 mL over the last 2 hrs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to check the IV tubing for obstruction. By doing this, the nurse can assess if there is any blockage or kink in the tubing that is impeding the flow of the IV solution. This step is crucial as it helps in identifying the reason for the inadequate infusion rate. Increasing the infusion rate (Choice B) without first checking for obstructions can lead to potential complications if there is a blockage. Administering a bolus of fluid (Choice C) may not be appropriate without addressing the cause of the decreased infusion rate. Similarly, replacing the IV catheter (Choice D) is not the initial priority unless obstruction is ruled out and other troubleshooting measures have been taken.
When providing oral care for an unconscious client, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When providing oral care for an unconscious client, it is essential to place them in a lateral position with the head turned to the side before beginning the procedure. This positioning helps prevent aspiration by allowing fluids to drain out of the mouth, reducing the risk of choking or aspiration pneumonia. Inserting a suction catheter before brushing the teeth (Choice B) is not recommended as it can cause discomfort and increase the risk of oral tissue injury. Using a soft-bristled toothbrush only with water (Choice C) is not sufficient for effective oral care as toothpaste helps in removing plaque and bacteria. Brushing the client's teeth while they are in a supine position (Choice D) is not safe as it increases the risk of aspiration since fluids can easily enter the airway in this position.
A charge nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about the care of a client who has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following statements should the charge nurse identify as an indication that the newly licensed nurse understands the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Protecting others from exposure when transporting a client with MRSA is crucial in preventing the spread of infection. This statement demonstrates understanding of infection control measures. Stating that MRSA is usually resistant to vancomycin (choice B) is incorrect; vancomycin is often effective against MRSA. Obtaining a specimen for culture and sensitivity after the first dose of an antimicrobial (choice A) is unnecessary and not indicated. Discontinuing antimicrobial therapy when the client is no longer febrile (choice D) is incorrect because antimicrobial therapy should be completed as prescribed to prevent the development of resistant strains.
How can the LPN/LVN best handle the situation of a postoperative client being kept awake by a neighboring client with dementia who sings all night?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best way to handle the situation in this scenario is to move the neighboring client to a room at the end of the hall. This solution is considerate to both clients because it addresses the issue by providing a quieter environment for the client with dementia while allowing the postoperative client to rest. Choice A is inappropriate as it does not address the root cause of the problem and may not be feasible or respectful. Choice B of closing the doors may not effectively reduce the noise disturbance. Choice C of giving the complaining client sedatives should be the last resort and not the initial solution, as it does not address the underlying issue causing the disturbance.
A client with chronic kidney disease has been prescribed a low-protein diet. Which food should the healthcare provider advise the client to limit?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Chicken breast. In chronic kidney disease, a low-protein diet is often recommended to reduce the workload on the kidneys. Chicken breast is a high-protein food that should be limited in such diets to help manage the progression of kidney disease. Choices B, C, and D are low in protein and are generally suitable for individuals following a low-protein diet. Apples, rice, and bananas can be included in moderation as part of a balanced diet for individuals with chronic kidney disease.
The healthcare professional is caring for a client with a peripheral intravenous (IV) line that has infiltrated. What is the most appropriate initial action for the healthcare professional to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct initial action when an IV line infiltrates is to discontinue the IV and restart it in another site. This is crucial to prevent complications such as tissue damage, phlebitis, and infection that can result from the infiltration. Applying a warm compress (Choice A) is not recommended as it can exacerbate the tissue damage caused by the infiltration. Aspirating the IV line and flushing it with normal saline (Choice C) is not appropriate for an infiltrated IV line as it does not address the main issue of infiltration. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, the immediate priority is to discontinue the infiltrated IV to prevent further harm and ensure proper delivery of fluids or medications.
When conducting an admission assessment, the LPN should ask the client about the use of complementary healing practices. Which statement is accurate regarding the use of these practices?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When considering the use of complementary healing practices, it is important to acknowledge that many of these practices can be safely integrated with conventional treatments to provide holistic care. Choice A is incorrect because complementary healing practices can complement traditional medical approaches rather than interfere with their efficacy. Choice B is incorrect as interactions between conventional medications and folk remedies may vary, but not all interactions lead to adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect as conventional medical practices and complementary healing practices can coexist and each offer benefits in healthcare.
A client has undergone an allogeneic stem cell transplant, and a nurse is initiating a protective environment. Which precaution should the nurse plan for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For a client who has undergone an allogeneic stem cell transplant, it is crucial to maintain a protective environment to prevent infections. Wearing a mask when outside the room, especially if there is construction in the area, helps reduce the risk of exposure to harmful pathogens. This precaution is essential as the client's immune system is compromised post-transplant. Placing the client in a room with other immunocompromised patients (choice B) would increase the risk of infections as it exposes the client to a higher pathogen load. Allowing the client to visit public areas freely (choice C) is not recommended due to the higher risk of exposure to infections. Ensuring the client does not need any special precautions (choice D) is incorrect because clients post allogeneic stem cell transplant require protective measures to prevent complications.
