HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. A client with pneumonia is receiving antibiotic therapy. Which finding indicates that the treatment is effective?
- A. Decreased white blood cell count
- B. Decreased respiratory rate
- C. Increased breath sounds
- D. Increased heart rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased breath sounds. When a client with pneumonia is receiving antibiotic therapy, increased breath sounds indicate that the lungs are clearing and the pneumonia is resolving. This improvement in breath sounds suggests that the antibiotics are effectively treating the infection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a decreased white blood cell count, decreased respiratory rate, and increased heart rate are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of antibiotic therapy in treating pneumonia. While these parameters may change in response to treatment, they do not directly reflect the resolution of the pneumonia infection.
2. The healthcare professional is caring for a client with a peripheral intravenous (IV) line that has infiltrated. What is the most appropriate initial action for the healthcare professional to take?
- A. Apply a warm compress to the affected area.
- B. Discontinue the IV and restart it in another site.
- C. Aspirate the IV line and flush it with normal saline.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct initial action when an IV line infiltrates is to discontinue the IV and restart it in another site. This is crucial to prevent complications such as tissue damage, phlebitis, and infection that can result from the infiltration. Applying a warm compress (Choice A) is not recommended as it can exacerbate the tissue damage caused by the infiltration. Aspirating the IV line and flushing it with normal saline (Choice C) is not appropriate for an infiltrated IV line as it does not address the main issue of infiltration. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, the immediate priority is to discontinue the infiltrated IV to prevent further harm and ensure proper delivery of fluids or medications.
3. A healthcare provider is preparing to perform mouth care for an unresponsive client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider plan to take?
- A. Raise the level of the bed
- B. Administer mouth care with the client in a supine position
- C. Use a tongue depressor to open the mouth
- D. Place the client in a prone position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Raising the bed level is the correct action to facilitate easier access for mouth care in an unresponsive client. This position enhances the safety and comfort of both the client and the healthcare provider. Administering mouth care with the client in a supine position (lying flat on their back) can increase the risk of aspiration. Using a tongue depressor to open the mouth is not recommended as it can cause discomfort and potential injury. Placing the client in a prone position (lying face down) is contraindicated for mouth care and can compromise the client's airway.
4. A client is admitted to the emergency room following an acute asthma attack. Which of the following assessments would be expected by the nurse?
- A. Diffuse expiratory wheezing
- B. Loose, productive cough
- C. No relief from inhaler
- D. Fever and chills
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During an acute asthma attack, one of the expected assessments by the nurse would be diffuse expiratory wheezing. This occurs due to narrowed airways and increased airflow velocity. Choice B, a loose productive cough, is not typically associated with an asthma attack. Choice C, no relief from inhaler, may indicate ineffective treatment but is not a direct assessment finding related to the physical examination. Choice D, fever and chills, are not typical symptoms of an asthma attack and would not be expected findings during the initial assessment of an acute asthma attack.
5. During a skin assessment, a client expresses concern about skin cancer. What findings should the nurse identify as a potential indication of a skin malignancy?
- A. A mole with an asymmetrical appearance.
- B. A mole with a regular border.
- C. A mole that is the same color throughout.
- D. A mole that is smaller than 6mm in diameter.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A mole with an asymmetrical appearance. Asymmetry is a key characteristic of potential skin malignancy. An asymmetrical mole does not have a uniform shape when divided in half. This irregularity raises suspicion for skin cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. A mole with a regular border (B) is more likely to be benign. A mole that is the same color throughout (C) is also a feature commonly seen in benign moles. Additionally, a mole smaller than 6mm in diameter (D) is not necessarily indicative of malignancy, as some melanomas can be smaller or larger than this size.
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