Free HESI LPN CAT Exams practice for HESI CAT Exam Quizlet (HESI LPN). Answer 97 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress tracking
A client with leukemia who is receiving myelosuppressive chemotherapy has a platelet count of 25,000/mm3. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to assess urine and stool for occult blood. With a low platelet count, there is an increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring for occult blood is essential to detect any signs of internal bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are not the priority interventions in this situation. While monitoring for signs of activity intolerance, requiring visitors to wear respiratory masks, and obtaining the client's temperature are important aspects of care, they are not as critical as assessing for occult blood in a client with a low platelet count.
After a sudden loss of consciousness, a female client is taken to the ED, and initial assessment indicates that her blood glucose level is critically low. Once her glucose level is stabilized, the client reports that she was recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and is being treated at an outpatient clinic. Which intervention is more important to include in this client's discharge plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Continuing outpatient treatment is crucial for managing anorexia nervosa and preventing future complications. Reinforcing the need to continue outpatient treatment ensures ongoing support, monitoring, and therapy for the client's anorexia nervosa. Describing the importance of maintaining stable blood glucose levels (Choice A) is relevant but does not address the underlying eating disorder directly. Encouraging a balanced and nutritious diet (Choice B) is important; however, specific dietary recommendations should be tailored to the individual's condition by healthcare providers. Educating on the risks of untreated anorexia nervosa (Choice D) is informative but does not provide a direct actionable step for the client's immediate discharge plan, unlike the importance of continuing outpatient treatment.
The nurse enters the room of a client who is awaiting surgery for appendicitis. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) has helped the client to a position of comfort with the right leg flexed and has applied a heating pad to the client's abdomen to relieve the client's pain. Which action should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to remove the heating pad. Heating pads should not be used for suspected appendicitis as they can mask symptoms and potentially worsen inflammation. Choice B is not the priority as the position of comfort chosen by the UAP may be appropriate. Monitoring for signs of inflammation (Choice C) is important but not the initial action to address the immediate issue of the heating pad. Assessing the client's pain level (Choice D) can be done after removing the heating pad to evaluate the effectiveness of pain relief measures.
When educating a group of school-age children on reducing the risk of Lyme disease, which instruction should the camp nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction to reduce the risk of Lyme disease is to wear long sleeves and pants. This helps prevent tick bites, which are the primary mode of transmission for Lyme disease. Wearing protective clothing reduces the skin's exposure to ticks, decreasing the chances of getting bitten. Washing hands frequently (Choice A) is important for general hygiene but not specifically for preventing Lyme disease. Avoiding drinking lake water (Choice B) is unrelated to the prevention of Lyme disease. Not sharing personal products (Choice D) is important for preventing the spread of infections but does not directly reduce the risk of Lyme disease.
Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care for a client receiving acyclovir (Zovirax) IV for treatment of herpes zoster (shingles)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Monitor serum creatinine levels. Acyclovir can lead to nephrotoxicity, making it essential to monitor kidney function through serum creatinine levels. While cardiac telemetry monitoring (choice A) and maintaining continuous pulse oximetry (choice B) are important in certain conditions, they are not directly related to acyclovir therapy for herpes zoster. Performing capillary glucose measurements (choice C) is not a priority when administering acyclovir for herpes zoster. Monitoring serum creatinine levels is crucial to detect any potential renal issues early, as the drug's nephrotoxic potential requires close monitoring of kidney function.
The healthcare provider believes that a client who frequently requests pain medication may have a substance abuse problem. Which intervention reflects the healthcare provider's value of client autonomy over veracity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering the prescribed analgesic when requested is the most appropriate intervention that reflects the healthcare provider's value of client autonomy over veracity. This action respects the client's right to manage their pain and avoids deception. Referring the client to a substance abuse program (Choice B) assumes a diagnosis without evidence and does not respect the client's autonomy. Collaborating to provide a placebo (Choice C) would involve deception, which goes against the value of veracity. Documenting the frequency of medication requests (Choice D) is important for the client's care but does not directly address the issue of respecting client autonomy over veracity.
A high school football player comes to the clinic complaining of severe acne. The mother reports recent behavior changes, including irritability and suspiciousness of friends. The nurse's assessment reveals an elevated blood pressure. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the high school football player presenting with severe acne, behavior changes, elevated blood pressure, and suspicion of friends suggests the possible use of anabolic steroids. Anabolic steroid use can lead to such symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should first inquire about the possible use of anabolic steroids to address the root cause of the presenting issues. Encouraging the client to see a dermatologist (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the underlying cause is crucial first. Referring the adolescent to a substance abuse program (Choice B) is premature without confirming steroid use. Suggesting a low-salt, low-fat, and caffeine-free diet (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation where a serious issue like anabolic steroid use needs immediate attention.
When taking a health history of a client admitted with acute pancreatitis, which client complaint should be expected?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Severe mid-epigastric pain after ingesting a heavy meal.' This symptom is characteristic of acute pancreatitis due to inflammation of the pancreas, which often presents with severe pain in the mid-epigastric region that may worsen after eating. Choices A, B, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. A low-grade fever and left lower abdominal pain (Choice A) may be more indicative of other conditions like diverticulitis. Severe headache and sweating (Choice B) are commonly seen in conditions like migraines or infections. Dull, continuous, right lower quadrant pain and nausea (Choice D) could be suggestive of appendicitis rather than acute pancreatitis.
A heparin infusion is prescribed for a client who weighs 220 pounds. After administering a bolus dose of 80 units/kg, the nurse calculates the infusion rate for the heparin sodium at 18 units/kg/hour. The available solution is Heparin Sodium 25,000 units in 5% Dextrose Injection 250 ml. The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the infusion rate, first, find the total dose required per hour, which is the patient's weight (220 pounds) multiplied by the prescribed rate (18 units/kg/hour). This equals 3960 units/hour. Next, determine how many ml of the solution contain 25,000 units; this is 250 ml. Divide the total dose required per hour (3960 units) by the units per ml (25,000 units/250 ml) to find how many ml are needed per hour. This results in 27 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 27 ml/hour. Choice A (18) is incorrect as it does not account for the concentration of the heparin solution. Choices C (36) and D (45) are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculations based on the patient's weight and the heparin concentration in the solution.
A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106 mmHg and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him feel bad. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Stroke secondary to hemorrhage. Hypertension increases the risk of stroke due to the stress and damage it causes to blood vessels, which can lead to hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect because acute kidney injury is more commonly associated with chronic uncontrolled hypertension, not acute elevations. Choice C is incorrect as heart block is not a direct consequence of hypertension. Choice D is incorrect as hypertension does not directly cause cataracts leading to blindness.
A college student brings a dorm roommate to the campus clinic because the roommate has been talking to someone who is not present. The client tells the nurse that her voices are saying, "Kill, Kill." What question should the nurse ask the client next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing whether the client has a plan to act on the voices is critical for evaluating the risk of harm. Asking if the client is planning to obey the voices helps determine the immediate safety concerns. While understanding when the voices began could provide insight into the situation, assessing the intent to act on them is more urgent. Asking about hallucinogen use may be relevant but does not address the immediate safety issue. Inquiring about the client's belief in the reality of the voices is important but does not address the immediate risk of harm.
