Free HESI LPN Community Health Nursing practice for Community Health HESI Exam (HESI LPN). Answer 57 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, an
For Barangay Mabulaklak, you intend to conduct health education sessions for a group of mothers. Which of the following topics for discussion will be given least priority:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D - 'overcrowding and its effect.' While overcrowding is an important topic, it will be given least priority compared to the other choices when conducting health education sessions for a group of mothers. Proper selection and preparation of food (Choice A) is crucial for ensuring adequate nutrition, handwashing before preparing food (Choice B) is essential for preventing foodborne illnesses, and cutting children's fingernails short (Choice C) is important for maintaining good hygiene. Overcrowding, although significant in the context of public health, might be considered less immediately relevant for a group of mothers in a health education session focused on more direct and practical aspects of family health and hygiene.
A confused client has been placed in physical restraints by order of the healthcare provider. Which task could be assigned to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Assist the client with activities of daily living.' Unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) can help clients with activities of daily living, such as feeding, bathing, and dressing. This task is appropriate for UAP as it does not require professional judgment. Choices B, C, and D involve monitoring safety, evaluating needs, and documenting assessments, which require a licensed nurse's professional judgment and expertise.
Community Health Nursing (CHN) in the Philippines encompasses healthcare provisions affecting four clients: individuals, families, population groups, and communities. In the course of our community health work, traditional, non-traditional, alternative, or complementary health care strategies are utilized. The legal basis for this action may be derived from the:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Traditional and Alternative Health Care Law. This law provides the legal basis for integrating alternative health care strategies. The PhilHealth Act (Choice A) focuses on health insurance, the Philippine Nursing Act (Choice C) regulates the nursing profession, and the Philippine Medical Act (Choice D) pertains to the medical profession. These laws are not directly related to the integration of traditional, non-traditional, alternative, or complementary health care strategies in community health work.
Which of the following behaviors is influenced by cultural expectations?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cultural expectations can influence all the listed behaviors. Talking openly about the details of an illness may be culturally acceptable or taboo. The decision to 'feed a cold' or 'starve a fever' is often influenced by cultural beliefs and practices. Additionally, the use of herbal supplements to boost the immune system can also be shaped by cultural norms and traditions. Therefore, all the behaviors listed can be influenced by cultural expectations, making option D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because cultural expectations can impact each of these behaviors.
A community health nurse is planning to implement an outreach program for a community group. Which criteria should the nurse clarify about the program when examining sources for funding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Identifying populations and individuals in need of healthcare services is essential when seeking funding for an outreach program. This criterion helps demonstrate the relevance and impact of the program on specific groups requiring healthcare services. Choice A is incorrect because while addressing multiple health problems is important, identifying the target population in need of services is more critical for funding considerations. Choice C is incorrect as evaluating variations in health services and status, though valuable, is not directly related to securing funding. Choice D is incorrect as offering services in various community locations is a component of the program's implementation, not a criterion for funding.
In planning the use of resources for secondary prevention in a community clinic serving migrant families, which activity should be the priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Skin testing for tuberculosis. In a community clinic serving migrant families, tuberculosis is a significant health concern due to close living conditions and potential exposure during migration. Skin testing for tuberculosis is crucial for secondary prevention as it helps in early detection and prevention of the spread of the disease within the community. Choices B, C, and D are important health screenings but may not be the priority in this specific population where tuberculosis poses a higher risk.
When teaching a responsible family member how to perform a certain procedure for the patient, what is the best approach?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best approach when teaching a responsible family member a procedure for the patient is to demonstrate the procedure. By demonstrating, the family member can visually see how it is done, making it easier for them to understand and replicate. This hands-on approach is more effective than just describing the procedure (choice C) or arranging for practice (choice B) without a visual demonstration. Performing all the steps (choice A) may not be practical or necessary when the goal is to teach someone else how to do it.
In terms of CHN practice, how is the nurse in the community trained?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In community health nursing practice, nurses are trained as generalists in nursing. They receive education that equips them to address a wide range of health concerns in the community. Choice A, nurse-midwife, is incorrect as it refers to a specific role focusing on childbirth and maternal health. Choice B, practice nursing, is vague and does not specifically describe the training of community health nurses. Choice D, midwife, is also incorrect as it refers to a specialized role in maternal and newborn care, different from the generalist training of community health nurses.