A young mother of three children complains of increased anxiety during her annual physical exam. What information should the LPN/LVN obtain first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The LPN/LVN should first obtain the nutritional history in this scenario. Nutrition plays a crucial role in mental health, and deficiencies or imbalances in diet can contribute to anxiety symptoms. Understanding the mother's nutritional intake can help identify any factors exacerbating her anxiety. Sexual activity patterns are not directly relevant to her anxiety symptoms unless specifically indicated. Leisure activities and financial stressors may be important but are secondary to addressing the potential impact of nutrition on anxiety.
When admitting a client with an abdominal wound, which precaution should be taken?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When admitting a client with an abdominal wound, contact precautions should be implemented. Contact precautions are used to prevent the spread of infections that are spread by direct or indirect contact. In the case of abdominal wounds, bacteria and pathogens can easily be transmitted through contact with the wound or wound drainage. Droplet precautions are used for infections transmitted through respiratory droplets, such as influenza. Airborne precautions are used for infections spread through the air, like tuberculosis. Standard precautions are used for all clients to prevent the spread of infections and should be followed in addition to specific precautions based on the type of infection.
To use the nursing process correctly, what must the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The first step in the nursing process is to obtain information about the client. This step involves gathering data through assessment to understand the client's needs, health status, and preferences. Developing a care plan (Choice B) comes after the assessment phase. Implementing interventions (Choice C) and evaluating client outcomes (Choice D) occur in subsequent stages of the nursing process. Therefore, the correct initial step is to gather information about the client to form a foundation for providing individualized care.
The nurse is caring for a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The presence of blood in the urine in a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) may indicate a more severe infection, such as pyelonephritis, or complications like kidney stones or bladder cancer. Therefore, this finding should be reported immediately for further evaluation and management. Cloudy urine, burning sensation during urination, and foul-smelling urine are common symptoms of UTI and may not necessarily signify an urgent need for immediate reporting compared to the presence of blood in the urine.
The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of enoxaparin (Lovenox). Which site is most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to use?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The abdomen is the most appropriate site for administering subcutaneous injections of enoxaparin (Lovenox). Enoxaparin is typically administered in the abdomen due to better absorption and reduced risk of injury to underlying structures. The deltoid muscle is not recommended for subcutaneous injections of enoxaparin due to the potential risk of injury to underlying structures. The ventrogluteal and dorsogluteal sites are more appropriate for intramuscular injections rather than subcutaneous injections.
A client enters the emergency department unconscious via ambulance from the client's workplace. What document should be given priority to guide the direction of care for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, when the client is unconscious and unable to make decisions, a notarized original of advance directives brought in by the partner should be given priority to guide the direction of care. Advance directives provide legal documentation of the client's wishes regarding healthcare decisions in situations where they cannot express their preferences. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act (Choice A) outlines general principles but does not provide specific guidance on the client's care. Orders written by the healthcare provider (Choice B) are important but may not reflect the client's preferences. Clinical pathway protocols (Choice D) are useful for standard care pathways but do not address individual client wishes.
A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'D: I can take aspirin if I have a headache.' This statement indicates a need for further teaching because aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Clients on warfarin therapy should avoid taking aspirin or any other medications that can increase the risk of bleeding without consulting their healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements that demonstrate understanding of warfarin therapy and its potential side effects. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K helps maintain the effectiveness of warfarin, taking medication at the same time every day ensures consistent therapeutic levels, and using a soft toothbrush helps prevent gum bleeding, which can be a side effect of warfarin therapy.
A client has a new prescription for parenteral nutrition (PN) in 20% dextrose and fat emulsions. Which of the following is an appropriate action to include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client requires parenteral nutrition (PN) with a high dextrose concentration, such as 20%, it typically has a high osmolarity. High osmolarity solutions should be infused through a central venous line to prevent peripheral vein irritation and potential complications. Therefore, preparing the client for a central venous line is essential for the safe administration of PN with high dextrose. Monitoring blood glucose levels daily is important but not directly related to the need for a central venous line. Changing the PN infusion bag every 24 hours helps prevent bacterial contamination, but it is not the most critical action in this scenario. Administering the PN and fat emulsion together or separately is a matter of compatibility and administration guidelines, but it is not the key concern in this situation.