The client who had a below-the-knee (BKA) amputation is being prepared for discharge to home. Which recommendation should the nurse provide this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct recommendation for a client with a below-the-knee amputation preparing for discharge is to wash the stump with soap and water. This helps maintain cleanliness and prevent infection. Inspecting the skin for redness is important to monitor for signs of infection, but it is not a specific recommendation for a BKA amputation. Using a residual limb shrinker can aid in shaping and reducing swelling in the residual limb but is not usually done immediately after a BKA amputation. Applying alcohol to the stump after bathing is not recommended as it can lead to skin irritation and dryness.
What should the nurse monitor for during the IV infusion of vasopressin (Pitressin) in a client with bleeding esophageal varices?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During the IV infusion of vasopressin in a client with bleeding esophageal varices, the nurse should monitor for chest pain and dysrhythmia. Vasopressin is a vasoconstrictor that can cause cardiovascular effects, including chest pain and dysrhythmias. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as vasopressin is not expected to cause vasodilatation of the extremities, hypotension, tachycardia, or improvements in GI symptoms such as cramping and nausea.
The nurse is evaluating a client who has had a mastectomy and is experiencing pain and swelling in the arm on the affected side. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing for signs of lymphedema is crucial in this situation as it is a common complication following mastectomy. Lymphedema presents as swelling and pain in the affected arm due to compromised lymphatic drainage. By assessing for lymphedema, the nurse can identify the condition early and implement appropriate interventions such as compression sleeves, manual lymphatic drainage, and exercises. Encouraging arm exercises (Choice B) may exacerbate the symptoms if lymphedema is present. While providing pain relief through medication (Choice C) is important, assessing for the underlying cause of pain and swelling takes precedence. Recommending a compression sleeve (Choice D) may be suitable but should come after a thorough assessment for lymphedema to ensure the most effective management plan.
A female client reports she has not had a bowel movement for 3 days, but now is defecating frequent small amounts of liquid stool. Which action should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Digitally check the client for a fecal impaction. Small, frequent liquid stools following constipation may indicate a fecal impaction. This intervention is crucial to assess and address a potential impaction promptly. Choices B, increasing fluid intake, and C, providing a high-fiber diet, may help with bowel regularity in general cases, but they don't directly address the urgent concern of a possible impaction. Choice D, administering a stool softener, is not appropriate as the first action when a fecal impaction is suspected; it could worsen the condition by causing further liquid stool output without addressing the impaction.
After administering a proton pump inhibitor (PPI), which action should the nurse take to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Ask the client about gastrointestinal pain. The effectiveness of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is best evaluated by assessing the relief of gastrointestinal symptoms, such as heartburn, acid reflux, or stomach pain. These medications work by reducing the production of stomach acid, so improvement in these symptoms indicates the effectiveness of the PPI. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly reflect the effectiveness of a PPI. Measuring fluid intake and output, monitoring serum electrolyte levels, and auscultating for bowel sounds are important for assessing hydration status, electrolyte balance, and gastrointestinal motility, respectively. However, they are not specific to evaluating PPI effectiveness.
A client is admitted for an exacerbation of heart failure (HF) and is being treated with diuretics for fluid volume excess. In planning nursing care, which interventions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct interventions to include when a client with heart failure is being treated with diuretics for fluid volume excess are to observe for evidence of hypokalemia. Diuretics can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring for this electrolyte imbalance is crucial. Encouraging oral fluid intake of 3,000 ml/day may exacerbate fluid volume excess in a client with heart failure. Teaching the client how to restrict dietary sodium is important in managing heart failure, but it is not directly related to the use of diuretics for fluid volume excess. Monitoring PTT, PT, and INR lab values is not typically associated with diuretic therapy for heart failure but rather with anticoagulant therapy.
The healthcare provider prescribes amoxicillin (Amoxil) 1.5 grams PO daily, in equally divided doses to be administered every 8 hours. The medication is available in a bottle labeled, "Amoxicillin (Amoxil) suspension 200 mg/5 ml." How many ml should the nurse administer every 8 hours? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the amount in ml that the nurse should administer every 8 hours, first, determine the amount of amoxicillin needed per dose. 1.5 grams daily divided by 3 doses equals 0.5 grams per dose. Since 0.5 grams is equivalent to 500 mg (1 gram = 1000 mg), and each 5 ml of the suspension contains 200 mg of amoxicillin, the nurse needs to administer (500 mg / 200 mg) * 5 ml = 12.5 ml every 8 hours. Therefore, the correct answer is 12.5 ml. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided information.
While eating at a restaurant, a gravid woman begins to choke and is unable to speak. What action should the nurse who witnesses the event take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when a pregnant woman is choking and unable to speak is to perform the Heimlich maneuver using subdiaphragmatic thrusts. This technique is recommended for a pregnant woman to prevent harm to the fetus. Option A, cardiopulmonary resuscitation with uterine tilt, is not indicated for a choking episode. Option B, the Heimlich maneuver using chest thrusts, can potentially harm the gravid uterus. Option D, calling 911 immediately before providing assistance, can lead to a delay in addressing the immediate choking emergency.
A young female adult wanders into the Emergency Department. She is disheveled and confused and states, 'My date must have put something in my drink. He took my car, and I think he raped me. I don't exactly remember, but I know he hurt me.' How should the nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response is to encourage the patient to share more about what she remembers. This approach helps gather crucial information, supports the patient in a non-judgmental manner, and allows the nurse to provide appropriate care. Choice A has been revised to be more sensitive by asking about resistance when feeling uncomfortable rather than placing blame. Choice B has been adjusted to show empathy and request more details without questioning the patient's account. Choice C, although empathetic, does not address the immediate need to collect information and support the patient.
When admitting a client diagnosed with active tuberculosis to isolation, which infection control measures should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Negative pressure environment. Tuberculosis is transmitted through airborne particles, so a negative pressure room is essential to prevent the spread of the bacteria. Choice B, contact precautions, are used for infections spread by direct or indirect contact, not for tuberculosis. Choice C, droplet precautions, are for infections transmitted through respiratory droplets, not airborne particles like tuberculosis. Choice D, protective environment, is used for protecting immunocompromised patients from outside pathogens, not for preventing the spread of tuberculosis.
After a motor vehicle collision, a client is admitted to the medical unit with acute adrenal insufficiency (Addisonian crisis). Which prescription should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with acute adrenal insufficiency (Addisonian crisis) following a motor vehicle collision, the priority intervention is to administer IV corticosteroid replacement. This is crucial to manage the crisis by replacing the deficient cortisol. Determining serum glucose levels (Choice A) may be important but is not the immediate priority in this situation. Withholding potassium additives to IV fluids (Choice B) is not indicated and may exacerbate electrolyte imbalances. Initiating IV vasopressors (Choice D) is not the primary treatment for acute adrenal insufficiency and should be reserved for managing hypotension that is unresponsive to corticosteroid therapy.
