Free HESI LPN Pharmacology practice for HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank (HESI LPN). Answer 45 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and prog
A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot. Therefore, a potential adverse effect of warfarin is an increased risk of bleeding. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, nosebleeds, or blood in the urine or stool. Monitoring for these signs is essential to prevent serious complications associated with excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. The primary concern with warfarin therapy is the potential for bleeding complications, so close monitoring for signs of bleeding is essential.
A client with a diagnosis of depression is prescribed escitalopram. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
It is crucial for clients to understand that they should not discontinue escitalopram abruptly, even if they start feeling better. Stopping the medication suddenly can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a relapse of depression. It is essential to complete the full course of treatment as prescribed by the healthcare provider to ensure the best outcomes and prevent potential complications.
A client with a history of stroke is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by thinning the blood. One of the potential side effects of warfarin is an increased risk of bleeding. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as unusual bruising, blood in the urine or stool, or prolonged bleeding from cuts or gums. Prompt recognition and management of bleeding are essential to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as weight gain, headache, and dizziness are not common side effects of warfarin. Monitoring for bleeding is a priority due to the anticoagulant properties of warfarin.
A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed quetiapine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client with bipolar disorder is prescribed quetiapine, the nurse should monitor for weight gain as a potential adverse effect. Quetiapine is known to commonly cause weight gain, which can have implications for the client's overall health. Regular monitoring of weight can help in early detection and management of this side effect.
A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed salmeterol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is dry mouth. Salmeterol, a long-acting beta agonist used in COPD, can lead to dry mouth as a common side effect. Nurses should monitor for this side effect and advise clients to report it if it becomes bothersome.
A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed citalopram. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct potential side effect of citalopram is nausea. Citalopram can cause gastrointestinal disturbances such as nausea, so clients should be advised to take the medication with food if nausea occurs to help minimize this side effect. While other side effects like drowsiness, insomnia, and headache may also occur with citalopram, nausea is a common side effect that clients should be informed about. Drowsiness and insomnia are more commonly associated with other medications used to treat anxiety or depression, such as benzodiazepines or certain antidepressants. Headache is a less common side effect of citalopram compared to nausea.
A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed semaglutide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Nausea. Semaglutide, a medication used to treat type 2 diabetes, is known to cause nausea as a potential adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for gastrointestinal symptoms, including nausea, after initiating treatment with semaglutide. While hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are common concerns in diabetes management, they are not the primary adverse effects associated with semaglutide. Pancreatitis is a serious but rare adverse effect of GLP-1 receptor agonists like semaglutide, which should also be monitored for, but nausea is a more common and immediate concern.
A client with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed atorvastatin. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Muscle pain. Atorvastatin can cause muscle pain, which may indicate rhabdomyolysis, a serious adverse effect. Rhabdomyolysis is a condition where muscle breakdown releases a protein (myoglobin) into the bloodstream, potentially leading to kidney damage. Liver damage (choice A) is a less common side effect of atorvastatin compared to muscle pain. Kidney damage (choice B) is not a direct adverse effect of atorvastatin but can occur indirectly if rhabdomyolysis is severe. Increased appetite (choice D) is not a known adverse effect of atorvastatin.
A client with hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is known to cause peripheral edema as a potential adverse effect due to its vasodilatory properties. This can lead to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema in patients taking amlodipine is crucial to identify and manage this side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because amlodipine is not associated with causing bradycardia, hypertension (as the patient already has hypertension), or increased appetite as adverse effects.
A client with chronic heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, resulting in hyperkalemia. This side effect is important to monitor in clients taking spironolactone, especially those with chronic heart failure, as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac complications.
A client is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. What potential adverse effect should the practical nurse (PN) instruct the client to monitor for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. This cough is distinctive and different from other causes of cough. It is essential for the client to be aware of this potential side effect as it can indicate a serious issue. Instructing the client to monitor for a persistent cough and report it to the healthcare provider promptly is crucial to ensure timely intervention and management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as constipation, increased appetite, and dry skin are not commonly associated with lisinopril use for hypertension. Therefore, the practical nurse should focus on educating the client about monitoring and reporting a persistent cough.