The nurse is admitting a patient diagnosed with a stroke. The healthcare provider writes orders for 'ROM as needed.' What should the nurse do next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to further assess the patient. 'ROM as needed' stands for Range of Motion, indicating that the patient should have their limbs moved to maintain joint flexibility and muscle strength. Before initiating any movements, it is crucial to assess the patient's current condition to determine their abilities and limitations. Restricting mobility (choice A) is not appropriate as it contradicts the purpose of ROM exercises. Realizing the patient is unable to move extremities (choice B) assumes without assessment and can lead to inappropriate care. Moving all the patient's extremities (choice C) without assessing the patient first can be harmful, as it may cause pain or injury if done incorrectly. Therefore, further assessment is necessary to provide safe and effective care.
Which statement made by a client indicates to the nurse that they may have a thought disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The statement 'I can't find my missing shoes. Have you seen them?' displays disorganized thinking or speech, which is characteristic of a thought disorder. The mention of 'missing shoes' in a context that does not make logical sense suggests a disturbance in thought processes. Choices A, B, and D do not demonstrate disorganized thinking typical of thought disorders. Option A reflects emotional expression, option B indicates mild confusion, and option D shows a redirection of focus to someone else's problem.
A client is postoperative following knee arthroplasty and requires the use of a thigh-length sequential compression device. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when applying a thigh-length sequential compression device to a postoperative client is to ensure that two fingers can fit under the sleeves. This action helps prevent the device from being too tight, which could impede circulation. Choice B is incorrect because the device should not be too tight, as it could lead to circulation issues. Choice C is incorrect as the client should be in a comfortable position, not necessarily supine. Choice D is incorrect as sequential compression devices are typically used continuously to prevent blood clots.
While a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action is to change the TPN bag every 24 hours to reduce the risk of infection. Changing the TPN tubing every 72 hours (Choice B) may increase the risk of contamination. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours (Choice A) is important but not specific to TPN administration. Weighing the client daily (Choice C) is essential for monitoring fluid status but is not directly related to TPN administration.
A client scheduled for arthroplasty expresses concern about the risk of acquiring an infection from a blood transfusion. Which of the following statements should the nurse make to the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement for the nurse to make to the client is to 'Donate autologous blood before the surgery.' Autologous blood donation involves collecting and storing the client's own blood for potential use during surgery, which significantly reduces the risk of transfusion-related infections. This option directly addresses the client's concern about infection risk. Requesting a specific blood type from a donor (Choice B) is not as effective in reducing infection risk compared to autologous blood donation. Using blood from a family member (Choice C) carries the risk of transfusion reactions and infections due to compatibility issues. Accepting allogeneic blood without concerns (Choice D) does not address the client's specific concern about infection risk and is not the most appropriate option in this situation.
A client who is post-op following a partial colectomy has an NG tube set on low continuous suction. The client complains of a sore throat and asks when the NG tube will be removed. Which response by the nurse is appropriate at this time?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response is A: 'When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.' After a partial colectomy, the GI tract needs time to recover and start functioning properly. The NG tube is typically removed when peristalsis returns, indicating GI function restoration, which usually occurs within 3-5 days post-op. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of the NG tube is not solely based on nausea improvement. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a longer duration for tube removal than is usually necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the cessation of drainage alone does not dictate NG tube removal; the return of GI function is the primary indicator.
A female client's significant other has been at her bedside providing reassurances and support for the past 3 days, as desired by the client. The client's estranged husband arrives and demands that the significant other not be allowed to visit or be given condition updates. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention is to communicate the client's wishes to all members of the multidisciplinary team. This action respects the client's autonomy and maintains her comfort by ensuring that her desires regarding visitation and support are known and upheld. Obtaining a perception from the healthcare provider regarding visitation privileges (Choice A) may not fully consider the client's preferences. Requesting a consultation with the ethics committee (Choice B) may be premature and could delay prompt resolution of the issue. Encouraging the client to speak with her husband (Choice C) may not be appropriate, as the husband's demands are disrupting the client's care and comfort, and the client may not feel safe or comfortable doing so.
A client with a tracheostomy is being taught by a nurse and their family how to care for the tracheostomy at home. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Using tracheostomy covers when outdoors is essential to protect the tracheostomy from dust and debris, reducing the risk of infection. Tracheostomy covers help maintain cleanliness and prevent foreign particles from entering the stoma. Choice B is incorrect because cleaning the tracheostomy with alcohol can be too harsh and drying for the skin surrounding the stoma, leading to skin irritation. Choice C is incorrect as tracheostomy tubes are typically replaced only when clinically indicated or as per the healthcare provider's instructions, not routinely every week, to prevent unnecessary risks and complications. Choice D is incorrect as covering the tracheostomy with a wet cloth when sleeping can create a moist environment ideal for bacterial growth, increasing the risk of infection and skin breakdown. It is important to keep the tracheostomy site clean, dry, and protected to maintain optimal hygiene and prevent complications.