In the Emergency Department, a female client discloses that she was raped last night. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important question for the nurse to ask in this situation is whether the client knows the person who raped her. This question is crucial for assessing additional safety concerns, providing appropriate support, and determining the need for forensic evidence collection. Choices B, C, and D are not as critical in the immediate assessment and response to a rape victim. Asking about bathing, the safety of her home, or reporting to the police may be important but are secondary to identifying the perpetrator for safety and legal reasons.
Which client requires careful nursing assessment for signs and symptoms of hypomagnesemia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Vomiting can lead to significant loss of magnesium, causing hypomagnesemia. In this scenario, the young adult client with intractable vomiting from food poisoning is at higher risk of developing hypomagnesemia due to the loss of magnesium through vomiting. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to present with hypomagnesemia. Hyperparathyroidism (B) is associated with hypercalcemia, renal failure (C) can lead to hypermagnesemia, and overconsumption of simple carbohydrates (D) is not directly linked to magnesium imbalances.
A client is admitted to a medical unit with the diagnosis of gastritis and chronic heavy alcohol abuse. What should the nurse administer to prevent the development of Wernicke's syndrome?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Thiamine supplementation is critical in preventing Wernicke's syndrome, especially in clients with chronic alcohol use. Wernicke's syndrome is a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome. Famotidine is an H2 blocker used to reduce stomach acid production but does not prevent Wernicke's syndrome. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used for hypertension and angina, not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome.
A new mother asks the nurse if the newborn infant has an infection because the healthcare provider prescribed a blood test called the TORCH screen test. Which response should the nurse offer to the mother's inquiry?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The TORCH screen test is used to detect infections that can affect the newborn by showing if there was exposure to these infections. Choice A is incorrect because the TORCH screen test is not specifically for identifying the etiology of neuro-sensory birth defects. Choice B is incorrect because the test does not determine the risk for inherited anomalies. Choice C is incorrect because the test is not used to identify the correct antibiotic for an infection, but rather to detect infections that may have affected the newborn.
The nurse is caring for a comatose client. Which assessment finding provides the greatest indication that the client has an open airway?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: "Bilateral breath sounds can be auscultated." This finding indicates that air is moving adequately in and out of both lungs, confirming an open airway. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Asymmetrical chest expansion may indicate lung or chest wall abnormalities, percussion revealing dullness over the lung area may suggest consolidation or fluid, and turning the client q2h is a position change intervention to prevent complications, not a direct assessment of airway patency.
The healthcare provider is completing a head-to-toe assessment for a client admitted for observation after falling out of a tree. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the healthcare provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clear fluid leaking from the nose is concerning for cerebrospinal fluid leakage, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Sluggish pupillary response to light may indicate neurological issues but is not as urgent as CSF leakage. Complaint of severe headache is important but not as critical as the possibility of CSF leakage. Periorbital ecchymosis of the right eye could be indicative of trauma but does not pose an immediate threat to the patient's life.
The healthcare provider receives a report on four clients who are complaining of increased pain. Which client requires immediate attention by the healthcare provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Sharp pain related to a crushed femur indicates a severe condition and potential serious complications that require immediate attention. Crushed femur can lead to severe bleeding, nerve damage, or compartment syndrome, which are critical and life-threatening. The other choices, although painful, are less likely to present immediate life-threatening issues. Morton's neuroma, carpal tunnel syndrome, and plantar fasciitis are painful conditions but are not typically associated with urgent, life-threatening complications like a crushed femur.
In a client in her third trimester of pregnancy, an S3 heart sound is auscultated. What intervention should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An S3 heart sound can be a normal finding in pregnancy due to increased blood volume and flow. In this scenario, there is no immediate need for further interventions. Documenting this finding in the client's record is essential for tracking the client's health status and ensuring proper follow-up if needed. Notifying the healthcare provider, limiting fluids, or preparing for an echocardiogram is unnecessary as it is likely a physiological finding in pregnancy. These interventions should only be considered if other symptoms suggestive of a cardiac issue are present.
In preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure, the nurse notes that the client's B-Type Naturetic peptide (BNP) is elevated. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Elevated BNP levels in a client with heart failure may indicate worsening heart failure. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take when encountering an elevated BNP before administering furosemide is to hold the dose and contact the healthcare provider for further guidance. This precaution is necessary to ensure the client's safety and prevent potential complications. Options A and B are incorrect as they do not address the issue of the elevated BNP, which is crucial in this situation. Option C is also incorrect because administering furosemide without consulting the healthcare provider could be harmful if the client's condition is deteriorating.
A female client tells the clinic nurse that she has doubts about binge eating but cannot make herself vomit after meals. Which action by the nurse provides data to support the suspected diagnosis of bulimia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Inquiring about laxative and diuretic use helps confirm bulimia as these are common behaviors associated with the disorder. Asking the client to complete a food diary (Choice A) may provide information on eating patterns but does not directly support the diagnosis of bulimia. Reviewing lab data (Choice B) for thyroid function is not specific to bulimia. Encouraging the client to describe her exercise regimen (Choice D) may be relevant for overall health assessment but does not specifically address bulimia symptoms.
During a well-child check-up, what respiratory assessment finding should the nurse anticipate in a 3-year-old?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A resting respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute is within the expected range for a 3-year-old child. This is considered normal in this age group as their respiratory rate is generally higher compared to adults. Bronchovesicular breath sounds in the peripheral lung fields are not an expected finding in a 3-year-old. Retractions in the intercostal spaces with each inspiration indicate increased work of breathing and are abnormal. High-pitched whistling sounds over the bronchi are characteristic of wheezing, which is not typically expected in a healthy 3-year-old during a routine check-up.
A client with diabetic peripheral neuropathy has been taking pregabalin for 4 days. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Reduced level of pain.' Pregabalin is used to manage neuropathic pain, so a reduction in pain indicates the medication's effectiveness in this case. Granulating tissue in a foot ulcer and the full volume of a pedal pulse are not direct indicators of pregabalin's effectiveness in managing neuropathic pain. Improved visual activity is not related to the effects of pregabalin in diabetic peripheral neuropathy.
The nurse working on a mental health unit is prioritizing nursing care activities due to a staffing shortage. One practical nurse (PN) is on the unit with the nurse, and another RN is expected to arrive within two hours. Clients need to be awakened, and morning medications need to be prepared. Which plan is best for the nurse to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best plan for the nurse to implement is to ask the PN to administer medications as clients are awakened. This approach ensures that medication administration and client care are efficiently managed despite the staffing shortage. Option A is incorrect as it may disrupt the workflow and create unnecessary chaos. Option B is not the best choice as it does not address the immediate need for medication administration. Option D is not ideal as it delays client care until additional staff arrive, potentially compromising patient safety and timely medication administration.
