HESI LPN
Medical Surgical HESI 2023
1. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?
- A. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
- B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
- C. Decrease IV fluids to keep the vein open (KVO) rate.
- D. Calculate total intake and output.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.
2. A client with fluid volume excess has gained 6.6 pounds. The nurse recognizes that this is equivalent to what volume of fluid?
- A. Two liters.
- B. Three liters.
- C. Four liters.
- D. Five liters.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A weight gain of 6.6 pounds is approximately equivalent to 3 liters of fluid. It is important to remember that 1 liter of fluid is equal to 1 kg, which is approximately 2.2 pounds. Therefore, when the client gains 6.6 pounds, it translates to 3 liters of fluid. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the conversion rate of 1 liter of fluid to 2.2 pounds.
3. The parents of a child suffering from depression ask the nurse what causes depression in children. Which answer is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. The causes of major depression are unknown.
- B. Major affective disorders in parents increase depression in children.
- C. Boys are more likely than girls to be depressed.
- D. The prevalence rate is higher in prepubescent children.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because while the exact causes of depression in children are not fully understood, research indicates that children are more likely to experience depression if their parents have a major affective disorder. Choice A is incorrect because it suggests that the causes of major depression are entirely unknown, which is not accurate. Choice C is incorrect as there is no conclusive evidence that boys are more likely than girls to be depressed. Choice D is incorrect as the prevalence rate of depression is not necessarily higher in prepubescent children specifically.
4. A client with ulcerative colitis is experiencing frequent diarrhea. What is the priority nursing diagnosis?
- A. Risk for impaired skin integrity
- B. Fluid volume deficit
- C. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements
- D. Activity intolerance
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluid volume deficit. In a client with ulcerative colitis experiencing frequent diarrhea, the priority nursing diagnosis is addressing the potential fluid volume deficit due to significant fluid loss. Maintaining adequate hydration is crucial to prevent complications associated with dehydration. While choices A, C, and D can also be concerns for a client with ulcerative colitis, addressing fluid volume deficit takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's physiological stability and can lead to serious complications if not managed promptly.
5. The nurse reports that a client is at risk for a brain attack (stroke) based on which assessment finding?
- A. Nuchal rigidity
- B. Carotid bruit
- C. Jugular vein distention
- D. Palpable cervical lymph node
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Carotid bruit. A carotid bruit is a significant risk factor for stroke as it indicates turbulent blood flow due to narrowing of the carotid artery. Nuchal rigidity is associated with meningitis, jugular vein distention can be a sign of heart failure, and palpable cervical lymph nodes may indicate infection, but they are not directly linked to stroke risk.
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