While explaining an illness to a 10-year-old, what should the nurse keep in mind about the cognitive development at this age?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct answer: At the age of 10, children are in the stage of concrete operational thought, where they can think logically and organize facts. Choice A is incorrect as simple associations of ideas are more characteristic of earlier developmental stages. Choice C is incorrect as while children at this age are developing perspective-taking skills, their interpretations are not solely limited to their own perspective. Choice D is incorrect as while previous experiences influence their thinking, the ability to think logically and organize facts is more prominent in this stage of cognitive development.
Which of the following best describes the goal of primary health care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Promoting health and preventing illness.' Primary health care aims to provide essential health services, promote health, prevent diseases, and manage common health problems. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because primary health care focuses on a holistic approach to health that includes health promotion, disease prevention, treatment of common illnesses, and community participation, rather than specialized services, chronic disease treatment, or medical research.
Under the local government code, health services must be developed by the local governments. This means that local health agencies such as health centers/rural health centers must be under the:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: municipal government office. According to the local government code, local health agencies like health centers and rural health centers are managed by the municipal government office. This is because the municipal government is responsible for providing essential public services within their jurisdiction. Choice B, barangay health councils, is incorrect as they operate at a smaller administrative level than municipal government offices. Choice C, district health office, is not the correct level of government responsible for managing local health agencies. Choice D, provincial health office, is at a higher administrative level than the municipal government office and is not directly responsible for managing local health agencies.
An infant weighed 7 pounds 8 ounces at birth. If growth occurs at a normal rate, what would be the expected weight at 6 months of age?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Double the birth weight.' Infants typically double their birth weight by 6 months of age. This is a common milestone in healthy infant growth and development. Choice B is incorrect because tripling the birth weight would be excessive and not in line with normal growth patterns. Choice C, 'Gain 6 ounces each week,' is not accurate as infant growth is not linear each week. Choice D, 'Add 2 pounds each month,' is also incorrect as this rate of growth would be too rapid and unrealistic for healthy infant development.
When a nurse teaches a community about the importance of regular health screenings, this activity falls under which level of prevention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat disease early to prevent complications. Teaching about the importance of regular health screenings helps in early detection and intervention, which aligns with the goals of secondary prevention. Choice A, Primary prevention, involves actions to prevent the onset of a health condition. Choice C, Tertiary prevention, focuses on managing and treating existing conditions to prevent further complications. Choice D, Quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to mitigate or avoid unnecessary interventions, over-medicalization, and the consequences of unnecessary treatment.
All of the following are objectives of FHSIS EXCEPT:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Completing the clinical picture of chronic diseases and describing their natural history is not an objective of FHSIS. The objectives of FHSIS include providing a standardized, facility-level database for more in-depth studies (B), minimizing recording and reporting burden to allow more time for patient care and promotive activities (C), and ensuring that reported data are useful, accurate, and disseminated in a timely and easy-to-use manner (D). Therefore, A is the exception among the listed objectives.
A 16-year-old female client returns to the clinic because she is pregnant for the third time by a new boyfriend. Which vaccine should the nurse plan to administer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B, Hepatitis B. The Hepatitis B vaccine is crucial for pregnant women to prevent transmission of the virus to the baby during childbirth. Option A, MMR (Measles, Mumps, Rubella) vaccine, is not indicated during pregnancy. Option C, Human papillomavirus vaccine, is recommended for prevention of HPV infections but is not specifically indicated during pregnancy. Option D, Pneumococcal vaccine, is important for certain populations but is not the priority vaccine for a pregnant woman in this scenario.
In order to facilitate the planning and implementation of an income-generating project in a barangay, which of the following actions should the Public Health Nurse NOT do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Giving people complete freedom without any guidance or structure can lead to disorganization, lack of focus, and ultimately project failure. In the context of implementing an income-generating project, it is crucial to provide support, direction, and coordination to ensure the project's success. Forming working groups, enlisting technical professionals for training, and establishing a core group for coordination are essential steps to enhance efficiency, productivity, and the overall success of the project.
