HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Quizlet
1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital. The client is experiencing difficulty breathing and is very anxious. The nurse notes that the client’s oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Place the client in a high Fowler’s position
- B. Administer supplemental oxygen
- C. Perform a thorough respiratory assessment
- D. Start an IV infusion of normal saline
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering supplemental oxygen is the first priority to address low oxygen saturation and ease breathing. In a client with COPD experiencing difficulty breathing and anxiety with oxygen saturation at 88%, providing supplemental oxygen takes precedence over other actions. Placing the client in a high Fowler’s position may help with breathing but does not address the immediate need for increased oxygenation. Performing a thorough respiratory assessment is important but should come after stabilizing the client's oxygen levels. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline is not the priority in this situation and does not directly address the client's respiratory distress.
2. When conducting diet teaching for a client who is on a postoperative full liquid diet, which foods should the nurse encourage the client to eat?
- A. Vanilla frozen yogurt
- B. Vegetable juice
- C. Clear beef broth
- D. Canned fruit cocktail
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer should be provided as choice E: Vanilla frozen yogurt. For a postoperative full liquid diet, the nurse should encourage the client to eat foods that are fully liquid and easy to digest. Vanilla frozen yogurt is a suitable choice as it provides calories and nutrients while being in a liquid form. Creamy peanut butter, vegetable juice, and canned fruit cocktail are not appropriate for a full liquid diet as they are not fully liquid and may not be easy to digest. Creamy peanut butter is solid, vegetable juice is not fully liquid, and canned fruit cocktail contains solid pieces.
3. When administering ceftriaxone sodium intravenously to a client before surgery, which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Headache
- B. Pruritus
- C. Nausea
- D. Stridor
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy breathing sound that can indicate a serious condition like airway obstruction or a severe allergic reaction, necessitating immediate intervention to maintain the client's airway and prevent further complications. While headache, pruritus, and nausea are important to assess and manage, they are not as immediately life-threatening as stridor, which requires prompt attention to prevent respiratory compromise.
4. On admission to the Emergency Department, a female client who was diagnosed with bipolar disorder 3 years ago reports that this morning she took a handful of medications and left a suicide note for her family. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. Which family member has the client's suicide note?
- B. When the client last took medications for bipolar disorder?
- C. What medications the client used for the suicide attempt?
- D. Whether the client has ever attempted suicide in the past?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Identifying the specific medications taken during a suicide attempt is crucial for determining the appropriate treatment and assessing the potential toxicity or interactions. This information helps healthcare providers initiate the necessary interventions promptly. Option A is not as critical as knowing the medications used. Option B focuses on the timing of the last medication intake rather than the specific drugs taken for the overdose. Option D, while relevant, does not provide immediate actionable information compared to identifying the substances involved in the suicide attempt.
5. What information should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan of a client with low back pain who is taking cyclobenzaprine to control muscle spasms?
- A. Take this medication with or without food
- B. Avoid using heat or ice on injured muscles while taking this medication
- C. Use cold and allergy medications only as directed by a healthcare provider
- D. Discontinue all nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use cold and allergy medications only as directed by a healthcare provider.' It is essential to inform the client not to self-medicate with cold and allergy medications or make changes without consulting a healthcare provider to prevent potential drug interactions or adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because cyclobenzaprine can be taken with or without food, so there is no specific requirement to take it on an empty stomach. Choice B is incorrect because using heat or ice on injured muscles while taking cyclobenzaprine is generally safe and can help with symptom management. Choice D is also incorrect because discontinuing nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider, but it is not a direct concern related to taking cyclobenzaprine for muscle spasms.
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