A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed dapagliflozin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Genital infections. Dapagliflozin, a medication used in diabetes mellitus type 2, is associated with an increased risk of genital infections. Its mechanism of action involves promoting glucose excretion through the urine, creating a favorable environment for microbial growth in the genital area. Monitoring for genital infections is crucial when a client is prescribed dapagliflozin. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of dapagliflozin since it does not directly lower blood glucose levels. Hyperglycemia (choice C) is also unlikely as dapagliflozin is intended to help lower blood glucose levels. Nausea (choice D) is a less common side effect of dapagliflozin compared to genital infections.
A client who received a prescription for cyclosporine ophthalmic emulsion for dry eyes asks the practical nurse (PN) if it is safe to continue using artificial tears. What information should the PN provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to allow a 15-minute interval between the administration of cyclosporine and artificial tears. Cyclosporine, an ophthalmic emulsion that increases tear production, can be used in conjunction with artificial tears as long as the products are administered 15 minutes apart. This interval helps to prevent any potential interactions between the two products and ensures optimal effectiveness of cyclosporine for treating dry eyes.
The healthcare provider is discharging a patient with a new prescription for ranitidine (Zantac). Which information would be important to include in the discharge teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. It is important to include information that ranitidine may cause restlessness as a side effect in some patients. Educating the patient about possible side effects helps in early recognition and management, improving medication adherence and patient safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not pertain to common side effects or specific considerations related to ranitidine use.
A client who is being discharged to home asks the practical nurse (PN) for a dose of hydrocodone before leaving the hospital. How should the PN respond to this client's request?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hydrocodone is a narcotic analgesic, and the practical nurse should gather more data from the client about the pain he is experiencing before giving the medication. The client's need for pain medication should be addressed, and pain medication should not be withheld because he is going home.
A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed tofacitinib. What should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Tofacitinib is an immunosuppressive medication used in rheumatoid arthritis. Patients taking tofacitinib should avoid live vaccines because the medication can weaken the immune system, making live vaccines potentially harmful. It is essential to educate the client on this to prevent any complications related to live vaccines during their treatment.
A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, causing hyperkalemia. This medication inhibits the action of aldosterone, leading to decreased potassium excretion and potential retention. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias, especially in clients with heart failure.
A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed lanthanum carbonate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Lanthanum carbonate is prescribed in chronic kidney disease to bind dietary phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract. This action can lead to decreased phosphorus absorption and potential hypercalcemia due to the increased serum calcium levels. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia, such as confusion, fatigue, and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as lanthanum carbonate's mechanism of action does not lead to hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, or hypokalemia.
A client with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. What instruction should the practical nurse (PN) include in the client's teaching plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a client prescribed metformin is to take the medication with a full glass of water. This helps ensure proper ingestion and absorption of the medication. While taking metformin with meals can help reduce gastrointestinal side effects, the primary focus should be on adequate hydration and absorption by taking it with water. Avoiding alcohol while taking metformin is also important as alcohol can increase the risk of lactic acidosis when combined with metformin. Taking the medication with meals to increase absorption is incorrect as metformin should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset, not to increase absorption.
The nurse is preparing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, which medication should the nurse review with the client to manage this?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Tiotropium is commonly used for COPD management.
A client with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel, the nurse should monitor for potential side effects, especially bleeding. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing blood clots. One of the major risks associated with clopidogrel is an increased tendency to bleed. Therefore, monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in stool or urine, or prolonged bleeding from minor cuts, is crucial to ensure patient safety and early intervention if needed.
A client with hypertension is prescribed valsartan. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker that can cause hypotension as a side effect by dilating blood vessels. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to prevent complications related to low blood pressure. Choice B, Tachycardia, is incorrect because valsartan typically does not cause an increase in heart rate. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is not a common side effect of valsartan. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is also unlikely with valsartan use.
A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Weight gain. Olanzapine is known to cause weight gain as a common side effect. This weight gain can increase the risk of metabolic issues such as diabetes and dyslipidemia. Monitoring the client's weight regularly is essential to detect and address any weight changes promptly.
A practical nurse (PN) is providing education to a client who is starting therapy with metformin for type 2 diabetes. What side effect should the client be instructed to report to the healthcare provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Nausea.' Nausea is a common side effect of metformin, especially when the medication is first started. It is essential for the client to report persistent or severe nausea to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Weight gain (Choice A) is not a typical side effect of metformin; in fact, metformin is associated with weight loss or weight neutrality. Hypoglycemia (Choice B) is a potential side effect of some diabetes medications, but metformin does not typically cause hypoglycemia. Muscle pain (Choice C) is not a common side effect of metformin; it is more commonly associated with other medications like statins.
