HESI LPN
Pediatric HESI Practice Questions
1. A parent calls the outpatient clinic requesting information about the appropriate dose of acetaminophen for a 16-month-old child who has signs of an upper respiratory tract infection and fever. The directions on the bottle of acetaminophen elixir are 120 mg every 4 hours when needed. At the toddler’s 15-month visit, the healthcare provider prescribed 150 mg. What is the nurse’s best response to the parent?
- A. “The dose is close enough, and it doesn’t really matter which one is given.”
- B. “From your description, the medication is not necessary. It should be avoided at this age.”
- C. “It is appropriate to use dosages based on age. Children typically have weights consistent for their age groups.”
- D. “The prescribed dose of the drug was based on weight, and this is a more accurate way of determining a therapeutic dose.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most accurate way to determine a therapeutic dose for children is based on their weight rather than age. Weight-based dosing accounts for individual variations in drug metabolism and distribution, ensuring a more precise and safer medication administration. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not address the importance of weight-based dosing in children, potentially leading to inappropriate dosing and safety concerns.
2. A 1-year-old child has a congenital cardiac malformation that causes right-to-left shunting of blood through the heart. What clinical finding should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Proteinuria
- B. Peripheral edema
- C. Elevated hematocrit
- D. Absence of pedal pulses
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a congenital cardiac malformation causing right-to-left shunting, the nurse should expect an elevated hematocrit. This occurs because the body compensates for decreased oxygenation by producing more red blood cells. Proteinuria (Choice A) is not typically associated with congenital cardiac malformations causing right-to-left shunting. Peripheral edema (Choice B) is more commonly seen in conditions causing left-sided heart failure. Absence of pedal pulses (Choice D) is not a typical finding in congenital cardiac malformations causing right-to-left shunting.
3. A 16-year-old is suspected of having type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which clinical manifestation may be present?
- A. moist skin
- B. weight gain
- C. fluid overload
- D. poor wound healing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Poor wound healing is a common clinical manifestation of type 1 diabetes mellitus. High blood glucose levels in diabetes can impair the body's ability to heal wounds effectively. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Moist skin is not a typical clinical manifestation of type 1 diabetes; instead, skin may become dry due to dehydration. Weight gain is unlikely as type 1 diabetes is characterized by weight loss. Fluid overload is also uncommon in type 1 diabetes, which is more commonly associated with dehydration due to frequent urination.
4. The nurse is caring for an 8-year-old girl with an endocrine disorder involving the posterior pituitary gland. What care would the nurse expect to implement?
- A. Instructing the parents to report adverse reactions to the growth hormone treatment
- B. Teaching the parents how to administer desmopressin acetate
- C. Informing the parents that treatment continues during puberty
- D. Educating the parents to report signs of acute adrenal crisis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: For a child with a disorder of the posterior pituitary gland, desmopressin acetate is a medication commonly used to manage the condition by replacing the antidiuretic hormone. Instructing the parents on how to administer desmopressin acetate correctly is essential for the child's care. Choice A is incorrect because growth hormone treatment is not typically used for posterior pituitary disorders. Choice C is incorrect as treatment for this condition usually continues beyond puberty. Choice D is incorrect as acute adrenal crisis is not directly related to a disorder of the posterior pituitary gland.
5. A child with a diagnosis of hemophilia is admitted to the hospital with a bleeding episode. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administering pain medication
- B. Monitoring for signs of infection
- C. Administering factor VIII
- D. Ensuring a safe environment
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is administering factor VIII. Hemophilia is a genetic disorder characterized by a deficiency in clotting factors, such as factor VIII. Administering factor VIII is crucial in managing bleeding episodes in hemophiliac patients. Pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice B) is important for overall care but is not the priority during a bleeding episode. Ensuring a safe environment (Choice D) is also important but not the priority intervention when managing a bleeding episode in a child with hemophilia.
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