HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet
1. Which laboratory results should the nurse anticipate to be abnormal in a child with hemophilia?
- A. Prothrombin time
- B. Bleeding time
- C. Platelet count
- D. Partial thromboplastin time
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a child with hemophilia, the nurse should anticipate an abnormality in the partial thromboplastin time (PTT) due to the deficiency in clotting factors. Prothrombin time, bleeding time, and platelet count are typically normal in hemophilia. Prothrombin time measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not affected in hemophilia. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, which is normal in hemophilia as the issue lies with clotting proteins, not platelets. Platelet count is also expected to be normal unless there is another underlying condition affecting platelet production or function.
2. Which is a priority nursing intervention for the cognitively impaired child?
- A. The family will provide good nutrition.
- B. The family will provide loving interactions.
- C. Stimulation will improve.
- D. There will be contact with peers.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because nursing interventions for cognitively impaired children prioritize promoting loving interactions with family. This support helps in creating a nurturing environment that contributes to the child's well-being and development. Choice A is not the priority as good nutrition, though important, may not address the immediate emotional and social needs of the child. Choice C is vague and does not specify how stimulation will be provided. Choice D, contact with peers, is also valuable but not as crucial as the primary relationships and interactions within the family unit for a cognitively impaired child.
3. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Administer antihypertensive medication as prescribed.
- B. Place the client in a supine position.
- C. Obtain a detailed health history.
- D. Monitor urine output.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering antihypertensive medication is the priority nursing action in this situation. The extremely high blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg puts the client at risk of severe complications such as stroke, heart attack, or kidney damage. Lowering the blood pressure promptly is crucial to prevent these complications. Placing the client in a supine position or obtaining a detailed health history are not immediate actions needed to address the hypertensive crisis. Monitoring urine output, although important, is not the priority when the client's blood pressure is critically high.
4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a chest tube. Which finding indicates that the chest tube is functioning properly?
- A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
- B. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
- C. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber
- D. Fluid level in the suction control chamber is below the prescribed level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tidaling in the water seal chamber indicates proper chest tube function. Tidaling refers to the rise and fall of fluid in the water seal with inhalation and exhalation, demonstrating the patency of the system. Continuous bubbling (Choice A) in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber (Choice C) is not a desired finding as it suggests no drainage is occurring. A fluid level below the prescribed level in the suction control chamber (Choice D) may indicate inadequate suction.
5. An older male client tells the nurse that he is losing sleep because he has to get up several times at night to go to the bathroom, that he has trouble starting his urinary stream, and that he does not feel like his bladder is ever completely empty. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Collect a urine specimen for culture analysis
- B. Review the client's fluid intake prior to bedtime
- C. Palpate the bladder above the symphysis pubis
- D. Obtain a fingerstick glucose level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Palpating the bladder above the symphysis pubis is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. It helps assess for urinary retention, which is a common issue in older males presenting with symptoms like difficulty starting urinary stream and feeling of incomplete bladder emptying. Collecting a urine specimen for culture analysis (Choice A) may be necessary in other situations like suspected urinary tract infection. Reviewing the client's fluid intake (Choice B) is important but does not directly address the current issue of urinary retention. Obtaining a fingerstick glucose level (Choice D) is not relevant to the client's urinary symptoms.
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