A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Erythropoietin is a medication commonly used to stimulate red blood cell production in individuals with chronic kidney disease. One of the potential adverse effects of erythropoietin therapy is hypertension. The increased production of red blood cells can lead to elevated blood pressure levels. Therefore, monitoring for hypertension is essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being while on this medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypotension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with erythropoietin therapy. Hypertension is the primary adverse effect to monitor in this case.
A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client is prescribed risperidone, it is essential to monitor for potential side effects. Weight gain is a common side effect of risperidone, so the nurse should closely monitor the client's weight throughout the treatment. This monitoring helps in early detection of weight changes and allows for timely interventions to prevent further complications.
A client has been diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma. The healthcare provider prescribes pilocarpine 1% eye drops. The nurse explains that which action of this drug makes it a useful treatment for the client's condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Pilocarpine, a cholinergic agent, stimulates the ciliary muscle to contract, which opens the trabecular meshwork and facilitates the outflow of aqueous humor, reducing intraocular pressure. This mechanism helps in managing open-angle glaucoma by improving drainage and lowering pressure within the eye. Choice A is correct because the contraction of the ciliary muscle increases the outflow of aqueous humor, aiding in the treatment of open-angle glaucoma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the mechanism of action of pilocarpine in treating glaucoma.
A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of digoxin toxicity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a medication used to treat atrial fibrillation, can lead to toxicity manifesting as various cardiac dysrhythmias, with bradycardia being a notable indicator. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial as it can indicate the need for dosage adjustment or discontinuation of digoxin to prevent adverse effects. Tachycardia, nausea, and vomiting are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity, making them incorrect choices for monitoring in a client receiving this medication.
A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a client prescribed methotrexate is to avoid sunlight while taking this medication. Methotrexate can increase sensitivity to sunlight, leading to skin reactions. It is essential for clients to limit sun exposure and use protective measures like sunscreen and clothing coverage to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding alcohol, taking with food, and reporting signs of infection are not specific instructions related to methotrexate therapy.
A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed infliximab. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. Infliximab is known to increase the risk of infection due to its immunosuppressive effects. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for signs of infection in the client receiving infliximab to promptly address any potential complications and ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bone marrow suppression, hair loss, and pancreatitis are not typically associated with infliximab therapy. While these adverse effects can occur with other medications, the primary concern with infliximab is the increased risk of infection.
A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct potential side effect of buspirone is drowsiness. It is important for clients to be informed about this side effect, as it can affect their ability to perform tasks that require full alertness, such as driving. Clients should be advised to avoid activities that require mental alertness until they know how the medication affects them. Dry mouth is a common side effect of some other medications used for anxiety, such as benzodiazepines. Nausea and headache are not typically associated with buspirone use.
A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed verapamil. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can commonly cause constipation due to its effects on smooth muscle relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, monitoring for constipation is important when a client is prescribed verapamil.
The healthcare provider has prescribed an influenza vaccine for a 74-year-old client before discharge. Which client condition would prompt the practical nurse to consult with the charge nurse rather than administer the vaccine?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: History of an egg allergy. The influenza vaccine may contain a small amount of egg protein. According to the CDC, individuals with a severe allergy to any component of the vaccine, including egg protein, should not receive the influenza vaccine. Therefore, if the client has a history of an allergy to eggs, the practical nurse should not administer the vaccine and consult with the charge nurse for further guidance, as it is a contraindication. The other conditions listed do not require consultation before administering the influenza vaccine.
An adolescent client with a seizure disorder is prescribed the anticonvulsant medication carbamazepine. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider if the client develops which condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Develops a sore throat.' When a client on carbamazepine develops flu-like symptoms such as pallor, fatigue, sore throat, and fever, it could indicate blood dyscrasias (aplastic anemia, leukopenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia), which are potential adverse effects of the medication. These symptoms warrant immediate notification of the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, dizziness, and gingival hyperplasia are not commonly associated with carbamazepine use and do not indicate serious adverse effects that require immediate healthcare provider notification.