After removing an IV that became infiltrated in the client's left forearm, which site should the nurse select as a possible site to insert another IV catheter?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Right hand. When an IV becomes infiltrated in the client's left forearm, it is essential to avoid the same side due to the risk of complications. Therefore, the right hand is a suitable alternative site for IV insertion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choosing the right forearm (B) would still be on the same side, which increases the risk of complications. The left hand (C) is not a preferred option immediately after an infiltration in the left forearm. The right subclavian (D) is an invasive site typically reserved for central line placement and not a first-line choice for IV insertion.
A 12-year-old client who had an appendectomy two days ago is receiving 0.9% normal saline at 50 ml/hour. The client's urine specific gravity is 1.035. What action should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging fluids helps address dehydration and potentially high urine specific gravity, which is often related to inadequate fluid intake. In this scenario, the client may be at risk of dehydration due to the appendectomy and the high urine specific gravity. Encouraging popsicles and fluids of choice can help increase fluid intake and improve hydration status. The other options are not the priority at this time. Postural blood pressure measurements may be relevant for assessing fluid status but are not the immediate action needed. Obtaining a specimen for urinalysis and assessing bowel sounds are not the priority actions based on the client's condition.
When administering ceftriaxone sodium intravenously to a client before surgery, which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy breathing sound that can indicate a serious condition like airway obstruction or a severe allergic reaction, necessitating immediate intervention to maintain the client's airway and prevent further complications. While headache, pruritus, and nausea are important to assess and manage, they are not as immediately life-threatening as stridor, which requires prompt attention to prevent respiratory compromise.
While assessing an older client's fall risk, the client tells the nurse that they live at home alone and have never fallen. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse in this scenario is to continue obtaining client data to complete the fall risk survey. This approach will help in conducting a comprehensive assessment of the client's risk factors. Placing the client on a high fall risk protocol solely based on age without a thorough assessment is premature and can lead to unnecessary interventions. Informing the client about falls in the hospital does not address the client's individual risk factors and is not relevant to the current assessment. Recording a minimal risk for falls based only on the client's statement may overlook other potential risk factors that need to be evaluated.
A school nurse is called to the soccer field because a child has a nosebleed (epistaxis). In what position should the nurse place the child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct position for a child with a nosebleed (epistaxis) is sitting up and leaning forward. This position helps prevent blood from flowing into the throat and causing choking. Choice B, reclining with the head elevated, and choice D, lying flat on the back, are incorrect as they can cause blood to flow backward into the throat. Choice C, sitting up with the head tilted back, is also incorrect as it can lead to blood flowing down the back of the throat and potentially into the airway.
Which instruction is most important for the client who receives a new prescription for risedronate sodium to treat osteoporosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important instruction for a client receiving risedronate sodium to treat osteoporosis is to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. Risedronate sodium can cause esophageal irritation, and staying upright helps prevent this side effect. While increasing vitamin D intake, starting a low-impact exercise routine, and taking the medication with a full glass of water are all beneficial for managing osteoporosis, the immediate need is to prevent esophageal irritation caused by risedronate sodium.
To evaluate the client's therapeutic response to lactulose for signs of hepatic encephalopathy, which assessment should the nurse obtain?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Level of consciousness. Monitoring the client's level of consciousness is essential in evaluating the effectiveness of lactulose in treating hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose helps reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the stool, thereby improving the client's mental status. Assessing the client's level of consciousness helps determine if the medication is effectively managing hepatic encephalopathy symptoms. Choices B, percussion of the abdomen, and D, blood glucose, are not directly related to evaluating the therapeutic response to lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy. Choice C, serum electrolytes, while important in overall patient care, is not the primary assessment to determine lactulose's effectiveness in treating hepatic encephalopathy.
The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) has applied a gown and gloves and secured the tops of the gloves over the gown sleeves. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Proper application of personal protective equipment (PPE) is crucial to maintain infection control. In this scenario, the nurse should help the UAP reposition the gown sleeve over the gloves' edges. This action ensures that the gown properly covers the gloves, reducing the risk of contamination. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the primary concern is to address the improper application of PPE by repositioning the gown sleeves over the gloves, not checking other aspects of PPE or reminding about hand hygiene.
The nurse is planning care for a client with end-stage lung cancer. The client expresses concern about ongoing pain management. Which nursing action is most appropriate to include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Consulting the healthcare provider for recommendations on pain management is the most appropriate action. The healthcare provider can assess the client's pain, prescribe appropriate medications, and adjust the pain management plan as needed. In end-stage cancer, managing pain often requires pharmacological interventions that the healthcare provider can best provide. Physical therapy (choice B) may not be the primary intervention for pain management in end-stage cancer. While attending a support group (choice C) can provide emotional support, it does not directly address the client's pain management concerns. Suggesting alternative therapies (choice D) is not the initial step; consulting the healthcare provider should come first to ensure a comprehensive and tailored pain management plan.
The nurse is assessing an older adult with type 2 diabetes. Which assessment finding indicates that the client understands long-term control of diabetes?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An A1C level of 6.5% indicates good long-term control of diabetes as it reflects the average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months. Monitoring fasting blood sugar provides immediate information about the current blood sugar level, while the absence of urine ketones indicates short-term control. Although the absence of diabetic ketoacidosis is positive, it doesn't specifically reflect long-term control like the A1C level does.
During discharge teaching, the nurse discusses the parameters for weight monitoring with a client recently diagnosed with heart failure (HF). Which information is most important for the client to acknowledge?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Reporting a weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours is crucial for detecting fluid retention or worsening heart failure. This rapid weight gain indicates possible fluid overload, which can be a sign of worsening HF. Option A is not as critical as the timing of weighing can vary. Option C is important for tracking trends but does not emphasize the significance of a sudden weight gain. Option D is relevant for managing HF but does not address the immediate need for reporting rapid weight gain.
A client recovering from abdominal surgery is on a clear liquid diet. The nurse should identify which of the following as the most appropriate food choice for this diet?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Grape juice is the most appropriate choice for a clear liquid diet as it is a transparent fluid that is easily digested. Clear liquid diets aim to provide fluids and electrolytes while being easy on the digestive system. Choices A, C, and D are not suitable for a clear liquid diet as they are not in liquid form or do not meet the criteria of being easily digestible for someone recovering from abdominal surgery. Chicken noodle soup, cream of wheat, and vanilla pudding are not considered clear liquids and may not be well-tolerated by a client who has undergone abdominal surgery.
The charge nurse of a cardiac telemetry unit is assigning client care to a registered nurse (RN) and a practical nurse (PN). Which client should be assigned to the RN?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because complete heart block is a critical condition that requires immediate assessment and management by a registered nurse (RN). In complete heart block, there is a significant conduction disturbance that can lead to serious complications. The RN is better equipped to handle such complex and potentially life-threatening situations. Choices A, B, and C involve less critical conditions that can be managed by a practical nurse (PN) under the supervision of the RN. Therefore, assigning the client with complete heart block to the RN ensures prompt and appropriate intervention.
A client with leukemia who is receiving myelosuppressive chemotherapy has a platelet count of 25,000/mm3. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to assess urine and stool for occult blood. With a low platelet count, there is an increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring for occult blood is essential to detect any signs of internal bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are not the priority interventions in this situation. While monitoring for signs of activity intolerance, requiring visitors to wear respiratory masks, and obtaining the client's temperature are important aspects of care, they are not as critical as assessing for occult blood in a client with a low platelet count.