A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are known to decrease heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia. This is a common side effect that nurses should monitor for in clients taking beta-blockers. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting are not typical side effects associated with beta-blockers. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for bradycardia in this client.
A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What is the most important action for the LPN/LVN to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor the client's blood glucose level. When a client with diabetes mellitus presents with symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia, it indicates hyperglycemia. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to assess and manage the client's condition effectively. Option A, encouraging the client to increase fluid intake, may exacerbate polyuria. Option C, administering insulin, should be done based on the healthcare provider's prescription after assessing the blood glucose level. Option D, assessing the client's urine output, is important but not the most immediate action needed in this scenario; monitoring blood glucose levels takes precedence.
A 3-year-old child diagnosed with celiac disease attends a daycare center. Which of the following would be an appropriate snack?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is potato chips. As a child with celiac disease needs to avoid gluten, potato chips are a suitable snack choice as they are typically gluten-free. Cheese crackers (Choice A) and vanilla cookies (Choice D) contain gluten, which should be avoided by individuals with celiac disease. While peanut butter sandwiches (Choice B) could be gluten-free depending on the bread used, it is not the best choice as cross-contamination is a concern in shared environments like daycare centers.
While changing a client's postoperative dressing, the nurse observes a red and swollen wound with a moderate amount of yellow and green drainage and a foul odor. Given there is a positive MRSA, which is the most important action for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to initiate contact precautions. MRSA (Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) is a highly contagious bacterium that spreads through direct contact. Contact precautions involve wearing gloves and gowns to prevent the spread of infection to other patients or healthcare workers. Force-feeding oral fluids, requesting a nutrition consult, or limiting visitors to immediate family only are not the most appropriate actions in this scenario. These actions do not directly address the need to prevent the spread of MRSA, which is crucial in a healthcare setting.
Which client statement from the assessment data is likely to explain their noncompliance with propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) is known to cause side effects such as diminished sexual function, which can lead to noncompliance with the medication due to its impact on quality of life. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be associated with propranolol hydrochloride. While diarrhea, difficulty falling asleep, and feeling jittery are possible side effects of propranolol, they are not as commonly reported as diminished sexual function. Therefore, choice C is the most likely reason for the client's noncompliance.
A nurse is reviewing evidence-based practice principles about the administration of oxygen therapy with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Regulating oxygen flow at no more than 6 L/min via nasal cannula is a safe practice to prevent potential complications such as oxygen toxicity. Option B suggesting administering oxygen at a higher flow rate for better saturation is incorrect as it can lead to adverse effects. Option C is incorrect because using a high-flow nasal cannula for all clients is not necessary and should be based on individual client needs. Option D is incorrect as adjusting oxygen flow solely based on client comfort without considering the prescribed flow rate can compromise the effectiveness of oxygen therapy.
A client is receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer. Which laboratory value would be most important for the nurse to monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor the white blood cell count. Chemotherapy can lead to neutropenia, which is a decrease in white blood cells, particularly neutrophils. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections, making it crucial to monitor the white blood cell count during chemotherapy. Monitoring hemoglobin level is important but not as critical as white blood cell count in this scenario. Serum creatinine and blood glucose levels are not directly impacted by chemotherapy for breast cancer, making them less relevant to monitor in this situation.
The nurse is planning care for a 12-year-old child with sickle cell disease in a vaso-occlusive crisis affecting the elbow. Which one of the following should be the priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease, the priority intervention is effective pain management. Client-controlled analgesia allows the child to self-administer pain relief as needed, promoting comfort and reducing stress. Limiting fluids (choice A) is not appropriate in this scenario as hydration is essential to prevent complications. Cold compresses (choice C) may provide some comfort but do not address the underlying pain. Passive range of motion exercises (choice D) are contraindicated during a vaso-occlusive crisis due to the risk of further pain and tissue damage.
The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should be monitored closely to assess for complications?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Blood glucose. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial for clients receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) due to the high glucose content in TPN solutions. TPN delivers essential nutrients, including glucose, directly into the bloodstream. Clients on TPN are at risk of developing hyperglycemia due to the concentrated glucose infusion. Therefore, close monitoring of blood glucose levels is necessary to detect and prevent hyperglycemia-related complications such as osmotic diuresis, hyperosmolarity, and electrolyte imbalances. While serum sodium, serum calcium, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels are important parameters in various clinical scenarios, they are not specifically associated with TPN administration. These values are not the primary indicators to assess for complications in clients receiving TPN.
