HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Test Bank
1. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who reports chills and aching joints. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the client has an infection?
- A. WBC 15,000/mm³
- B. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
- C. Platelet count 300,000/mm³
- D. Sodium 140 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An elevated white blood cell count (WBC 15,000/mm³) is a common indicator of infection as the body increases WBC production to fight off pathogens. In conditions like infections, inflammation, or stress, the WBC count can rise. The other options, hemoglobin, platelet count, and sodium levels, are not typically specific indicators of infection. Hemoglobin measures the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells, platelet count assesses clotting ability, and sodium levels indicate electrolyte balance.
2. What intervention can help prevent atelectasis and pneumonia in a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
- A. Active and passive range of motion exercises twice a day
- B. Every 4 hours incentive spirometer
- C. Chest physiotherapy twice a day
- D. Repositioning every 2 hours around the clock
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chest physiotherapy is essential for clients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) to prevent atelectasis and pneumonia. Chest physiotherapy aids in clearing secretions, maintaining lung function, and preventing respiratory complications. Active and passive range of motion exercises (Choice A) are important for maintaining joint mobility but are not directly associated with preventing atelectasis and pneumonia in ALS. Incentive spirometer use every 4 hours (Choice B) is beneficial for lung expansion and preventing atelectasis but may not be as effective as chest physiotherapy in managing secretions. Repositioning every 2 hours (Choice D) is crucial for preventing pressure ulcers but is not directly related to preventing atelectasis and pneumonia in ALS.
3. The client with a diagnosis of chronic heart failure is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will weigh myself every day at the same time.
- B. I will call my doctor if my legs swell more.
- C. I will take my water pill only when I feel short of breath.
- D. I will limit the amount of salt in my diet.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Taking water pills (diuretics) only when feeling short of breath is incorrect. Diuretics should be taken regularly as prescribed to help manage fluid retention in chronic heart failure. This statement indicates a need for further teaching as the client needs to understand the importance of consistent medication adherence. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate good understanding of self-care management in heart failure, including daily weight monitoring, prompt reporting of worsening symptoms to the healthcare provider, and dietary sodium restriction, respectively.
4. During the admission assessment of a terminally ill male client, he states that he is agnostic. What is the best nursing action in response to this statement?
- A. Provide information about the hours and location of the chapel
- B. Document the statement of the client’s spiritual assessment
- C. Invite the client to a healing service for people of all religions
- D. Offer to contact a spiritual advisor of the client’s choice
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best nursing action in response to a terminally ill client stating their agnostic beliefs is to document the client's spiritual assessment. By documenting this information, the healthcare team can ensure that the client's beliefs are acknowledged and respected in their care plan. Providing information about the chapel's hours or inviting the client to a healing service may not align with the client's beliefs and preferences. Offering to contact a spiritual advisor of the client's choice may not be necessary if the client has clearly stated their agnostic beliefs, as they may not wish to engage in spiritual counseling.
5. During a neurological assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client's balance. Which of the following examinations should the provider use for this purpose?
- A. Romberg test
- B. Deep tendon reflexes
- C. Mini-Mental State Examination
- D. Babinski reflex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Romberg test is utilized to assess the client's balance and proprioception by having them stand with their eyes closed. This test helps evaluate sensory ataxia, a condition where an individual's balance is affected due to impaired sensory input. Deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are assessed by tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves; this is not directly related to balance assessment. The Mini-Mental State Examination (Choice C) is a cognitive screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment or dementia, not balance. The Babinski reflex (Choice D) is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot to assess neurologic function, particularly in the corticospinal tract, and is not specific to balance evaluation.
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