The nurse is teaching childbirth preparation classes. One woman asks about her rights to develop a birthing plan. Which response made by the nurse would be best?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Discussing the rights as a couple allows for open communication and helps ensure that the birthing plan aligns with the couple's preferences and medical advice.
A client is admitted with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which of the following lab values would be consistent with this diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Elevated creatinine phosphokinase (CPK). Elevated CPK levels indicate muscle damage, including damage to the cardiac muscle, which aligns with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Choice A, low serum albumin, is not directly related to myocardial infarction. Choice B, high serum cholesterol, is more associated with conditions like atherosclerosis rather than acute myocardial infarction. Choice C, abnormally low white blood cell count, is typically not a lab value associated with myocardial infarction; instead, it could suggest other conditions like infections or bone marrow issues.
The RN is serving on a medical center committee to update goals and protocols based on the national standards. Which goal most directly addresses the Healthy People 2020 initiative?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Provide access to health services.' This goal most directly addresses the Healthy People 2020 initiative, which aims to improve health care access for all individuals. Option A, 'Reduce ED wait time for indigent clients,' focuses on efficiency rather than access. Option B, 'Providing transportation for medically challenged clients,' addresses a specific need but does not cover overall health service access. Option D, 'Refer clients to local health department for medical services,' involves referral rather than direct access to services.
The nurse is caring for a 75-year-old client in congestive heart failure. Which finding suggests that digitalis levels should be reviewed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Extreme fatigue can be a sign of digitalis toxicity, especially in older adults, and warrants a review of the client's medication levels and potential adjustment. Increased appetite, intense itching, and constipation are not typically associated with digitalis toxicity and do not directly indicate a need for a review of digitalis levels.
Which of the following would be the best strategy for the nurse to use when teaching insulin injection techniques to a newly diagnosed client with diabetes?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best strategy for the nurse to use when teaching insulin injection techniques to a newly diagnosed client with diabetes is to observe a return demonstration. This method ensures that the client can correctly perform the technique. Providing written pre and post tests (choice A) may assess knowledge but not application. Asking questions during practice (choice B) may help with understanding but not necessarily with the actual performance. Allowing another diabetic to assist (choice C) may provide peer support but does not guarantee correct technique demonstration.
The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a client with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Which client complaint calls for immediate nursing action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Diaphoresis and shakiness are classic signs of hypoglycemia in a client with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Hypoglycemia is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The nurse should address this complaint promptly by providing a fast-acting source of glucose to raise the client's blood sugar levels. Reduced sensation in the lower leg may indicate peripheral neuropathy, which is a common complication of diabetes but does not require immediate action unless there are signs of injury. Intense thirst and hunger are symptoms of hyperglycemia, which also requires intervention but not as urgently as hypoglycemia. A painful hematoma on the thigh may require assessment and management, but it is not as urgent as addressing hypoglycemia.
Postoperative orders for a client undergoing a mitral valve replacement include monitoring pulmonary artery pressure together with pulmonary capillary wedge pressure with a pulmonary artery catheter. This action by the nurse will assess
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Left ventricular end-diastolic pressure. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is used to assess left ventricular end-diastolic pressure. This measurement provides valuable information on the filling pressure of the left ventricle. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because monitoring pulmonary capillary wedge pressure does not directly assess right ventricular pressure, acid-base balance, or coronary artery stability.
In formulating an objective of a community care plan, she expected results and people taking part in the activities should be clearly defined. This refers to an objective which is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'specific.' In formulating a community care plan, defining expected results and participant roles require objectives to be specific to provide clear guidance and outcomes. 'Time-bound' refers to setting deadlines, 'resource-oriented' focuses on utilizing available resources efficiently, and 'measurable' indicates the ability to quantify progress, but these aspects do not necessarily address the need for clarity and definition in defining expected results and participant roles.
What is the main objective of the Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The main objective of the Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) is to eliminate vaccine-preventable diseases. While providing healthcare to all individuals and reducing child mortality are important goals, the primary focus of EPI is specifically on preventing diseases through immunization. Promoting healthy lifestyles, although beneficial, is not the primary aim of the EPI.
