HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet
1. A client with cirrhosis is receiving lactulose. What is the desired effect of this medication?
- A. Decrease blood glucose levels
- B. Reduce serum ammonia levels
- C. Increase platelet count
- D. Lower serum bilirubin levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduce serum ammonia levels. Lactulose is used to reduce serum ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis, helping to prevent hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose works by acidifying the colon, trapping ammonia for excretion. Decreasing blood glucose levels (choice A) is not the primary effect of lactulose. Increasing platelet count (choice C) and lowering serum bilirubin levels (choice D) are not direct effects of lactulose in the management of cirrhosis.
2. The nurse is caring for a newborn with a myelomeningocele. Before surgery, what should the nursing interventions include?
- A. Leaving the lesion uncovered and placing the infant supine
- B. Covering the lesion with a sterile, saline-soaked gauze
- C. Applying lotion to the lesion to keep it moist
- D. Covering the lesion with a dry, sterile gauze
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention before surgery for a newborn with a myelomeningocele is to cover the lesion with a sterile, saline-soaked gauze. This helps protect the exposed spinal cord and meninges from infection and damage. Choice A is incorrect because leaving the lesion uncovered can increase the risk of infection. Choice C is incorrect because applying lotion can introduce contaminants to the lesion. Choice D is incorrect because covering the lesion with a dry gauze can lead to adherence of the gauze to the wound, causing trauma upon removal and disrupting the healing process.
3. The settings on a client's synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) are respiratory rate 12 breaths/minute, tidal volume at 600 mL, FiO2 35%, and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) 5 cm H2O. Which assessment finding necessitates immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases.
- B. Low-pressure indicator alarm.
- C. Oxygen saturation of 91%.
- D. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A low-pressure alarm may indicate a disconnection or leak in the system, which needs immediate intervention. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases may indicate fluid overload but do not require immediate intervention in this case. An oxygen saturation of 91% is concerning but not as urgent as a potential equipment issue. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute is higher than the set rate but may not necessitate immediate intervention unless accompanied by other distress symptoms.
4. A community hit by a hurricane has suffered mass destruction and flooding. Several facilities are not functioning, and the area is contaminated with human excretions. The nurse is developing a plan of care for clients diagnosed with cholera after an outbreak. Which intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Administer prophylactic antibiotics as prescribed.
- B. Provide fluid and electrolyte replacement.
- C. Isolate all infectious diarrhea victims.
- D. Administer cholera vaccine.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Providing fluid and electrolyte replacement is the highest priority to prevent dehydration and shock in clients with cholera. Administering prophylactic antibiotics may be necessary but is not the highest priority. Isolating infectious diarrhea victims is important for preventing the spread of infection, but addressing fluid and electrolyte imbalances takes precedence. Administering a cholera vaccine is preventive and not the immediate priority in treating clients already diagnosed with cholera.
5. Ten hours following thrombolysis for an ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), a client is receiving a lidocaine infusion for isolated runs of ventricular tachycardia. Which finding should the nurse document in the EMR as a therapeutic response to the lidocaine infusion?
- A. Stabilization of BP ranges
- B. Cessation of chest pain
- C. Reduced heart rate
- D. Decreased frequency of episodes of VT
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Decreased frequency of ventricular tachycardia (VT) episodes indicates that the lidocaine infusion is effectively managing the ventricular tachycardia. Stabilization of BP ranges (choice A) may not directly correlate with the therapeutic response to lidocaine for VT. Cessation of chest pain (choice B) may indicate pain relief but does not specifically address the effectiveness of lidocaine for VT. Reduced heart rate (choice C) is not a direct indicator of the response to lidocaine for managing VT.
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