After a sudden loss of consciousness, a female client is taken to the ED, and initial assessment indicates that her blood glucose level is critically low. Once her glucose level is stabilized, the client reports that she was recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and is being treated at an outpatient clinic. Which intervention is more important to include in this client's discharge plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Continuing outpatient treatment is crucial for managing anorexia nervosa and preventing future complications. Reinforcing the need to continue outpatient treatment ensures ongoing support, monitoring, and therapy for the client's anorexia nervosa. Describing the importance of maintaining stable blood glucose levels (Choice A) is relevant but does not address the underlying eating disorder directly. Encouraging a balanced and nutritious diet (Choice B) is important; however, specific dietary recommendations should be tailored to the individual's condition by healthcare providers. Educating on the risks of untreated anorexia nervosa (Choice D) is informative but does not provide a direct actionable step for the client's immediate discharge plan, unlike the importance of continuing outpatient treatment.
The nurse enters the room of a client who is awaiting surgery for appendicitis. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) has helped the client to a position of comfort with the right leg flexed and has applied a heating pad to the client's abdomen to relieve the client's pain. Which action should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to remove the heating pad. Heating pads should not be used for suspected appendicitis as they can mask symptoms and potentially worsen inflammation. Choice B is not the priority as the position of comfort chosen by the UAP may be appropriate. Monitoring for signs of inflammation (Choice C) is important but not the initial action to address the immediate issue of the heating pad. Assessing the client's pain level (Choice D) can be done after removing the heating pad to evaluate the effectiveness of pain relief measures.
When educating a group of school-age children on reducing the risk of Lyme disease, which instruction should the camp nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction to reduce the risk of Lyme disease is to wear long sleeves and pants. This helps prevent tick bites, which are the primary mode of transmission for Lyme disease. Wearing protective clothing reduces the skin's exposure to ticks, decreasing the chances of getting bitten. Washing hands frequently (Choice A) is important for general hygiene but not specifically for preventing Lyme disease. Avoiding drinking lake water (Choice B) is unrelated to the prevention of Lyme disease. Not sharing personal products (Choice D) is important for preventing the spread of infections but does not directly reduce the risk of Lyme disease.
Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care for a client receiving acyclovir (Zovirax) IV for treatment of herpes zoster (shingles)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Monitor serum creatinine levels. Acyclovir can lead to nephrotoxicity, making it essential to monitor kidney function through serum creatinine levels. While cardiac telemetry monitoring (choice A) and maintaining continuous pulse oximetry (choice B) are important in certain conditions, they are not directly related to acyclovir therapy for herpes zoster. Performing capillary glucose measurements (choice C) is not a priority when administering acyclovir for herpes zoster. Monitoring serum creatinine levels is crucial to detect any potential renal issues early, as the drug's nephrotoxic potential requires close monitoring of kidney function.
The healthcare provider believes that a client who frequently requests pain medication may have a substance abuse problem. Which intervention reflects the healthcare provider's value of client autonomy over veracity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering the prescribed analgesic when requested is the most appropriate intervention that reflects the healthcare provider's value of client autonomy over veracity. This action respects the client's right to manage their pain and avoids deception. Referring the client to a substance abuse program (Choice B) assumes a diagnosis without evidence and does not respect the client's autonomy. Collaborating to provide a placebo (Choice C) would involve deception, which goes against the value of veracity. Documenting the frequency of medication requests (Choice D) is important for the client's care but does not directly address the issue of respecting client autonomy over veracity.
A high school football player comes to the clinic complaining of severe acne. The mother reports recent behavior changes, including irritability and suspiciousness of friends. The nurse's assessment reveals an elevated blood pressure. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the high school football player presenting with severe acne, behavior changes, elevated blood pressure, and suspicion of friends suggests the possible use of anabolic steroids. Anabolic steroid use can lead to such symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should first inquire about the possible use of anabolic steroids to address the root cause of the presenting issues. Encouraging the client to see a dermatologist (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the underlying cause is crucial first. Referring the adolescent to a substance abuse program (Choice B) is premature without confirming steroid use. Suggesting a low-salt, low-fat, and caffeine-free diet (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation where a serious issue like anabolic steroid use needs immediate attention.
When taking a health history of a client admitted with acute pancreatitis, which client complaint should be expected?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Severe mid-epigastric pain after ingesting a heavy meal.' This symptom is characteristic of acute pancreatitis due to inflammation of the pancreas, which often presents with severe pain in the mid-epigastric region that may worsen after eating. Choices A, B, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. A low-grade fever and left lower abdominal pain (Choice A) may be more indicative of other conditions like diverticulitis. Severe headache and sweating (Choice B) are commonly seen in conditions like migraines or infections. Dull, continuous, right lower quadrant pain and nausea (Choice D) could be suggestive of appendicitis rather than acute pancreatitis.
A heparin infusion is prescribed for a client who weighs 220 pounds. After administering a bolus dose of 80 units/kg, the nurse calculates the infusion rate for the heparin sodium at 18 units/kg/hour. The available solution is Heparin Sodium 25,000 units in 5% Dextrose Injection 250 ml. The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the infusion rate, first, find the total dose required per hour, which is the patient's weight (220 pounds) multiplied by the prescribed rate (18 units/kg/hour). This equals 3960 units/hour. Next, determine how many ml of the solution contain 25,000 units; this is 250 ml. Divide the total dose required per hour (3960 units) by the units per ml (25,000 units/250 ml) to find how many ml are needed per hour. This results in 27 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 27 ml/hour. Choice A (18) is incorrect as it does not account for the concentration of the heparin solution. Choices C (36) and D (45) are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculations based on the patient's weight and the heparin concentration in the solution.
A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106 mmHg and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him feel bad. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Stroke secondary to hemorrhage. Hypertension increases the risk of stroke due to the stress and damage it causes to blood vessels, which can lead to hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect because acute kidney injury is more commonly associated with chronic uncontrolled hypertension, not acute elevations. Choice C is incorrect as heart block is not a direct consequence of hypertension. Choice D is incorrect as hypertension does not directly cause cataracts leading to blindness.
A college student brings a dorm roommate to the campus clinic because the roommate has been talking to someone who is not present. The client tells the nurse that her voices are saying, "Kill, Kill." What question should the nurse ask the client next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing whether the client has a plan to act on the voices is critical for evaluating the risk of harm. Asking if the client is planning to obey the voices helps determine the immediate safety concerns. While understanding when the voices began could provide insight into the situation, assessing the intent to act on them is more urgent. Asking about hallucinogen use may be relevant but does not address the immediate safety issue. Inquiring about the client's belief in the reality of the voices is important but does not address the immediate risk of harm.