A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Bone marrow suppression. Methotrexate, commonly used in rheumatoid arthritis, can lead to bone marrow suppression, reducing the production of blood cells and increasing the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia is crucial to detect bone marrow suppression early and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while methotrexate can increase the risk of infection, liver toxicity, and kidney issues, the primary concern and most significant adverse effect to monitor for is bone marrow suppression due to its impact on blood cell production.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed albuterol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct Answer: A. Albuterol, a bronchodilator commonly used in COPD, can cause tachycardia as a potential side effect due to its beta-agonist properties that can stimulate the heart. Nausea (Choice B), dry mouth (Choice C), and weight gain (Choice D) are less likely associated with albuterol use. Nausea and dry mouth are not common side effects of albuterol, and weight gain is not typically linked to its use. Therefore, the nurse should primarily monitor for tachycardia when a client is prescribed albuterol for COPD.
A client is prescribed verapamil for hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which common adverse effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker commonly used for hypertension, is known to cause constipation as a frequent adverse effect. This occurs due to its effects on smooth muscle relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to decreased motility. Headache, muscle cramping, and fatigue are not typically associated with verapamil use and are less common side effects. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for symptoms of constipation when administering verapamil.
A client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) has been taking riluzole for two weeks. The nurse notes that the client remains weak with observable muscle atrophy. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the nurse's priority is to document the assessment findings in the electronic health record. This action is crucial for maintaining an accurate record of the client's health status and can provide valuable information for the healthcare team. While it is important to monitor the client's response to riluzole, explaining that the medication may take time to show improvement (Choice A) would be more appropriate if the client was expecting immediate results. Withholding the medication and notifying the healthcare provider (Choice B) should not be the initial action without further assessment or guidance. Advising the client to undergo liver function tests (Choice C) is not directly related to the current situation of weakness and muscle atrophy.
A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed edoxaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Edoxaban is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting clot formation, thereby increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, petechiae, hematuria, or gastrointestinal bleeding, to prevent potential complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because edoxaban does not decrease the risk of bleeding or affect the risk of infection; its primary concern is the potential for bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties.
A client with bipolar disorder is taking lithium. Which client assessment data would indicate a potential adverse effect of lithium therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assessing a client taking lithium, dry mouth and increased thirst are indicators of potential adverse effects. Lithium can lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, causing polyuria and subsequent increased thirst due to impaired water reabsorption in the kidneys. Tremors can also be a sign of lithium toxicity. Monitoring and recognizing these symptoms are crucial in managing lithium therapy and preventing further complications.
A practical nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving theophylline. Which symptom indicates that the client may be experiencing theophylline toxicity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Tremors are a common symptom of theophylline toxicity. Other symptoms that may indicate theophylline toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and seizures. Bradycardia, constipation, and hypotension are not typically associated with theophylline toxicity. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client closely for these signs of toxicity and report them promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications.
A female client who started chemotherapy three days ago for cancer of the breast calls the clinic reporting that she is so upset she cannot sleep. The client has several PRN medications available. Which drug should the nurse instruct her to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Acetaminophen and diphenhydramine help with sleep without severe side effects.
A client has sublingual nitroglycerine tablets prescribed to treat angina. The nurse realizes the client requires further education if the client makes which statements? (Select one that doesn't apply.)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Nitroglycerine sublingual tablets need to be replaced every 3 to 5 months, not every year, making statement A incorrect. While nitroglycerine can cause a headache, it is important to continue taking the prescribed nitroglycerine if the client has angina, making statement B accurate. Nitroglycerine tablets do not cause addiction, so statement C is correct. Dizziness and weakness are associated with the hypotensive effect of nitroglycerine; therefore, if the client feels dizzy when taking them, they should sit down or lie down until they feel better. Taking nitroglycerine tablets before an activity known to cause angina can help prevent angina attacks.
During a home visit, a client with a history of angina reports frequent headaches. The client recently started a new prescription for diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take is to instruct the client to use acetaminophen for headaches. Acetaminophen is a suitable and safer option for managing headaches associated with calcium channel blockers like diltiazem. It is essential to avoid medications that can interact negatively with diltiazem, such as opioid analgesics. Discontinuing the medication abruptly without consulting the healthcare provider is not recommended. Monitoring for medication toxicity through blood samples is not typically indicated for managing headaches in this scenario.
A client with asthma is receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy. The nurse includes a risk for impaired skin integrity on the client's problem list. What is the rationale for including this problem?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Glucocorticoids can cause skin thinning, which increases the likelihood of bruising. Thinning of the skin due to glucocorticoid therapy makes it more fragile and prone to injury, such as bruising, even with minimal trauma. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because abnormal fat deposits impairing circulation, frequent diarrhea causing skin issues, and decreased serum glucose prolonging healing time are not direct effects of glucocorticoid therapy on skin integrity.
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