Free HESI LPN Medical Surgical Nursing practice for Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet (HESI LPN). Answer 45 nursing exam-style questions with ration
A client with a spinal cord injury at the level of T1 is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia. Which symptom is indicative of this condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries at T6 or above. It is characterized by a sudden onset of severe hypertension, pounding headache, profuse sweating, nasal congestion, and flushing of the skin above the level of injury. The severe headache is a key symptom resulting from uncontrolled hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as autonomic dysreflexia typically presents with hypertension, not hypotension, tachycardia, or flushed skin below the level of injury.
A teenage girl has been placed in a brace for the treatment of scoliosis, the most common skeletal deformity of adolescence. The family asks what they can do to be more supportive. What suggestion from the nurse is the most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate suggestion from the nurse is to recommend purchasing clothes to disguise the brace. Adolescents with scoliosis often have body image concerns and wish to fit in with their peers. By providing clothes that help conceal the brace, the family can support the teenage girl's emotional well-being. Choices A, B, and D do not directly address the adolescent's concerns about body image and fitting in, making them less appropriate in this situation.
When is the best time to administer pancreatic enzyme replacement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to administer pancreatic enzyme replacement before meals and snacks. This timing is crucial as it allows the enzymes to assist in the digestion of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins that are consumed during the meals. Administering the replacement after meals and snacks would not be effective as the enzymes need to be present in the digestive system when food is consumed. Options B and C are incorrect as they do not align with the optimal timing for pancreatic enzyme replacement administration.
Since children with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) take medication for long periods of time, side effects must be considered. How often should children be assessed for side effects of the drug therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Children with ADHD who are on long-term medication therapy should be assessed for side effects every 6 months. This timeframe allows healthcare providers to monitor the effects of the medication and make any necessary adjustments. Checking every 2 months (Choice A) may be too frequent and not practical for routine monitoring, while checking every 4 or 8 months (Choices B and D) may lead to missing potential side effects or delays in addressing them.
An older adult woman with a long history of COPD is admitted with progressive shortness of breath and a persistent cough, is anxious, and is complaining of dry mouth. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assisting the client to an upright position is the most appropriate intervention in this situation. Placing the client upright helps improve lung expansion by reducing diaphragmatic pressure, facilitating better air exchange, and increasing oxygenation. This position also aids in easing breathing efforts. Administering a sedative (Choice A) may further depress the respiratory system, worsening the breathing problem. Encouraging the client to drink water (Choice B) may not directly address the respiratory distress caused by COPD. Applying a high flow venturi mask (Choice C) may be beneficial in some cases but assisting the client to an upright position should be the priority to optimize respiratory function.
A client admitted to a surgical unit is being evaluated for an intestinal obstruction. The HCP prescribes an NG tube to be inserted and placed on intermittent low wall suction. Which intervention should the nurse implement to facilitate proper tube placement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Elevating the head of the bed 60 to 90 degrees is the correct intervention to facilitate proper placement of the NG tube. This position helps to use gravity to guide the tube smoothly into the gastrointestinal tract. Soaking the NG tube in warm water (Choice A) is not necessary for proper placement. Inserting the tube with the client's head tilted back (Choice B) can cause discomfort and may lead to improper placement. Applying suction while inserting the tube (Choice C) is not recommended as it can cause trauma to the nasal passages and esophagus.
A male client tells the nurse that he is experiencing burning on urination, and assessment reveals that he had sexual intercourse four days ago with a woman he casually met. Which action should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture. This procedure can help diagnose the cause of burning on urination, which could be indicative of a sexually transmitted infection. Option A, observing for a chancroid-like lesion, may not be the most immediate or relevant action in this case. Option C, assessing for perineal itching, erythema, and excoriation, is important but obtaining a culture specimen would provide more specific diagnostic information. Option D, identifying all sexual partners, is relevant for contact tracing but obtaining a culture specimen is the priority to determine the current infection status.