The client who had a below-the-knee (BKA) amputation is being prepared for discharge to home. Which recommendation should the nurse provide this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct recommendation for a client with a below-the-knee amputation preparing for discharge is to wash the stump with soap and water. This helps maintain cleanliness and prevent infection. Inspecting the skin for redness is important to monitor for signs of infection, but it is not a specific recommendation for a BKA amputation. Using a residual limb shrinker can aid in shaping and reducing swelling in the residual limb but is not usually done immediately after a BKA amputation. Applying alcohol to the stump after bathing is not recommended as it can lead to skin irritation and dryness.
What should the nurse monitor for during the IV infusion of vasopressin (Pitressin) in a client with bleeding esophageal varices?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During the IV infusion of vasopressin in a client with bleeding esophageal varices, the nurse should monitor for chest pain and dysrhythmia. Vasopressin is a vasoconstrictor that can cause cardiovascular effects, including chest pain and dysrhythmias. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as vasopressin is not expected to cause vasodilatation of the extremities, hypotension, tachycardia, or improvements in GI symptoms such as cramping and nausea.
The nurse is evaluating a client who has had a mastectomy and is experiencing pain and swelling in the arm on the affected side. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing for signs of lymphedema is crucial in this situation as it is a common complication following mastectomy. Lymphedema presents as swelling and pain in the affected arm due to compromised lymphatic drainage. By assessing for lymphedema, the nurse can identify the condition early and implement appropriate interventions such as compression sleeves, manual lymphatic drainage, and exercises. Encouraging arm exercises (Choice B) may exacerbate the symptoms if lymphedema is present. While providing pain relief through medication (Choice C) is important, assessing for the underlying cause of pain and swelling takes precedence. Recommending a compression sleeve (Choice D) may be suitable but should come after a thorough assessment for lymphedema to ensure the most effective management plan.
A female client reports she has not had a bowel movement for 3 days, but now is defecating frequent small amounts of liquid stool. Which action should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Digitally check the client for a fecal impaction. Small, frequent liquid stools following constipation may indicate a fecal impaction. This intervention is crucial to assess and address a potential impaction promptly. Choices B, increasing fluid intake, and C, providing a high-fiber diet, may help with bowel regularity in general cases, but they don't directly address the urgent concern of a possible impaction. Choice D, administering a stool softener, is not appropriate as the first action when a fecal impaction is suspected; it could worsen the condition by causing further liquid stool output without addressing the impaction.
After administering a proton pump inhibitor (PPI), which action should the nurse take to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Ask the client about gastrointestinal pain. The effectiveness of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is best evaluated by assessing the relief of gastrointestinal symptoms, such as heartburn, acid reflux, or stomach pain. These medications work by reducing the production of stomach acid, so improvement in these symptoms indicates the effectiveness of the PPI. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly reflect the effectiveness of a PPI. Measuring fluid intake and output, monitoring serum electrolyte levels, and auscultating for bowel sounds are important for assessing hydration status, electrolyte balance, and gastrointestinal motility, respectively. However, they are not specific to evaluating PPI effectiveness.
A client is admitted for an exacerbation of heart failure (HF) and is being treated with diuretics for fluid volume excess. In planning nursing care, which interventions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct interventions to include when a client with heart failure is being treated with diuretics for fluid volume excess are to observe for evidence of hypokalemia. Diuretics can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring for this electrolyte imbalance is crucial. Encouraging oral fluid intake of 3,000 ml/day may exacerbate fluid volume excess in a client with heart failure. Teaching the client how to restrict dietary sodium is important in managing heart failure, but it is not directly related to the use of diuretics for fluid volume excess. Monitoring PTT, PT, and INR lab values is not typically associated with diuretic therapy for heart failure but rather with anticoagulant therapy.
The healthcare provider prescribes amoxicillin (Amoxil) 1.5 grams PO daily, in equally divided doses to be administered every 8 hours. The medication is available in a bottle labeled, "Amoxicillin (Amoxil) suspension 200 mg/5 ml." How many ml should the nurse administer every 8 hours? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the amount in ml that the nurse should administer every 8 hours, first, determine the amount of amoxicillin needed per dose. 1.5 grams daily divided by 3 doses equals 0.5 grams per dose. Since 0.5 grams is equivalent to 500 mg (1 gram = 1000 mg), and each 5 ml of the suspension contains 200 mg of amoxicillin, the nurse needs to administer (500 mg / 200 mg) * 5 ml = 12.5 ml every 8 hours. Therefore, the correct answer is 12.5 ml. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided information.
While eating at a restaurant, a gravid woman begins to choke and is unable to speak. What action should the nurse who witnesses the event take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when a pregnant woman is choking and unable to speak is to perform the Heimlich maneuver using subdiaphragmatic thrusts. This technique is recommended for a pregnant woman to prevent harm to the fetus. Option A, cardiopulmonary resuscitation with uterine tilt, is not indicated for a choking episode. Option B, the Heimlich maneuver using chest thrusts, can potentially harm the gravid uterus. Option D, calling 911 immediately before providing assistance, can lead to a delay in addressing the immediate choking emergency.
A young female adult wanders into the Emergency Department. She is disheveled and confused and states, 'My date must have put something in my drink. He took my car, and I think he raped me. I don't exactly remember, but I know he hurt me.' How should the nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response is to encourage the patient to share more about what she remembers. This approach helps gather crucial information, supports the patient in a non-judgmental manner, and allows the nurse to provide appropriate care. Choice A has been revised to be more sensitive by asking about resistance when feeling uncomfortable rather than placing blame. Choice B has been adjusted to show empathy and request more details without questioning the patient's account. Choice C, although empathetic, does not address the immediate need to collect information and support the patient.
When admitting a client diagnosed with active tuberculosis to isolation, which infection control measures should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Negative pressure environment. Tuberculosis is transmitted through airborne particles, so a negative pressure room is essential to prevent the spread of the bacteria. Choice B, contact precautions, are used for infections spread by direct or indirect contact, not for tuberculosis. Choice C, droplet precautions, are for infections transmitted through respiratory droplets, not airborne particles like tuberculosis. Choice D, protective environment, is used for protecting immunocompromised patients from outside pathogens, not for preventing the spread of tuberculosis.
After a motor vehicle collision, a client is admitted to the medical unit with acute adrenal insufficiency (Addisonian crisis). Which prescription should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with acute adrenal insufficiency (Addisonian crisis) following a motor vehicle collision, the priority intervention is to administer IV corticosteroid replacement. This is crucial to manage the crisis by replacing the deficient cortisol. Determining serum glucose levels (Choice A) may be important but is not the immediate priority in this situation. Withholding potassium additives to IV fluids (Choice B) is not indicated and may exacerbate electrolyte imbalances. Initiating IV vasopressors (Choice D) is not the primary treatment for acute adrenal insufficiency and should be reserved for managing hypotension that is unresponsive to corticosteroid therapy.
In the Emergency Department, a female client discloses that she was raped last night. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important question for the nurse to ask in this situation is whether the client knows the person who raped her. This question is crucial for assessing additional safety concerns, providing appropriate support, and determining the need for forensic evidence collection. Choices B, C, and D are not as critical in the immediate assessment and response to a rape victim. Asking about bathing, the safety of her home, or reporting to the police may be important but are secondary to identifying the perpetrator for safety and legal reasons.