When documenting client care, which of the following abbreviations should be used?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When documenting client care, it is crucial to use standardized abbreviations to ensure clear communication and prevent misunderstandings. BRP for bathroom privileges is a recognized and commonly used abbreviation in healthcare settings. Choice A, SS for sliding scale, is not a standard abbreviation and can lead to confusion as it could be mistaken for other meanings. Choice C, OJ for orange juice, is informal and may not be universally understood in a healthcare context. Choice D, SQ for subcutaneous, is a valid abbreviation but may not be as relevant in the context of documenting client care compared to BRP, which is more specific and widely accepted.
A healthcare provider is monitoring a client for adverse effects following the administration of an opioid. Which of the following effects should the provider identify as an adverse effect of opioids?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Orthostatic hypotension. Opioids can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This effect is due to the vasodilatory properties of opioids, which can result in decreased blood flow to the brain upon standing up. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Urinary incontinence and diarrhea are not typical adverse effects of opioids. Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a potential side effect of opioid overdose or respiratory depression, but it is not a common adverse effect following normal opioid administration.
A healthcare professional uses a head-to-toe approach to conduct a physical assessment of a client who will undergo surgery the following week. Which of the following critical thinking did the healthcare professional demonstrate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Discipline.' In this scenario, discipline is exemplified by following a structured and comprehensive assessment process, as seen in the head-to-toe approach. Confidence (choice A) relates to self-assurance and belief in one's abilities, which is not the primary critical thinking demonstrated in this situation. Perseverance (choice B) is the persistence in achieving goals despite challenges, not directly related to the systematic assessment process. Integrity (choice C) pertains to honesty and ethical behavior, which are important traits but not the critical thinking skill exemplified by the structured assessment process shown in the head-to-toe approach.
An elderly resident of a long-term care facility is no longer able to perform self-care and is becoming progressively weaker. The resident previously requested that no resuscitative efforts be performed, and the family requests hospice care. What action should the LPN/LVN implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The first action the LPN/LVN should implement is to notify the healthcare provider of the family's request. This is crucial to ensure that appropriate steps are taken to address the family's request for hospice care and to coordinate the necessary care for the resident. While reaffirming the client's desire for no resuscitative efforts is important, notifying the healthcare provider takes precedence in this situation. Transferring the client to a hospice inpatient facility and preparing the family for the client's impending death are significant actions but should be done after notifying the healthcare provider to ensure proper coordination of care.
The healthcare provider is monitoring a client in active labor. Which pattern on the fetal heart monitor requires immediate intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Late decelerations are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, potentially resulting in fetal hypoxia. Immediate intervention is necessary to address the underlying cause and ensure fetal well-being. Early decelerations are typically benign and associated with head compression during contractions. Accelerations are reassuring and indicate fetal well-being. Moderate variability is a normal finding and indicates a healthy autonomic nervous system response. Therefore, late decelerations (Choice B) require immediate attention, while the other patterns are generally considered normal or benign during labor.
During an eye assessment, what action should the nurse take to assess a client's extraocular eye movements?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action to assess extraocular eye movements effectively. This technique evaluates the function of the six extraocular muscles and cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. Positioning the client 6.1 m away from the Snellen chart is more relevant for visual acuity testing. Asking the client to cover their right eye during the assessment is not necessary for evaluating extraocular movements. Holding a finger at a specific distance in front of the client's eye is not an appropriate method for assessing extraocular eye movements.
When preparing to lift and reposition a patient, which action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The first action the nurse should take when preparing to lift and reposition a patient is to assess the patient's weight to determine the assistance needed. This step is crucial for the safety of both the patient and the nurse. Positioning a drawsheet under the patient (Choice B) is important for the comfort and safety during the repositioning process but should come after assessing the weight and assistance requirements. Delegating the task to a nursing assistive personnel (Choice C) can be considered once the assessment is complete and additional help is needed. Attempting to manually lift the patient alone before asking for assistance (Choice D) is unsafe and should never be done without first assessing the weight and determining the need for help.
A client's infusion of normal saline infiltrated earlier today, and approximately 500 ml of saline infused into the subcutaneous tissue. The client is now complaining of excruciating arm pain and demanding 'stronger pain medications.' What initial action is most important for the LPN/LVN to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important initial action for the LPN/LVN to take in this situation is to measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration. This assessment helps evaluate the severity of the infiltration and the circulation in the affected arm. Asking about past history of drug abuse or addiction (Choice A) is not the priority when addressing acute arm pain and infiltration. Compressing the infiltrated tissue (Choice C) may exacerbate the pain and is not recommended as the first step. Evaluating the extent of ecchymosis (Choice D) is not as critical as assessing the circulation in the affected arm, which is better addressed by measuring pulse volume and capillary refill.