The occupational health nurse is completing a yearly self-evaluation. Which activity should the nurse document as an example of proficient performance criteria in professionalism?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Maintaining chairmanship of the hospital nursing council demonstrates leadership and professionalism. This role involves overseeing and leading nursing activities at the hospital, showcasing a high level of responsibility and professionalism. Choices A, C, and D do not directly relate to demonstrating professionalism. Contributing money to a professional society, documenting the nursing process, or developing policy initiatives, while valuable activities, do not directly reflect the same level of leadership and professionalism as maintaining chairmanship.
A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving insulin glargine (Lantus). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin used to control blood sugar levels in diabetes. The nurse should monitor the client for hypoglycemia, which is a potential side effect of insulin therapy. Hypoglycemia occurs when blood sugar levels drop too low, leading to symptoms such as shakiness, dizziness, sweating, confusion, and in severe cases, loss of consciousness. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is an elevated potassium level, not typically associated with insulin glargine. Hypertension (choice C) is high blood pressure, which is not a common side effect of insulin glargine. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is an elevated calcium level and is not related to the use of insulin glargine.
The nurse is preparing an orientation class for new employees at an inner city clinic that serves a low-income population. Which information should the nurse include in the presentation to these new employees?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because addressing basic physiologic needs is crucial for low-income populations. Ensuring that basic needs such as food, shelter, and safety are met is essential for these clients to engage effectively in their healthcare. Choice A talks about transportation, which can be a barrier but may not be the major impediment. Choice C focuses on printed material and reading skills, which are important but not as fundamental as addressing basic physiologic needs. Choice D makes assumptions about client attendance based on compliance, which is not the most critical information to include in an orientation about serving a low-income population.
The process by which an individual gains knowledge and skills to improve their health and well-being is known as:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Health education. Health education is the process through which individuals acquire knowledge and skills to enhance their health and well-being. Health literacy (choice A) refers to the ability to understand and use health information, but it is not the same as the process of gaining knowledge and skills. Health promotion (choice C) involves advocating for health and implementing interventions to improve health outcomes, rather than the individual learning process. Health behavior (choice D) pertains to the actions individuals take regarding their health, not specifically the process of gaining knowledge and skills.
During a home visit for a family with a new baby, what should the nurse assess first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing feeding patterns is the priority during a home visit for a family with a new baby because it is crucial for the health and growth of the newborn. By evaluating the feeding patterns, the nurse can ensure that the baby is receiving adequate nutrition and address any feeding issues promptly. While sleeping arrangements, support system, and immunization status are important aspects to assess during a home visit, they are not as critical as ensuring the newborn's nutritional needs are being met.
The healthcare professional is planning a community health fair. Which of the following topics should be given the highest priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In planning a community health fair, the highest priority should be given to blood pressure screening. This is because hypertension is a common and serious health issue that often goes undetected. Identifying individuals with high blood pressure early can lead to timely interventions and management, potentially preventing severe complications such as heart disease or stroke. While topics like diabetes education, smoking cessation, and nutrition are important, addressing blood pressure screening first aligns with the goal of early detection and prevention of a prevalent health concern.
A client is scheduled to have a blood test for cholesterol and triglycerides the next day. The nurse would tell the client
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Fasting for at least 12 hours is necessary before a cholesterol and triglyceride test to ensure accurate results by avoiding fluctuations that can occur after eating. Choice A is incorrect because a fat-free diet is not required; fasting is. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests having the test right after eating, which can affect the results. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to stay at the laboratory for 2 blood samples unless specifically instructed by a healthcare provider.
A client with hypothyroidism is receiving levothyroxine (Synthroid). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. Levothyroxine, used to treat hypothyroidism, can lead to increased metabolism, causing tachycardia as a side effect. Monitoring for tachycardia is essential to ensure the client's safety. Choices B, Hypotension, and C, Weight gain, are incorrect as levothyroxine is not typically associated with causing hypotension or weight gain. Choice D, Bradycardia, is also incorrect as levothyroxine-induced bradycardia is not a common side effect.