Which client requires careful nursing assessment for signs and symptoms of hypomagnesemia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Vomiting can lead to significant loss of magnesium, causing hypomagnesemia. In this scenario, the young adult client with intractable vomiting from food poisoning is at higher risk of developing hypomagnesemia due to the loss of magnesium through vomiting. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to present with hypomagnesemia. Hyperparathyroidism (B) is associated with hypercalcemia, renal failure (C) can lead to hypermagnesemia, and overconsumption of simple carbohydrates (D) is not directly linked to magnesium imbalances.
A client is admitted to a medical unit with the diagnosis of gastritis and chronic heavy alcohol abuse. What should the nurse administer to prevent the development of Wernicke's syndrome?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Thiamine supplementation is critical in preventing Wernicke's syndrome, especially in clients with chronic alcohol use. Wernicke's syndrome is a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome. Famotidine is an H2 blocker used to reduce stomach acid production but does not prevent Wernicke's syndrome. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used for hypertension and angina, not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome.
A new mother asks the nurse if the newborn infant has an infection because the healthcare provider prescribed a blood test called the TORCH screen test. Which response should the nurse offer to the mother's inquiry?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The TORCH screen test is used to detect infections that can affect the newborn by showing if there was exposure to these infections. Choice A is incorrect because the TORCH screen test is not specifically for identifying the etiology of neuro-sensory birth defects. Choice B is incorrect because the test does not determine the risk for inherited anomalies. Choice C is incorrect because the test is not used to identify the correct antibiotic for an infection, but rather to detect infections that may have affected the newborn.
The nurse is caring for a comatose client. Which assessment finding provides the greatest indication that the client has an open airway?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: "Bilateral breath sounds can be auscultated." This finding indicates that air is moving adequately in and out of both lungs, confirming an open airway. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Asymmetrical chest expansion may indicate lung or chest wall abnormalities, percussion revealing dullness over the lung area may suggest consolidation or fluid, and turning the client q2h is a position change intervention to prevent complications, not a direct assessment of airway patency.
The healthcare provider is completing a head-to-toe assessment for a client admitted for observation after falling out of a tree. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the healthcare provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clear fluid leaking from the nose is concerning for cerebrospinal fluid leakage, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Sluggish pupillary response to light may indicate neurological issues but is not as urgent as CSF leakage. Complaint of severe headache is important but not as critical as the possibility of CSF leakage. Periorbital ecchymosis of the right eye could be indicative of trauma but does not pose an immediate threat to the patient's life.
The healthcare provider receives a report on four clients who are complaining of increased pain. Which client requires immediate attention by the healthcare provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Sharp pain related to a crushed femur indicates a severe condition and potential serious complications that require immediate attention. Crushed femur can lead to severe bleeding, nerve damage, or compartment syndrome, which are critical and life-threatening. The other choices, although painful, are less likely to present immediate life-threatening issues. Morton's neuroma, carpal tunnel syndrome, and plantar fasciitis are painful conditions but are not typically associated with urgent, life-threatening complications like a crushed femur.
In a client in her third trimester of pregnancy, an S3 heart sound is auscultated. What intervention should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An S3 heart sound can be a normal finding in pregnancy due to increased blood volume and flow. In this scenario, there is no immediate need for further interventions. Documenting this finding in the client's record is essential for tracking the client's health status and ensuring proper follow-up if needed. Notifying the healthcare provider, limiting fluids, or preparing for an echocardiogram is unnecessary as it is likely a physiological finding in pregnancy. These interventions should only be considered if other symptoms suggestive of a cardiac issue are present.
In preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure, the nurse notes that the client's B-Type Naturetic peptide (BNP) is elevated. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Elevated BNP levels in a client with heart failure may indicate worsening heart failure. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take when encountering an elevated BNP before administering furosemide is to hold the dose and contact the healthcare provider for further guidance. This precaution is necessary to ensure the client's safety and prevent potential complications. Options A and B are incorrect as they do not address the issue of the elevated BNP, which is crucial in this situation. Option C is also incorrect because administering furosemide without consulting the healthcare provider could be harmful if the client's condition is deteriorating.
A female client tells the clinic nurse that she has doubts about binge eating but cannot make herself vomit after meals. Which action by the nurse provides data to support the suspected diagnosis of bulimia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Inquiring about laxative and diuretic use helps confirm bulimia as these are common behaviors associated with the disorder. Asking the client to complete a food diary (Choice A) may provide information on eating patterns but does not directly support the diagnosis of bulimia. Reviewing lab data (Choice B) for thyroid function is not specific to bulimia. Encouraging the client to describe her exercise regimen (Choice D) may be relevant for overall health assessment but does not specifically address bulimia symptoms.
During a well-child check-up, what respiratory assessment finding should the nurse anticipate in a 3-year-old?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A resting respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute is within the expected range for a 3-year-old child. This is considered normal in this age group as their respiratory rate is generally higher compared to adults. Bronchovesicular breath sounds in the peripheral lung fields are not an expected finding in a 3-year-old. Retractions in the intercostal spaces with each inspiration indicate increased work of breathing and are abnormal. High-pitched whistling sounds over the bronchi are characteristic of wheezing, which is not typically expected in a healthy 3-year-old during a routine check-up.
A client with diabetic peripheral neuropathy has been taking pregabalin for 4 days. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Reduced level of pain.' Pregabalin is used to manage neuropathic pain, so a reduction in pain indicates the medication's effectiveness in this case. Granulating tissue in a foot ulcer and the full volume of a pedal pulse are not direct indicators of pregabalin's effectiveness in managing neuropathic pain. Improved visual activity is not related to the effects of pregabalin in diabetic peripheral neuropathy.
The nurse working on a mental health unit is prioritizing nursing care activities due to a staffing shortage. One practical nurse (PN) is on the unit with the nurse, and another RN is expected to arrive within two hours. Clients need to be awakened, and morning medications need to be prepared. Which plan is best for the nurse to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best plan for the nurse to implement is to ask the PN to administer medications as clients are awakened. This approach ensures that medication administration and client care are efficiently managed despite the staffing shortage. Option A is incorrect as it may disrupt the workflow and create unnecessary chaos. Option B is not the best choice as it does not address the immediate need for medication administration. Option D is not ideal as it delays client care until additional staff arrive, potentially compromising patient safety and timely medication administration.
After removing an IV that became infiltrated in the client's left forearm, which site should the nurse select as a possible site to insert another IV catheter?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Right hand. When an IV becomes infiltrated in the client's left forearm, it is essential to avoid the same side due to the risk of complications. Therefore, the right hand is a suitable alternative site for IV insertion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choosing the right forearm (B) would still be on the same side, which increases the risk of complications. The left hand (C) is not a preferred option immediately after an infiltration in the left forearm. The right subclavian (D) is an invasive site typically reserved for central line placement and not a first-line choice for IV insertion.