A healthcare professional is obtaining the blood pressure in a client's lower extremity. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When measuring blood pressure in the lower extremity, the bladder of the cuff should be placed over the posterior aspect of the thigh. This positioning ensures an accurate measurement. Placing the cuff around the ankle (Choice C) or above the knee (Choice D) would not provide an accurate blood pressure reading in the lower extremity. Using a smaller cuff designed for lower extremities (Choice B) is not appropriate as the standard cuff size should be used with the bladder placed over the posterior aspect of the thigh.
A nurse is precepting a newly licensed nurse who is preparing to help a client perform tracheostomy care. The nurse should intervene if the equipment the preceptee gathered included:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Cotton balls. Cotton balls are not suitable for tracheostomy care due to the risk of lint and contamination. When performing tracheostomy care, sterile supplies such as sterile gloves, a suction catheter, and tracheostomy tubes are essential. Sterile gloves are needed to maintain asepsis, a suction catheter is necessary for airway clearance, and tracheostomy tubes are crucial for maintaining a patent airway. Cotton balls should be avoided to prevent introducing lint or fibers into the tracheostomy site, which can lead to infection or airway obstruction.
The nurse is evaluating client learning about a low-sodium diet. Selection of which meal would indicate to the LPN that this client understands the dietary restrictions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream. These items are low in sodium, making it a suitable meal for someone on a low-sodium diet. Skim milk, turkey salad, and vanilla ice cream are naturally low in sodium, while the roll can be selected as a low-sodium option. Choices A, B, and D contain items that are typically high in sodium, such as bacon, clam chowder, crackers, and cheese, making them unsuitable for a low-sodium diet.
The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a history of congestive heart failure. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Crackles in the lungs are concerning because they indicate pulmonary congestion, a serious complication of congestive heart failure. The presence of crackles suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, requiring immediate attention to prevent respiratory distress and worsening heart failure. While shortness of breath on exertion, weight gain, and orthopnea are common signs and symptoms of heart failure, crackles specifically point to acute pulmonary edema or worsening congestion, making them the most concerning finding in this scenario.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has hypernatremia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to infuse hypotonic IV fluids. In hypernatremia, there is an elevated sodium concentration in the blood, and diluting it with hypotonic fluids helps to lower the sodium levels. Implementing a fluid restriction or increasing sodium intake would worsen hypernatremia by further concentrating sodium in the body. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate is used for treating hyperkalemia, not hypernatremia.
A client who is 5'5" tall and weighs 200 pounds is scheduled for surgery the next day. What question is most important for the LPN to include during the preoperative assessment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During the preoperative assessment, it is crucial for the LPN to inquire about the client's intake of vitamin and mineral supplements. This is important because certain supplements can have effects on coagulation, wound healing, and overall surgical outcomes. Asking about daily calorie consumption (Choice A) is not as pertinent as inquiring about vitamin and mineral supplements in this context. Questioning the client about feeling overweight (Choice C) may not directly impact the surgical outcome compared to the effects of supplements. Inquiring about the post-surgery diet (Choice D) is relevant but not as critical as understanding the client's supplement intake.
A client who is terminally ill has a family member who is coping effectively with the situation. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication of effective coping?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because an effective coping strategy involves mutual support and communication within the family. This statement reflects effective coping skills as the family is shown to be helping each other through the difficult time. Choice A is incorrect as maintaining hope does not necessarily indicate effective coping. Choice C focuses on future events and may not address the current situation of coping with a terminally ill family member. Choice D avoids discussing important aspects of end-of-life planning, which may not reflect effective coping with the situation at hand.
A healthcare professional is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is postoperative and has fluid volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A decrease in heart rate can indicate that the fluid volume deficit is improving. In cases of fluid volume deficit, the body compensates by increasing the heart rate to maintain adequate perfusion. Therefore, a decrease in heart rate after fluid resuscitation suggests that the body's perfusion status is improving. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fluid volume deficit typically causes tachycardia, not a decrease in heart rate, and would not result in a decrease in blood pressure or an increase in respiratory rate as primary signs of improvement.
Prior to a client being transported for a chest x-ray, what should a healthcare professional do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Identifying the client using two identifiers is the crucial first step to ensure correct patient identification before any procedure. This process helps prevent errors and ensures that the right procedure is performed on the right patient. Confirming the client's identity is the top priority before addressing other aspects such as fasting status, allergies, or explaining the procedure. While confirming fasting status and checking for allergies are important, they are secondary to confirming the client's identity. Explaining the procedure to the client is also essential but should occur after ensuring proper identification.