What is the primary goal of community health nursing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The primary goal of community health nursing is to promote health and prevent disease. Community health nurses focus on preventive care, health promotion, and education to improve the overall health of the community. Providing care to the sick (Choice B) is part of nursing but not the primary goal of community health nursing. While research (Choice C) and developing health policies (Choice D) may be components of community health nursing, they are not the primary goal, which is centered around promoting health and preventing disease.
The nurse is administering the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 12-month-old child during the well-baby visit. Which age range should the nurse advise the parents to plan for their child to receive the MMR booster based on the current recommendations and guidelines by the Center for Disease Control (CDC)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: 4 to 6 years of age. The CDC recommends the MMR booster for children in this age group. Choice A (13 to 18 years of age) is incorrect as it is not the recommended age range for the MMR booster. Choice B (11 to 12 years of age) is also incorrect as it does not align with the CDC guidelines for the MMR booster. Choice C (18 to 24 months of age) is not the correct age range for the MMR booster according to CDC recommendations.
Which statement specifically describes occupational health nursing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Occupational health nursing involves all aspects mentioned in the statements: prevention, recognition, treatment of injury and illness, application of nursing principles in conserving workers' health, and the requirement of special skills in health, education, and counseling. Choice A focuses on prevention, recognition, and treatment but does not encompass all aspects of occupational health nursing. Choice C only mentions the application of nursing principles without including prevention and treatment. Choice D specifically highlights the need for special skills but does not cover all the aspects of occupational health nursing.
The nurse is reviewing a depressed client's history from an earlier admission. Documentation of anhedonia is noted. The nurse understands that this finding refers to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Lack of enjoyment in usual pleasures. Anhedonia is the inability to feel pleasure in normally pleasurable activities. Choice A, reports of difficulty falling and staying asleep, is more indicative of insomnia rather than anhedonia. Choice B, expression of persistent suicidal thoughts, is related to suicidal ideation and not anhedonia. Choice D, reduced senses of taste and smell, is more associated with disturbances in the sense of taste and smell, not anhedonia.
A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving baclofen (Lioresal). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Drowsiness. Baclofen, a muscle relaxant commonly used to treat conditions like multiple sclerosis, can cause drowsiness as a side effect. Monitoring for drowsiness is important to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because baclofen is not known to cause hypertension. Choice B, Muscle spasms, is not a common side effect of baclofen but rather the symptom it is used to treat. Choice D, Tachycardia, is also incorrect as baclofen is not associated with causing an increase in heart rate.
A client with peptic ulcer disease is receiving ranitidine (Zantac). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Diarrhea. Ranitidine, which is used to treat peptic ulcer disease, can lead to gastrointestinal disturbances such as diarrhea. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension and hypotension are not common side effects of ranitidine. Constipation is also not a typical side effect associated with ranitidine use.
A nurse is planning a nutrition class for a group of senior citizens at a community center and wants to emphasize the amount and types of fat in some foods versus others. What is the best teaching method for the nurse to use?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best teaching method for the nurse in this scenario is to determine the foods most often eaten by the group and discuss the nutritional panel of each product. This approach directly educates the seniors about the fat content in the foods they commonly consume, making the information more relevant and applicable to their daily lives. Choice A, displaying posters with foods, may not engage the seniors effectively or provide detailed information about fat content. Choice C, showing a movie about cooking with low-fat foods, may not address the specific fat content of the seniors' usual food choices. Choice D, asking seniors to bring foods for tasting and estimating fat content, could be subjective and less educational compared to discussing concrete nutritional information from food labels.
Who was the first Filipino nurse supervisor appointed in the Bureau of Health in 1919?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Mrs. Anastacio Giron-Tupas, who was the first Filipino nurse supervisor appointed in the Bureau of Health in 1919. Ms. Carmen del Rosario, Mrs. Genara de Guzman, and Mrs. Annie Sand were not the first Filipino nurse supervisors appointed to this position. Therefore, they are incorrect choices.