What is the hallmark sign of intussusception?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The hallmark sign of intussusception is currant jelly-like stools, which result from the mixture of blood and mucus in the stool due to the sloughing of intestinal mucosa. Mucus-like stools (Choice A) are not typically associated with intussusception. Tarry, black stools (Choice C) are characteristic of gastrointestinal bleeding higher up in the gastrointestinal tract, such as from a peptic ulcer. Green, soft stools (Choice D) are more indicative of rapid transit through the intestines, possibly due to dietary factors or infections such as gastroenteritis.
A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Hemoglobin and hematocrit. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, so monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is essential to assess its effectiveness. These values reflect the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and can indicate if the treatment is improving anemia related to chronic kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine are indicators of kidney function, while serum potassium levels are monitored due to electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in kidney disease, but they do not directly reflect the effectiveness of epoetin alfa.
An older client is receiving an IV of 5% dextrose in 0.45% normal saline at 75 mL/hour. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the client is developing a complication from this therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Tachycardia and dyspnea are signs of fluid overload, which is a potential complication of IV fluid therapy. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to fluid overload and are not typical signs of complications associated with the IV fluid therapy being administered.
What pathophysiologic process is producing the symptoms of gout in a client with sudden onset of big toe joint pain and swelling?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Gout is characterized by the deposition of uric acid crystals in the synovial fluid of joints, which triggers inflammation and pain. This process is known as crystal-induced arthritis. Choice B is incorrect as gout does not involve degeneration of joint cartilage. Choice C is incorrect as gout is not caused by an infection of the joint space. Choice D is incorrect as gout does not result from increased synovial fluid but rather from the deposition of uric acid crystals.
A client who was discharged 8 months ago with cirrhosis and ascites is admitted with anorexia and recent hemoptysis. The client is drowsy but responds to verbal stimuli. The nurse programs a blood pressure monitor to take readings every 15 minutes. Which assessment should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with a history of cirrhosis and ascites presenting with anorexia and recent hemoptysis, palpating the abdomen for tenderness and rigidity is crucial as it helps in identifying signs of complications related to these conditions. Assessing for abdominal tenderness and rigidity can provide valuable information about the presence of internal bleeding, ascites complications, or liver enlargement. Evaluating distal capillary refill, checking for bruising and petechiae, or examining peritibial regions for pitting edema are important assessments but are not the priority in this case, given the client's history and current symptoms.
While planning care for a client with carpal tunnel syndrome, the nurse identifies a collaborative problem of pain. What is the etiology of this problem?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Compression of a nerve. In carpal tunnel syndrome, pain arises from the compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel. This compression leads to symptoms such as pain, numbness, and tingling in the hand and arm. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because carpal tunnel syndrome pain is primarily caused by the physical compression of the nerve, rather than irritation of nerve endings, diminished blood flow, or ischemic tissue changes.
When conducting a class for parents about sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), the nurse instructs the class that the infant should be placed in which position to sleep?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, supine. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends placing infants on their back, or supine, to sleep as it has been shown to reduce the risk of SIDS. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because placing infants on their right side, left side, or prone (on their stomach) respectively are not recommended sleeping positions due to the increased risk of SIDS associated with those positions.
An older adult with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) was recently admitted to the hospital with heart failure (HF). Which actions should the nurse take in providing care? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a patient with COPD and HF, monitoring electrolyte levels is essential due to potential imbalances caused by medications or fluid shifts. Maintaining pulse oximetry is crucial to assess oxygenation status in COPD and HF. Providing assistance with mobility helps prevent deconditioning and complications. Therefore, all the actions mentioned are necessary for comprehensive care in this scenario, making option D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are all important aspects of managing COPD and HF, ensuring holistic and effective care.
A client with hypertension is prescribed a low-sodium diet. Which food should the client avoid?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Processed cheese. Processed cheese is high in sodium and should be avoided in a low-sodium diet for clients with hypertension. Fresh fruits, whole grain bread, and fresh vegetables are generally low in sodium and can be part of a healthy diet for clients with hypertension.
