HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Quizlet
1. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for frequent hyperglycemic episodes and a glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) of 10%. Insulin glargine 10 units subcutaneously once a day at bedtime and a sliding scale with insulin aspart q6h are prescribed. What action should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care?
- A. Perform fingerstick glucose assessment q6h with meals
- B. Mix bedtime dose of insulin glargine with insulin aspart sliding scale dose
- C. Review proper foot care and prevention of injury with the client
- D. Avoid contaminating the insulin aspart for IV use
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Performing fingerstick glucose assessments q6h with meals is essential in monitoring the client's blood glucose levels closely, especially when managing hyperglycemic episodes and adjusting insulin doses with a sliding scale. This action helps in determining the effectiveness of the prescribed insulin regimen. Reviewing proper foot care and preventing injury is important for long-term diabetic management but not the immediate priority in this scenario. Mixing insulin glargine with insulin aspart is not recommended, as they are different types of insulin with distinct mechanisms of action. Ensuring the availability of insulin aspart for IV use is not relevant to the client's current care plan.
2. A client receives a prescription for acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) 1.4 grams per nasogastric tube q4 hours. Acetylcysteine is available as a 10% solution (10 grams/100ml). How many ml of the 10% solution should the nurse administer per dose?
- A. 7
- B. 10
- C. 14
- D. 1.4 grams of acetylcysteine is equivalent to 14 ml of a 10% solution.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To determine the amount of the 10% acetylcysteine solution to administer, convert the 1.4 grams to milligrams (1.4 grams = 1400 mg). Then, as the 10% solution contains 10 grams (10,000 mg) per 100 ml, it means there are 1000 mg of acetylcysteine in every 10 ml of the solution (10,000 mg / 100 ml = 100 mg/ml). Therefore, to administer 1400 mg (1.4 grams) of acetylcysteine, the nurse should give 14 ml of the 10% solution. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not accurately convert the amount of acetylcysteine to the corresponding volume of the 10% solution.
3. To evaluate the client's therapeutic response to lactulose for signs of hepatic encephalopathy, which assessment should the nurse obtain?
- A. Level of consciousness
- B. Percussion of abdomen
- C. Serum electrolytes
- D. Blood glucose
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Level of consciousness. Monitoring the client's level of consciousness is essential in evaluating the effectiveness of lactulose in treating hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose helps reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the stool, thereby improving the client's mental status. Assessing the client's level of consciousness helps determine if the medication is effectively managing hepatic encephalopathy symptoms. Choices B, percussion of the abdomen, and D, blood glucose, are not directly related to evaluating the therapeutic response to lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy. Choice C, serum electrolytes, while important in overall patient care, is not the primary assessment to determine lactulose's effectiveness in treating hepatic encephalopathy.
4. An adult male with a 6 cm thoracic aneurysm is being prepared for surgery. The nurse reports to the healthcare provider that the client’s blood pressure is 220/112 mmHg, so an antihypertensive agent is added to the client’s IV infusion. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Reports a tearing, sharp pain between his shoulder blades
- B. Blood pressure reading of 200/100 mmHg 15 minutes later
- C. Rose-colored urine draining from the urinary catheter
- D. Sinus tachycardia with frequent premature ventricular beats (PVC)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A tearing, sharp pain between the shoulder blades may indicate aortic dissection, a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. This symptom is highly concerning in a patient with a thoracic aneurysm. Choice B is not as urgent as the pain symptom described in choice A. Choice C could indicate hematuria but is not as critical as the potential aortic dissection in choice A. Choice D, sinus tachycardia with PVCs, may be related to the patient's condition but is not as indicative of an immediate life-threatening situation as the tearing, sharp pain indicative of aortic dissection.
5. A female client with borderline personality disorder is being discharged today. During morning rounds, the client complains about the aloofness of the night shift nurse and expresses joy to see the nurse on duty. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client’s dichotomous tendency?
- A. I am glad you like me. Which nurse was acting aloof to you?
- B. Tomorrow I will talk to that nurse about how you were treated last night.
- C. What did the night nurse do that makes you think she is aloof?
- D. I am happy that you are getting better and will be able to go home.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the best response as it acknowledges the client's feelings while exploring their concerns. By asking which nurse was acting aloof, the nurse shows understanding and allows the client to express their feelings further. This response validates the client's emotions and fosters a therapeutic relationship. Choice B focuses on a future action without addressing the immediate concern at hand. Choice C seeks clarification on the night nurse's behavior, which is a good approach but lacks the personal touch of Choice A. Choice D shifts the focus away from the client's current feelings and concerns, missing the opportunity to address the dichotomous thinking displayed by the client.
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