A client tells the nurse he is fearful of planned surgery because of evil thoughts about a family member. What is the best initial response by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to listen to the client. Listening allows the nurse to establish therapeutic communication, understand the client's fears and concerns, provide emotional support, and help alleviate anxiety. Calling a chaplain (Choice A) may be appropriate if the client requests spiritual support but should not be the initial response. Denying the feelings (Choice B) is dismissive and can hinder trust and communication. Citing recovery statistics (Choice C) is irrelevant and does not address the client's immediate emotional needs.
The nurse working in a community health clinic that serves recent Somali immigrants notes that most mothers refuse to give permission for routine immunizations of their preschoolers. Which individual is likely to have the most influence on these women's perceptions about their children's healthcare needs?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In many Somali communities, the tribal chief holds significant influence over health decisions. The tribal chief often plays a crucial role in shaping community beliefs and practices, including healthcare decisions. While husbands may have some influence, the tribal chief typically holds more authority in community matters. Clinic healthcare providers have a role in educating and advising, but the tribal chief's influence is often more profound in this cultural context. Older females may have some influence, especially in familial matters, but the tribal chief is usually the key decision-maker in community health issues.
A 6-month-old infant who is being treated for developmental dysplasia of the hip has been placed in a hip spica cast. The nurse should teach the parents to
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to check every few hours for the next day or 2 for swelling in the baby's feet. Swelling in the baby's feet could indicate compromised circulation due to the cast, and frequent checks are necessary to ensure that there are no complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because rubbing the skin with a cotton swab, placing favorite items in the crib, and turning the baby with the abduction stabilizer bar do not address the potential issue of compromised circulation and swelling in the baby's feet.
The public health RN is called to investigate a report of several cases of varicella at a daycare center. The daycare workers state that 5 children have been sent home over the past 2 weeks with fever and itchy blisters. Which intervention should the RN implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to validate that the children who were sent home had chickenpox. This is crucial in confirming the presence of varicella, which is necessary for appropriate management and control of the outbreak. Option B is not the first intervention because the focus initially is on verifying the cases within the daycare center. Option C is incorrect as it suggests a prolonged exclusion period without confirming the diagnosis. Option D is inappropriate and potentially harmful, as sending a child back without proper assessment can lead to further spread of the infection.
Building a healthy community is based on the following basic principles except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Building a healthy community is indeed based on principles like concreteness, group dynamics, and focusing on community-level change. However, stating that environmental factors are more basic than institutional factors is incorrect. Both environmental and institutional factors play crucial roles in community health. Environmental factors like access to healthcare, clean water, and safe housing are vital, while institutional factors such as healthcare systems, education, and governance also significantly impact community health. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as environmental factors are not more basic than institutional factors.
A Hispanic client confides in the nurse that she is concerned that staff may give her newborn the 'evil eye.' The nurse should communicate to other personnel that the appropriate approach is to
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In some Hispanic cultures, touching the baby after looking at them is believed to prevent the 'evil eye.' Respecting this cultural belief can help build trust and comfort with the client. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the specific cultural concern raised by the client. Talking slowly or avoiding touching the child does not relate to the belief in the 'evil eye.' Similarly, focusing only on the parents does not address the client's worry about the newborn receiving the 'evil eye.'
A female client makes routine visits to a neighborhood community health center. The nurse notes that this client often presents with facial bruising, particularly around the eyes. The nurse discusses prevention of domestic violence with the client even though the client does not admit to being battered. What level of prevention has the nurse applied in this situation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves identifying and addressing issues early to prevent further harm. In this scenario, the nurse is intervening by discussing domestic violence prevention with the client who is showing signs of facial bruising, aiming to prevent further harm even though the client has not disclosed being battered. Choice A (primary prevention) focuses on preventing the onset of a problem before it occurs, like educating about healthy relationships before violence happens. Choice C (tertiary prevention) involves managing and treating the effects of a problem that has already occurred, such as providing counseling to a domestic violence survivor. Choice D (health promotion) aims to enhance well-being and prevent health problems through educational and environmental interventions, which may include aspects of preventing domestic violence, but in this case, the nurse's direct intervention is more about early identification and prevention of harm, aligning it with secondary prevention.