A client reports increased pain following physical therapy. Which of the following questions should be asked to assess the quality of the pain?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct Answer: A. Asking whether the pain is sharp or dull helps in determining the quality of the pain. Sharp pain is often associated with acute conditions, while dull pain may indicate chronic issues. Choices B, C, and D focus on different aspects of pain assessment. Option B pertains to the pattern of pain, either constant or intermittent. Option C addresses the severity of pain on a numerical scale. Option D inquires about the location of pain. While all these questions are essential in pain assessment, when specifically evaluating the quality of pain, distinguishing between sharp and dull sensations is crucial.
A nurse has noticed several occasions in the past week when another nurse on the unit seemed drowsy and unable to focus on the issue at hand. Today, the nurse was found asleep in a chair in the break room not during a break time. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Reporting the observations to the nurse manager is the appropriate action to ensure the safety of the clients and address potential impairment. The nurse manager can take necessary steps to assess the situation and intervene if needed. Alerting the American Nurses Association (Choice A) is not necessary at this stage as the immediate concern is the safety of clients in the unit. Filling out an incident report (Choice B) may be required later, but the priority is to address the issue promptly by involving the immediate supervisor. Leaving the nurse alone to sleep (Choice D) is not a safe option as it does not address the underlying problem of potential impairment and safety concerns; it is essential to address the issue promptly to ensure patient safety.
While assisting a client with a meal, the client suddenly grabs at their neck with both hands and appears frightened. The appropriate nursing action is to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action when a client suddenly grabs at their neck and appears frightened is to ask if they are choking. This allows the nurse to gather more information from the client directly. Performing abdominal thrusts (choice B) should only be done if the client is unable to speak, cough, or breathe. Calling for emergency help (choice C) should be done after assessing the situation and confirming choking. Checking the client's airway (choice D) is important but should come after confirming that the client is choking.
A client is receiving continuous IV fluid therapy via a peripheral vein in the left forearm. Which of the following findings indicates that the client has developed phlebitis at the IV site?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Erythema (redness) along the path of the vein is a classic sign of phlebitis, indicating inflammation of the vein. This occurs due to irritation or infection at the IV site. Pitting edema (choice B) is not typically associated with phlebitis but suggests fluid overload or poor circulation. Coolness (choice C) and pallor (choice D) of the forearm are not characteristic signs of phlebitis but may indicate impaired circulation or reduced blood flow to the area.
A nurse is caring for an adolescent client who has full-thickness burns on his leg. The client expresses concern about his future. Which of the following is a therapeutic response by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response is A, "You're concerned about what will happen when you leave the hospital?" This response acknowledges the client's concerns about the future, validating their feelings and encouraging open communication. It shows empathy and allows the client to express their worries. Choice B minimizes the client's concerns by suggesting that they won't need to worry if they work hard on physical therapy, which may invalidate their emotions. Choice C dismisses the client's worry, implying that they should ignore their concerns to focus on getting well. Choice D uses a confrontational approach by questioning the client's concerns, which may discourage open communication and make the client feel defensive.
A client reports mild back pain after receiving analgesia 1 hour ago. Which non-pharmacological pain method should the nurse plan to use?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the nurse should instruct the client to take deep rhythmic breaths as a non-pharmacological pain management method. Deep breathing can help the client relax, reduce stress, and manage pain effectively. Applying heat or ice for prolonged periods can lead to tissue damage. Removing distractions can be helpful for promoting relaxation but may not directly address the pain itself.
A child weighing 20 kg has a new prescription for cefoxitin at 80 mg/kg/day administered intravenously every 6 hours. How much cefoxitin should be administered with each dose?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To determine the amount of cefoxitin to be administered with each dose, first, calculate the total daily dose by multiplying the child's weight (20 kg) by the prescribed dose (80 mg/kg/day): 80 mg/kg/day*20 kg = 1600 mg/day. Since the medication is administered every 6 hours (4 doses/day), divide the total daily dose by the number of doses: 1600 mg / 4 = 400 mg. Therefore, each dose should be 400 mg. Choice B (200 mg) is incorrect because it is half the calculated dose. Choice C (1600 mg) is incorrect as it represents the total daily dose, not the dose per administration. Choice D (100 mg) is incorrect as it is a quarter of the calculated dose.
A client is still experiencing mild back pain after receiving analgesia 1 hour ago. Which of the following nonpharmacological pain management techniques should the nurse include in the plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the nurse should instruct the client to take deep, rhythmic breaths as a nonpharmacological pain management technique. Deep, rhythmic breathing helps with relaxation and pain management, potentially reducing the perception of pain. Encouraging the client to apply a heating pad for 2 hours at a time (Choice A) is not recommended as prolonged heat application can lead to tissue damage and is not suitable for mild back pain. Applying an ice pack for 1 hour (Choice B) may not be appropriate for mild back pain as cold therapy is more commonly used for acute injuries. Removing distractions from the client's room (Choice C) may help create a more calming environment, but it does not directly address the client's pain.