A 12-year-old client who had an appendectomy two days ago is receiving 0.9% normal saline at 50 ml/hour. The client's urine specific gravity is 1.035. What action should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging fluids helps address dehydration and potentially high urine specific gravity, which is often related to inadequate fluid intake. In this scenario, the client may be at risk of dehydration due to the appendectomy and the high urine specific gravity. Encouraging popsicles and fluids of choice can help increase fluid intake and improve hydration status. The other options are not the priority at this time. Postural blood pressure measurements may be relevant for assessing fluid status but are not the immediate action needed. Obtaining a specimen for urinalysis and assessing bowel sounds are not the priority actions based on the client's condition.
When administering ceftriaxone sodium intravenously to a client before surgery, which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy breathing sound that can indicate a serious condition like airway obstruction or a severe allergic reaction, necessitating immediate intervention to maintain the client's airway and prevent further complications. While headache, pruritus, and nausea are important to assess and manage, they are not as immediately life-threatening as stridor, which requires prompt attention to prevent respiratory compromise.
While assessing an older client's fall risk, the client tells the nurse that they live at home alone and have never fallen. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse in this scenario is to continue obtaining client data to complete the fall risk survey. This approach will help in conducting a comprehensive assessment of the client's risk factors. Placing the client on a high fall risk protocol solely based on age without a thorough assessment is premature and can lead to unnecessary interventions. Informing the client about falls in the hospital does not address the client's individual risk factors and is not relevant to the current assessment. Recording a minimal risk for falls based only on the client's statement may overlook other potential risk factors that need to be evaluated.
A school nurse is called to the soccer field because a child has a nosebleed (epistaxis). In what position should the nurse place the child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct position for a child with a nosebleed (epistaxis) is sitting up and leaning forward. This position helps prevent blood from flowing into the throat and causing choking. Choice B, reclining with the head elevated, and choice D, lying flat on the back, are incorrect as they can cause blood to flow backward into the throat. Choice C, sitting up with the head tilted back, is also incorrect as it can lead to blood flowing down the back of the throat and potentially into the airway.
Which instruction is most important for the client who receives a new prescription for risedronate sodium to treat osteoporosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important instruction for a client receiving risedronate sodium to treat osteoporosis is to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. Risedronate sodium can cause esophageal irritation, and staying upright helps prevent this side effect. While increasing vitamin D intake, starting a low-impact exercise routine, and taking the medication with a full glass of water are all beneficial for managing osteoporosis, the immediate need is to prevent esophageal irritation caused by risedronate sodium.
To evaluate the client's therapeutic response to lactulose for signs of hepatic encephalopathy, which assessment should the nurse obtain?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Level of consciousness. Monitoring the client's level of consciousness is essential in evaluating the effectiveness of lactulose in treating hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose helps reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the stool, thereby improving the client's mental status. Assessing the client's level of consciousness helps determine if the medication is effectively managing hepatic encephalopathy symptoms. Choices B, percussion of the abdomen, and D, blood glucose, are not directly related to evaluating the therapeutic response to lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy. Choice C, serum electrolytes, while important in overall patient care, is not the primary assessment to determine lactulose's effectiveness in treating hepatic encephalopathy.
The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) has applied a gown and gloves and secured the tops of the gloves over the gown sleeves. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Proper application of personal protective equipment (PPE) is crucial to maintain infection control. In this scenario, the nurse should help the UAP reposition the gown sleeve over the gloves' edges. This action ensures that the gown properly covers the gloves, reducing the risk of contamination. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the primary concern is to address the improper application of PPE by repositioning the gown sleeves over the gloves, not checking other aspects of PPE or reminding about hand hygiene.
The nurse is planning care for a client with end-stage lung cancer. The client expresses concern about ongoing pain management. Which nursing action is most appropriate to include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Consulting the healthcare provider for recommendations on pain management is the most appropriate action. The healthcare provider can assess the client's pain, prescribe appropriate medications, and adjust the pain management plan as needed. In end-stage cancer, managing pain often requires pharmacological interventions that the healthcare provider can best provide. Physical therapy (choice B) may not be the primary intervention for pain management in end-stage cancer. While attending a support group (choice C) can provide emotional support, it does not directly address the client's pain management concerns. Suggesting alternative therapies (choice D) is not the initial step; consulting the healthcare provider should come first to ensure a comprehensive and tailored pain management plan.
The nurse is assessing an older adult with type 2 diabetes. Which assessment finding indicates that the client understands long-term control of diabetes?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An A1C level of 6.5% indicates good long-term control of diabetes as it reflects the average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months. Monitoring fasting blood sugar provides immediate information about the current blood sugar level, while the absence of urine ketones indicates short-term control. Although the absence of diabetic ketoacidosis is positive, it doesn't specifically reflect long-term control like the A1C level does.
During discharge teaching, the nurse discusses the parameters for weight monitoring with a client recently diagnosed with heart failure (HF). Which information is most important for the client to acknowledge?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Reporting a weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours is crucial for detecting fluid retention or worsening heart failure. This rapid weight gain indicates possible fluid overload, which can be a sign of worsening HF. Option A is not as critical as the timing of weighing can vary. Option C is important for tracking trends but does not emphasize the significance of a sudden weight gain. Option D is relevant for managing HF but does not address the immediate need for reporting rapid weight gain.
A client recovering from abdominal surgery is on a clear liquid diet. The nurse should identify which of the following as the most appropriate food choice for this diet?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Grape juice is the most appropriate choice for a clear liquid diet as it is a transparent fluid that is easily digested. Clear liquid diets aim to provide fluids and electrolytes while being easy on the digestive system. Choices A, C, and D are not suitable for a clear liquid diet as they are not in liquid form or do not meet the criteria of being easily digestible for someone recovering from abdominal surgery. Chicken noodle soup, cream of wheat, and vanilla pudding are not considered clear liquids and may not be well-tolerated by a client who has undergone abdominal surgery.
The charge nurse of a cardiac telemetry unit is assigning client care to a registered nurse (RN) and a practical nurse (PN). Which client should be assigned to the RN?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because complete heart block is a critical condition that requires immediate assessment and management by a registered nurse (RN). In complete heart block, there is a significant conduction disturbance that can lead to serious complications. The RN is better equipped to handle such complex and potentially life-threatening situations. Choices A, B, and C involve less critical conditions that can be managed by a practical nurse (PN) under the supervision of the RN. Therefore, assigning the client with complete heart block to the RN ensures prompt and appropriate intervention.
A male client admitted three days ago with respiratory failure is intubated and receiving 40% oxygen per facemask. Currently, his temperature is 99°F, capillary refill is less than 4 seconds, and respiratory effort is within normal limits. What outcome should the nurse evaluate to measure for successful extubation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Successful extubation is primarily measured by the client's ability to maintain an effective breathing pattern. This indicates that the client can adequately oxygenate and ventilate without the need for artificial airway support. Choices A, B, and C are important aspects of patient care but are not the primary outcomes to evaluate for successful extubation. Adequate tissue perfusion, freedom from injury, and prevention of infection are ongoing goals during the client's hospitalization but are not the immediate focus when considering extubation.
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