Twelve hours following a unilateral total knee replacement, a client reports being unable to sleep because of severe incisional pain. What is the best initial nursing action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Instructing the client in the use of the PCA pump is the best initial nursing action for managing severe incisional pain after knee replacement surgery. The PCA pump allows the client to self-administer pain medication effectively, promoting better pain management. Administering a sedative may mask the pain temporarily but doesn't address the root cause. Repositioning the client for comfort or applying ice packs may provide some relief but doesn't address the need for effective pain control as the PCA pump does.
What should be included in the medical management of sickle cell crisis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Provisions for adequate hydration and pain management. In managing a sickle cell crisis, it is essential to provide adequate hydration to prevent further sickling of red blood cells and ensure proper pain management to alleviate the severe pain associated with the crisis. While information for parents and home care may be important aspects of overall care, they are not specific to the immediate medical management of a sickle cell crisis. Administration of iron supplements is not recommended during a sickle cell crisis as it can potentially worsen the condition by promoting the production of more sickled red blood cells. Adequate oxygenation is crucial in sickle cell disease, but factor VIII is not typically part of the management of a sickle cell crisis.
The nurse is caring for a newborn with a myelomeningocele. Before surgery, what should the nursing interventions include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention before surgery for a newborn with a myelomeningocele is to cover the lesion with a sterile, saline-soaked gauze. This helps protect the exposed spinal cord and meninges from infection and damage. Choice A is incorrect because leaving the lesion uncovered can increase the risk of infection. Choice C is incorrect because applying lotion can introduce contaminants to the lesion. Choice D is incorrect because covering the lesion with a dry gauze can lead to adherence of the gauze to the wound, causing trauma upon removal and disrupting the healing process.
A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed sucralfate. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Covers the ulcer site and protects it from acid. Sucralfate works by forming a protective barrier over ulcers, shielding them from stomach acid and promoting healing. Choice A, neutralizing stomach acid, is incorrect as sucralfate does not neutralize acid but acts as a physical barrier. Choice B, decreasing gastric acid secretion, is not the mechanism of action of sucralfate. Choice D, improving gastric motility, is unrelated to sucralfate's action on peptic ulcers.
A client with a new colostomy is concerned about odor. What is the best advice the nurse can provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best advice the nurse can provide to a client concerned about odor from a new colostomy is to use an odor-proof pouch. This option helps control odors effectively by containing and masking any unpleasant smells. Avoiding high-fiber foods (Choice A) is not the best advice as fiber is essential for bowel health, and decreasing fluid intake (Choice C) can lead to dehydration and other complications. Increasing dairy products in the diet (Choice D) is not directly related to controlling odors from a colostomy.
A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed methimazole. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Agranulocytosis. Methimazole, used to treat hyperthyroidism, can lead to agranulocytosis, a severe decrease in white blood cells. This condition increases the risk of infections and requires immediate medical attention. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of methimazole. Bradycardia (choice C) is unlikely as methimazole tends to have minimal effects on heart rate. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is not associated with methimazole use.
A male client with muscular dystrophy fell in his home and is admitted with a right hip fracture. His right foot is cool, with palpable pedal pulses. Lungs are coarse with diminished bibasilar breath sounds. Vital signs are temperature 101 degrees F, heart rate 128 beats/minute, respirations 28 breaths/minute, and blood pressure 122/82. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering an antipyretic is the most important intervention. The client presents with an elevated temperature, tachycardia, and tachypnea, indicating a fever. Lowering the temperature with an antipyretic is crucial to prevent complications like dehydration, altered mental status, and increased oxygen demand. While assessing lower extremity circulation and oxygen saturation are important, addressing the elevated temperature takes priority in this scenario. Incentive spirometry may be beneficial but is not the priority compared to managing the fever.
The settings on a client's synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) are respiratory rate 12 breaths/minute, tidal volume at 600 mL, FiO2 35%, and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) 5 cm H2O. Which assessment finding necessitates immediate intervention by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A low-pressure alarm may indicate a disconnection or leak in the system, which needs immediate intervention. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases may indicate fluid overload but do not require immediate intervention in this case. An oxygen saturation of 91% is concerning but not as urgent as a potential equipment issue. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute is higher than the set rate but may not necessitate immediate intervention unless accompanied by other distress symptoms.
