HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client with diabetes mellitus type 1 is prescribed insulin lispro. When should the nurse instruct the client to administer this medication?
- A. 5-10 minutes before meals
- B. 15 minutes after meals
- C. 30 minutes before meals
- D. 1 hour after meals
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that should be administered 5-10 minutes before meals. This timing helps synchronize the peak action of insulin with the rise in blood glucose levels after eating, effectively managing postprandial hyperglycemia. Choice B, administering 15 minutes after meals, is incorrect because rapid-acting insulins like lispro are meant to act quickly to cover the rise in blood glucose levels after meals. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not align with the rapid onset of action required to manage postprandial hyperglycemia in patients with diabetes mellitus type 1.
2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed apixaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Bleeding
- B. Weight gain
- C. Headache
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Apixaban is an anticoagulant medication that works by decreasing the blood's ability to clot. One of the significant side effects of apixaban is an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in the urine or stool, or unusual bleeding or bruising. Monitoring for these signs is crucial to prevent or manage any potential complications associated with the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, headache, and nausea are not typically associated with apixaban use. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring for signs of bleeding in a client prescribed apixaban.
3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly associated with causing peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it may indicate a need for dosage adjustment or further evaluation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as amlodipine is not known to cause tachycardia, bradycardia, or increased appetite as adverse effects.
4. A client is prescribed atorvastatin. The practical nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Muscle pain and weakness
- B. Headache
- C. Hepatotoxicity
- D. Gastrointestinal bleeding
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle pain and weakness. Atorvastatin is known to potentially cause muscle pain and weakness, which could indicate muscle damage or rhabdomyolysis. This adverse effect should be closely monitored by the practical nurse to ensure early detection and appropriate management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with atorvastatin use. Headache is a less common side effect, hepatotoxicity is rare but serious, and gastrointestinal bleeding is not a common adverse effect of atorvastatin.
5. The healthcare provider notes that a client has a new prescription for 20 mEq of potassium. The IV site is inflamed but not tender, and has a blood flashback. What action should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Obtain a liter of normal saline with 20 mEq of KCl
- B. Contact the healthcare provider to clarify the prescription
- C. Withhold the prescription medication until a new IV is started
- D. Fax the prescription to the pharmacy for immediate dispensing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The healthcare provider should contact the prescriber to clarify the prescription because an inflamed IV site may indicate potential issues with administering the medication. It is important to ensure that the prescription is appropriate and safe for the client before proceeding with administration. Option A is incorrect because administering potassium through an inflamed IV site can lead to further complications. Option C is not the best course of action as clarifying the prescription first is essential. Option D is also incorrect as the focus should be on ensuring the safety of the client before dispensing the medication.
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