HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet
1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a chest tube. Which finding indicates that the chest tube is functioning properly?
- A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
- B. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
- C. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber
- D. Fluid level in the suction control chamber is below the prescribed level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tidaling in the water seal chamber indicates proper chest tube function. Tidaling refers to the rise and fall of fluid in the water seal with inhalation and exhalation, demonstrating the patency of the system. Continuous bubbling (Choice A) in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber (Choice C) is not a desired finding as it suggests no drainage is occurring. A fluid level below the prescribed level in the suction control chamber (Choice D) may indicate inadequate suction.
2. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?
- A. Stop taking insulin until feeling better
- B. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration
- C. Consume high-carbohydrate foods only
- D. Check blood glucose levels frequently
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to check blood glucose levels frequently. During illness, such as nausea and vomiting, managing blood glucose levels is crucial in clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Monitoring blood glucose levels frequently helps in adjusting insulin doses appropriately, preventing complications like hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Choice A is incorrect because stopping insulin abruptly can lead to serious complications. Choice B is important but not the most critical in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as high-carbohydrate foods may further affect blood glucose levels negatively.
3. A client with liver cirrhosis is at risk for developing hepatic encephalopathy. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Kussmaul respirations
- B. Asterixis (flapping tremor)
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Asterixis, also known as a flapping tremor, is a common sign of hepatic encephalopathy, indicating neurological dysfunction due to liver failure. Kussmaul respirations (option A) are associated with metabolic acidosis, which is not a typical manifestation of hepatic encephalopathy. Bradycardia (option C) and hypertension (option D) are not typically associated with hepatic encephalopathy; in fact, hepatic encephalopathy is more commonly associated with alterations in mental status, neuromuscular abnormalities, and changes in behavior.
4. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Administer antihypertensive medication as prescribed.
- B. Place the client in a supine position.
- C. Obtain a detailed health history.
- D. Monitor urine output.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering antihypertensive medication is the priority nursing action in this situation. The extremely high blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg puts the client at risk of severe complications such as stroke, heart attack, or kidney damage. Lowering the blood pressure promptly is crucial to prevent these complications. Placing the client in a supine position or obtaining a detailed health history are not immediate actions needed to address the hypertensive crisis. Monitoring urine output, although important, is not the priority when the client's blood pressure is critically high.
5. A client is admitted to the emergency department with symptoms of arm numbness, chest pain, and nausea/vomiting. The examining healthcare provider believes that the client has experienced an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) within the past three hours and would like to initiate tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) therapy. Which client history findings contraindicate the use of tPA?
- A. Treats hypoglycemia with an oral hypoglycemic agent.
- B. Had a cerebrovascular hemorrhage 2 months ago.
- C. Current age 65, father died of MI at 55.
- D. Report of being intolerant of medication that contains aspirin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A history of cerebrovascular hemorrhage is a contraindication for tPA therapy due to the risk of bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because treating hypoglycemia with an oral hypoglycemic agent is not a contraindication for tPA therapy. Choice C is incorrect as age and family history of MI do not contraindicate the use of tPA. Choice D is incorrect as being intolerant of medication containing aspirin is not a contraindication for tPA therapy.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $149.99