The parents of a child who has been diagnosed with sickle cell anemia ask why their child experiences pain. What is the most likely cause of the pain?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Obstructed blood flow. In sickle cell anemia, the sickle-shaped red blood cells can clump together, obstructing blood flow in the vessels. This obstruction leads to tissue hypoxia (lack of oxygen) and necrosis, causing pain. Choice A, inflammation of the vessels, is not the primary cause of pain in sickle cell anemia. Choice C, overhydration, is unrelated to the pathophysiology of sickle cell anemia. Choice D, stress-related headaches, is not a characteristic symptom of sickle cell anemia.
What is the best position for a client experiencing a nosebleed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best position for a client experiencing a nosebleed is sitting up and leaning forward. This position helps prevent blood from flowing down the throat and reduces the risk of aspiration. Choice B is incorrect as lying flat can lead to blood flowing down the throat. Choice C is also incorrect because leaning back may cause blood to flow backward into the throat. Choice D is incorrect as lying on the side with the head elevated is not the optimal position to manage a nosebleed effectively.
During a home visit, the nurse assesses the skin of a client with eczema who reports that an exacerbation of symptoms has occurred during the last week. Which information is most useful in determining the possible cause of the symptoms?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Contact with the grandson's new dog could have introduced new allergens or irritants, exacerbating the eczema symptoms. Choice A is unrelated to the exacerbation of symptoms. Choice B, receiving an influenza immunization, is unlikely to directly cause an exacerbation of eczema symptoms. Choice D, applying corticosteroid cream, is a common treatment for eczema and would not likely be the cause of the exacerbation.
A client with asthma is prescribed a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) with albuterol. Which instruction is essential for the nurse to provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to 'Shake the inhaler well before use.' This instruction is crucial as shaking the inhaler ensures the proper mixing of the medication, which is essential for its effective delivery. Option A is incorrect because using the inhaler only before bedtime may not provide adequate relief during the day. Option C is incorrect as exhaling fully is a good practice but not the most essential instruction. Option D is incorrect as taking two puffs every hour may exceed the recommended dosage and lead to adverse effects.
In the change of shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.' Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and typically appear as shallow open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B describes a stage 1 ulcer, where the skin is intact but shows non-blanchable redness. Choice C describes a stage 3 ulcer, with full-thickness tissue loss exposing fat. Choice D is characteristic of a stage 4 ulcer, where there is full-thickness tissue loss exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. Therefore, option A best fits the description of a stage 2 pressure ulcer.
What are the clinical manifestations of otitis media?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Fever, irritability, pulling on the ear. Clinical manifestations of otitis media commonly include fever, irritability, and children may show signs of pulling or rubbing their ears. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A includes wheezing and vomiting, which are not typical symptoms of otitis media. Choice B includes coughing, rhinorrhea, and headache, which are more commonly associated with upper respiratory infections rather than otitis media. Choice D includes wheezing, cough, and drainage in the ear canal, which are not typical clinical manifestations of otitis media.
A client with hyperkalemia is being treated in the emergency department. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B, Calcium gluconate. In hyperkalemia, where potassium levels are elevated, calcium gluconate is administered to stabilize the myocardial cell membrane and protect the heart from potential arrhythmias. Potassium chloride (choice A) would worsen the condition by further increasing potassium levels. Magnesium sulfate (choice C) is not the primary treatment for hyperkalemia. Sodium bicarbonate (choice D) is used in metabolic acidosis, not specifically for hyperkalemia.
An adolescent female asks the nurse about taking retinoic acid (Accutane). What guidance should be provided by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct guidance the nurse should provide is that sexually active females must use contraception while taking Accutane and for 1 month after the 20 weeks it is prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because Accutane is typically taken for a longer duration than 10 weeks. Choice C is incorrect because Accutane does not lower hemoglobin levels quickly. Choice D is incorrect as Accutane is known for having many side effects, including the risk of birth defects.