Which of the following is not classified as an essential health service?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The provision of eyeglasses and dentures for the elderly is not classified as an essential health service. Essential health services typically focus on preventive, promotive, curative, and rehabilitative care that address the primary healthcare needs of individuals and communities. Choices B, C, and D are examples of essential health services as they directly contribute to improving and maintaining the health of populations. Maternal and child care, basic sanitation, disease prevention, nutrition promotion, safe water supply, and health education are essential components of public health initiatives.
Care provided by specialists in health facilities such as medical centers, regional, and provincial hospitals falls under which level of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Tertiary care is the correct answer because it involves specialized care provided by medical centers and regional or provincial hospitals. Primary care (Choice B) refers to basic healthcare services usually delivered by general practitioners, nurses, and other healthcare professionals. Secondary care (Choice A) involves specialized services provided by medical specialists and other health professionals who generally do not have first contact with patients. Intermediate care (Choice D) is not a recognized level of care in the typical healthcare system hierarchy; it may cause confusion as it's not a standard term used to describe levels of care.
What is a priority goal of involuntary hospitalization of the severely mentally ill client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Protection from harm to self or others.' Involuntary hospitalization is primarily aimed at ensuring the safety of the individual and others. Re-orientation to reality (choice A) may be a goal of treatment but not the primary goal of involuntary hospitalization. Elimination of symptoms (choice B) and development of self-care skills (choice D) are important aspects of treatment but are secondary to the immediate priority of ensuring safety in cases of severe mental illness.
Which of the following is a key component of community-based participatory research?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Involving community members in the research process.' Community-based participatory research emphasizes the active involvement of community members in all aspects of the research process, from identifying research questions to interpreting and disseminating results. Choice A is incorrect because community-based participatory research typically takes place in real-world settings, not in laboratories. Choice C is incorrect because community-based participatory research values a mix of quantitative and qualitative data. Choice D is incorrect because community input is essential in this research approach.
The organization of nurses employed in the DOH is the:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Philippine Nurses Association is the correct organization for nurses employed in the DOH. The Philippine Nurses Association is a professional organization that represents and serves the interests of Filipino nurses. The National League of Nurses focuses on nursing education and is not specific to nurses employed in the DOH. The Catholic Nurses Guild of the Philippines is a religious organization for Catholic nurses and is not directly linked to nurses employed in the DOH. MCNAP is not a known organization related to nursing in the context provided.
The family presents several problems. Which of the following criteria is considered in determining the priority health problem?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When determining the priority health problem within a family, one key criterion to consider is the modifiability of the problem. This means assessing whether the health issue can be changed or improved through interventions. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the priority of the health problem within the family. The expected consequence of the problem, cooperation and support of the family, and involvement of family members are important factors but do not specifically address the priority of the health issue based on modifiability.
What title should be given to this role in occupational health? An advanced practice nurse who provides workers with primary care services with an emphasis on the diagnosis and management of common acute illnesses/injuries and stable chronic diseases.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct title for this role is a clinician nurse practitioner as they provide primary care services, including diagnosing and managing illnesses. Choice A, case manager, typically focuses on coordinating care and services for patients. Choice B, nurse consultant, involves providing expert advice and guidance. Choice D, health promotion specialist, concentrates on promoting health and preventing diseases rather than diagnosing and treating illnesses.
Local health boards were established at the provincial, city, and municipal levels. At the municipal level, the chairman of the board is the:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, the municipal mayor. In the local health board structure, the municipal mayor chairs the board at the municipal level, overseeing health-related matters in that specific locality. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while a rural health physician or a public health nurse may be involved in health-related activities, they do not serve as the chairman of the board at the municipal level. Similarly, the chairman of the committee on health may have a role in health matters, but the municipal mayor holds the position of chairman of the local health board at the municipal level.
A client with rheumatoid arthritis is receiving methotrexate (Rheumatrex). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Leukopenia. Methotrexate, used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in leukopenia. This condition increases the risk of infections due to decreased white blood cell count. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because methotrexate is not known to cause hyperglycemia, hypertension, or hypokalemia as its primary adverse effects.
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