While caring for a client who begins to experience a generalized seizure while standing in her room, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a seizure, the priority is to protect the client's head and ensure their safety. The nurse should guide the client to the ground if possible and place a soft pad or a folded cloth under the head to prevent injury. Restraining the client's limbs can result in injury and should be avoided. Lifting the client can also lead to injuries during a seizure. Inserting a bite block is contraindicated as it can cause damage to the teeth, oral tissues, and obstruct the airway. Therefore, the correct action is to place a pad under the client's head to protect them during the seizure.
A caregiver is talking with the caregivers of a 10-year-old child who is concerned that their child is becoming secretive, including closing the door when showering and dressing. Which of the following responses should the caregiver make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response is C: "At this age, children tend to become modest and value their privacy." During the developmental stage around 10 years old, children often start to value their privacy more and exhibit behaviors like closing doors when showering or dressing. It is a normal part of growing up and developing a sense of modesty. Choice A is incorrect as it suggests prying into the child's privacy, which may be counterproductive and invasive. Choice B is not the best response as it focuses on safety but fails to address the child's developmental stage and need for privacy. Choice D is also incorrect as it advocates for discipline without recognizing the normal developmental behavior of children at this age.
When assessing a client's heart sounds, the nurse hears a scratching sound during both systole and diastole. These sounds become more distinct when the nurse has the client sit up and lean forward. The nurse should document the presence of a:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A pericardial friction rub is characterized by a scratching sound that occurs during both systole and diastole. It becomes more distinct when the client is sitting up and leaning forward. This indicates an inflammation of the pericardial sac rubbing against the layers of the heart. Heart murmurs (choice B) are abnormal heart sounds caused by turbulent blood flow, not by friction like in a pericardial rub. S3 and S4 heart sounds (choices C and D) are additional heart sounds related to abnormal ventricular filling, not to pericardial friction rubs.
A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.
A healthcare professional is explaining the use of written consent forms to a newly-licensed healthcare professional. The healthcare professional should ensure that a written consent form has been signed by which of the following clients?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct! Written consent is required for procedures that carry significant risks, such as blood transfusions, to ensure the client's informed consent and understanding of the procedure. In this case, a transfusion of packed red blood cells is an invasive procedure that carries risks, making it essential to have the client's written consent. Choices B, C, and D do not typically require written consent as routine physical examinations, minor surgical procedures without anesthesia, and new medication prescriptions do not carry the same level of risk and complexity as a blood transfusion.
If a security officer is reviewing actions to take in the event of a bomb threat by phone to a group of nurses, which statement by a nurse indicates understanding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: "I will listen for background noises." Listening for background noises can provide useful information about the bomb's location, helping security to assess the situation more effectively. Choice A is incorrect because disconnecting the call abruptly may prevent gathering important details. Choice B is incorrect as using elevators during a bomb threat can be dangerous; it is safer to use stairs for evacuation. Choice C is incorrect because actively engaging with the caller to gather information is crucial in bomb threat situations.
A nurse is planning care for a client who had a stroke. What task should be assigned to the assistive personnel?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to assign the assistive personnel to assist the client with a partial bed bath. This task falls within the scope of practice for assistive personnel and is a common activity in caring for clients who have had a stroke. Choice B involves measuring blood pressure, which should be done by a licensed nurse. Choice C requires the use of a communication board, which can be done by any healthcare team member, not just assistive personnel. Choice D involves feeding the client, which may require assessment and intervention by a licensed nurse to ensure proper nutrition and safety.
When providing mouth care for an unconscious client, what action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When providing mouth care for an unconscious client, the nurse should turn the client's head to the side. This action helps prevent aspiration by allowing any fluids to drain out of the mouth, reducing the risk of choking or aspiration pneumonia. Placing fingers into the client's mouth can be dangerous and may cause injury. Brushing the client's teeth only once a day may not be sufficient for proper oral hygiene care. Injecting mouth rinse into the center of the mouth is not recommended and can potentially lead to aspiration. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to turn the client's head to the side.
During a family assessment, a nurse is interviewing a family composed of a husband, a wife, and three children. One child is biological from this marriage, and the other two are from the wife's previous marriage. How should the nurse identify this family form?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Blended.' This family is considered a blended family because it consists of children from previous marriages, along with the biological child of the current marriage. Choice A ('Extended') refers to a family that includes relatives beyond the nuclear family, such as grandparents or aunts/uncles. Choice C ('Nuclear') typically consists of a husband, wife, and their biological children only. Choice D ('Alternative') does not accurately describe the family structure presented in the scenario.
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