What is a priority action for the nurse when caring for a client with suspected meningitis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering intravenous antibiotics is the priority when caring for a client with suspected meningitis. The prompt administration of antibiotics is crucial to treat bacterial meningitis and prevent potential complications. Isolating the client in a private room may be necessary to prevent the spread of infection, but antibiotic administration takes precedence. Obtaining a throat culture and performing a chest x-ray are important diagnostic measures, but they do not address the immediate need for antibiotic therapy in suspected bacterial meningitis.
A new mother asks the clinic nurse if she must continue giving her baby nystatin for thrush since the white lesions on his tongue have disappeared. What response by the nurse is most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because nystatin should be given for the full 7 days even if the lesions are no longer present. Continuing the treatment for the prescribed duration ensures complete eradication of the fungal infection. Choice A is incorrect as stopping the medication prematurely may lead to the reoccurrence of thrush. Choice C is inaccurate as nystatin is not just for comfort but for effective treatment. Choice D is incorrect as refilling the medication for a second week without medical advice may lead to unnecessary prolonged use and potential side effects.
What is the most critical initial intervention for a client who is actively seizing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most critical initial intervention for a client who is actively seizing is to turn the client to the side. This action helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration during a seizure. Restrain the client to prevent injury (Choice A) is incorrect because restraining a client during a seizure can lead to injury. Inserting an oral airway (Choice B) is not recommended as it can cause injury and is not necessary during an active seizure. Applying soft restraints to the wrists (Choice D) is also not recommended as it can lead to harm and does not address the immediate airway management needed during a seizure.
An adult woman with primary Raynaud phenomenon develops pallor and then cyanosis of her fingers. After warming her hands, the fingers turn red, and the client reports a burning sensation. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In primary Raynaud phenomenon, the fingers go through a color sequence of pallor, cyanosis, and then redness when warmed. The burning sensation reported by the client indicates reperfusion. Continuing to monitor the fingers until the color returns to normal is appropriate in this situation as it ensures that the symptoms are resolving without the need for further intervention. Applying a cool compress could exacerbate the symptoms by causing vasoconstriction. Securing a pulse oximeter to monitor oxygen saturation is not necessary in this case as the issue is related to vasospasm rather than oxygenation. Reporting the finding to the healthcare provider is not urgent unless there are signs of complications or the symptoms do not improve with warming.
The nurse prepares a teaching plan for an adult client with metabolic syndrome. Which findings should the nurse address to help the client reduce the risk for diabetes mellitus and vascular disease? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, as all the listed factors - abdominal obesity, high blood pressure, and increased triglyceride levels - are components of metabolic syndrome. Addressing these findings is crucial to help reduce the client's risk for developing diabetes mellitus and vascular disease. Abdominal obesity is a key feature of metabolic syndrome, high blood pressure (150/96 mmHg) is a risk factor, and increased triglyceride levels are also indicative of the syndrome. Educating the client on lifestyle modifications, such as healthy eating habits, regular physical activity, and monitoring these parameters, is essential in managing metabolic syndrome and preventing associated complications. Choices A, B, and C are all correct, making choice D the correct answer.
What information should the nurse include in the teaching plan of a client diagnosed with GERD?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Minimize symptoms by wearing loose, comfortable clothing.' Wearing loose, comfortable clothing can help reduce pressure on the abdomen, which can alleviate GERD symptoms. Option A is incorrect as sleeping without using pillows is not a recommended practice for managing GERD. Option B is incorrect because it suggests adjusting food intake to five small meals throughout the day instead of three full meals with no snacks, which may not be suitable for everyone with GERD. Option D is incorrect as avoiding participation in any aerobic exercise program is not a standard recommendation for managing GERD; in fact, engaging in low-impact exercises like walking or swimming can be beneficial.
