HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI Practice
1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed rivaroxaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Dizziness
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is weight gain. Rivaroxaban, an anticoagulant, may lead to weight gain as a side effect due to fluid retention. Dry mouth (choice B), dizziness (choice C), and headache (choice D) are not typically associated with rivaroxaban use. Therefore, monitoring for weight gain is crucial to detect and manage this potential side effect in the client.
2. A client is prescribed verapamil for hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which common adverse effect?
- A. Constipation
- B. Headache
- C. Muscle cramping
- D. Fatigue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker commonly used for hypertension, is known to cause constipation as a frequent adverse effect. This occurs due to its effects on smooth muscle relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to decreased motility. Headache, muscle cramping, and fatigue are not typically associated with verapamil use and are less common side effects. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for symptoms of constipation when administering verapamil.
3. A client vomits 30 minutes after receiving a dose of hydromorphone on the first postoperative day. What initial intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?
- A. Obtain a prescription for nasogastric intubation.
- B. Administer a prn dose of ondansetron.
- C. Reduce the next scheduled dose of hydromorphone.
- D. Assess the client's abdomen and bowel sounds.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's vomiting is likely due to the hydromorphone administration, indicating a need for an antiemetic such as ondansetron to address the nausea. Nasogastric intubation (Choice A) is not necessary at this point as the client is vomiting, not experiencing an obstruction. While reducing the dose of hydromorphone (Choice C) may be considered later, the immediate focus should be managing the client's symptoms. Assessing the client's abdomen and bowel sounds (Choice D) can be important but is not the initial priority when addressing the vomiting post hydromorphone administration.
4. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed venlafaxine. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?
- A. Nausea
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Insomnia
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea. Venlafaxine, a medication used for generalized anxiety disorder, can commonly cause nausea as a side effect. It is essential for clients to be aware of this potential side effect and advised to take the medication with food if nausea occurs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, insomnia, and headache are less commonly associated side effects of venlafaxine compared to nausea.
5. Phenytoin is prescribed for a client who has a seizure disorder. Which statement by the client needs to be clarified by the healthcare provider?
- A. I should notify the healthcare provider if the color of my urine turns pink.
- B. I should never stop taking this medication abruptly.
- C. I should monitor my glucose levels closely since I am diabetic.
- D. I should take the medicine with antacids if gastric upset occurs.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because antacids should not be taken with phenytoin as they can decrease its effects. Taking antacids with phenytoin is not recommended. Choice A is correct; pink discoloration of urine can occur with phenytoin use. Choice B is also correct; abruptly stopping phenytoin can lead to seizures. Choice C is correct; monitoring glucose levels is important as phenytoin can increase glucose levels. Therefore, the statement about using antacids with phenytoin needs clarification.
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