Which nursing diagnosis should be selected for a client who is receiving thrombolytic infusions for treatment of an acute myocardial infarction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Thrombolytic therapy increases the risk of bleeding, not infection, fluid volume deficit, or impaired skin integrity. The most significant concern with thrombolytic therapy is the potential for bleeding complications, which can lead to various injuries. Therefore, 'Risk for injury related to effects of thrombolysis' is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis in this scenario. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with the primary risk associated with thrombolytic therapy.
A client with a history of asthma and bronchitis arrives at the clinic with shortness of breath, productive cough with thickening mucus, and the inability to walk up a flight of stairs without experiencing breathlessness. Which action is most important for the nurse to instruct the client about self-care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Increasing fluid intake is crucial as it helps to thin mucus secretions, making them easier to expectorate. This can alleviate the client's symptoms of shortness of breath and productive cough. Option B is not the most important action in this scenario, as it does not directly address the client's respiratory distress. Option C, while important, focuses on medication side effects rather than addressing the immediate breathing difficulties. Option D, teaching anxiety reduction methods, is not the priority when the client's main concern is respiratory distress.
The nurse is assessing a client who reports sudden onset of severe eye pain and blurred vision. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider immediately (Choice B). Sudden severe eye pain and blurred vision can indicate acute angle-closure glaucoma, which is a medical emergency requiring prompt evaluation and treatment to prevent vision loss. Administering pain medication (Choice A) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying cause. Placing an eye patch (Choice C) may not be appropriate without knowing the exact cause of the symptoms. Preparing for a CT scan (Choice D) is not the immediate priority in this situation where urgent medical attention is needed.
A client with AIDS has impaired gas exchange from a respiratory infection. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with AIDS and impaired gas exchange from a respiratory infection, pain when swallowing can indicate esophageal involvement, such as esophagitis or an esophageal infection like candidiasis. These conditions can significantly impact the client's ability to take in nutrition and medications, leading to complications like dehydration and malnutrition. Therefore, immediate intervention is required to address the underlying cause and prevent further complications. Elevated temperature (choice A) may indicate infection but does not directly address the impaired gas exchange. Generalized weakness (choice B) and diminished lung sounds (choice C) are concerning but do not directly relate to the immediate need for intervention in the context of esophageal involvement in a client with impaired gas exchange.
What could suddenly occur in a child with acute epiglottitis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In acute epiglottitis, the infected epiglottis becomes inflamed and can lead to sudden airway obstruction, which is a life-threatening emergency. This can cause difficulty breathing and necessitates immediate intervention to secure the airway. Increased carbon dioxide levels may occur due to inadequate ventilation resulting from airway obstruction, but the primary concern is the obstruction itself, not the carbon dioxide levels. Inability to swallow may be present due to pain and swelling in the throat but is not the immediate life-threatening complication associated with acute epiglottitis. Bronchial collapse is not a typical consequence of acute epiglottitis.
What should the nurse caring for a 6-year-old child with acute glomerulonephritis anticipate as the most challenging aspect of care to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Bed rest. During the acute phase of glomerulonephritis, bed rest is usually recommended. A diet of restricted fluid, sodium, potassium, and phosphate is initially required. Bed rest can be very challenging to implement with an active 6-year-old child. Forced fluids (choice A) may be necessary to maintain hydration. Increased feedings (choice B) may not be as difficult to implement as bed rest. Frequent position changes (choice D) may also be important but are not typically the most challenging aspect of care for a child with acute glomerulonephritis.
On the first postoperative day, the nurse finds an older male client disoriented and trying to climb over the bed railing. Previously, he was oriented to person, place, and time on admission. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention the nurse should implement first is to determine the client's blood pressure. Assessing the blood pressure is crucial in this situation to rule out physiological causes like hypotension leading to the client's disorientation. Administering a sedative (Choice A) without understanding the underlying cause may worsen the situation. Applying soft restraints (Choice C) should not be the initial action and can be considered later if necessary. Calling for assistance (Choice D) may be needed eventually, but assessing the client's blood pressure takes precedence to address the immediate concern.
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