Free HESI LPN Fundamentals of Nursing practice for HESI Fundamentals Test Bank (HESI LPN). Answer 94 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, an
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which finding should the nurse expect to observe?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is weight gain. In hypothyroidism, there is a decrease in metabolic rate, which can lead to weight gain. Heat intolerance (choice B) is more commonly associated with hyperthyroidism. Increased appetite (choice C) and frequent diarrhea (choice D) are not typical findings in hypothyroidism. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.
A healthcare professional is collecting a urine specimen for a client to test via urine dipstick to determine the urine's specific gravity. The healthcare professional knows the result will indicate the amount of:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Specific gravity measures the concentration of solutes in the urine, reflecting the kidney's ability to concentrate or dilute urine. Choice B, bacteria in the urine, is incorrect because specific gravity does not measure bacterial presence. Choice C, pH level of the urine, is incorrect as it refers to the acidity or alkalinity of the urine, not its specific gravity. Choice D, glucose in the urine, is incorrect as specific gravity does not directly measure glucose levels in urine.
The client with diabetes is being educated by the nurse on foot care. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Soaking the feet in warm water daily is not recommended for clients with diabetes as it can cause the skin to become too soft, increasing the risk of skin breakdown and infections. Checking the feet daily for cuts or sores (A) is a good practice to prevent complications. Avoiding walking barefoot (B) helps protect the feet from injuries. Wearing well-fitted shoes (D) is essential to prevent blisters and other foot problems in diabetic clients. Therefore, the client's statement about soaking the feet in warm water daily indicates a need for further teaching.
A client receiving chlorpromazine HCL (Thorazine) is in psychiatric home care. During a home visit, the nurse observes the client smacking her lips alternately with grinding her teeth. The nurse recognizes this assessment finding as what?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a potential side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, characterized by involuntary movements like lip smacking and repetitive, purposeless movements. Choice A, dystonia, presents with sustained or repetitive muscle contractions. Choice B, akathisia, involves motor restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion. Choice C, bradykinesia, refers to slowness of movement typically seen in Parkinson's disease, not lip smacking and teeth grinding, which are indicative of tardive dyskinesia.
The healthcare professional prepares a 1,000 ml IV of 5% dextrose and water to be infused over 8 hours. The infusion set delivers 10 drops per milliliter. The healthcare professional should regulate the IV to administer approximately how many drops per minute?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the drops per minute for the IV infusion, first determine the total drops to be infused over 8 hours. 1,000 ml to be infused over 8 hours means 125 ml per hour (1000 ml / 8 hours = 125 ml/hr). Since the infusion set delivers 10 drops per ml, 125 ml/hr x 10 drops/ml = 1250 drops/hr. To find drops per minute, divide the drops per hour by 60 (minutes in an hour): 1250 drops/hr / 60 minutes = 20.83 drops/minute, which rounds up to 21 drops per minute (Option C). This rate ensures the correct infusion rate over 8 hours. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect calculations and do not provide the appropriate infusion rate needed to administer the IV over the specified time period.
The nurse is teaching the parents of a child who has head lice (pediculosis capitis). Which information will the nurse include in the teaching session?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Head lice are highly contagious and can spread to furniture and other people if not treated promptly. Informing the parents about the potential spread of head lice emphasizes the importance of thorough treatment and prevention measures. Choice A is incorrect as regular shampoo is not typically effective in treating head lice. Choice B is incorrect as products containing lindane are not recommended due to safety concerns. Choice D is incorrect as manual removal, though labor-intensive, is a crucial step in effectively treating head lice infestations, but it is not the most pertinent information to include in the teaching session.
A nurse manager is preparing to review medication documentation with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statements should the nurse manager plan to include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to use the complete name of the medication magnesium sulfate. This is important to prevent confusion with morphine sulfate, which is abbreviated as MSO4. Choice B is incorrect as it is essential to maintain a space between the numerical dose and the unit of measure for clarity in medication documentation. Choice C is incorrect as the standard abbreviation for units is 'U' for international units, not for the dosage of insulin. Choice D is incorrect as the appropriate abbreviation for subcutaneous injection is 'SC,' not just 'SC.' Therefore, the nurse manager should emphasize using the full name of medications to avoid errors and ensure patient safety.
The client is receiving discharge instructions for warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Clients taking warfarin need to be consistent with their vitamin K intake to maintain a balance in blood clotting. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K is essential as they can interfere with the medication's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements regarding warfarin therapy. Regular blood testing to monitor INR levels ensures the medication is working effectively, taking the medication at the same time daily maintains a consistent level in the bloodstream, and using a soft toothbrush helps prevent gum bleeding due to warfarin's anticoagulant effects.
When should the nurse plan to collect a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity as ordered by a client's provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct time to collect a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity is in the morning upon rising. This timing ensures the most concentrated sample as sputum produced overnight tends to accumulate and sit in the airways, providing a quality sample for testing. Collecting the specimen immediately after eating breakfast (choice B) may introduce food particles that could contaminate the sample. Collecting it before bed (choice C) may lead to a diluted sample due to daily activities. Collecting the specimen after having a drink of water (choice D) can also result in a diluted sample, impacting the accuracy of the test results.
A 10-year-old client is recovering from a splenectomy following a traumatic injury. The client's laboratory results show a hemoglobin of 9 g/dL and a hematocrit of 28 percent. The best approach for the nurse to use is to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging bed rest and quiet activities is crucial for a child recovering from a splenectomy with low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. This approach helps conserve energy, promotes healing, and allows the body to focus on rebuilding red blood cells. Limiting milk and milk products (Choice A) is not directly related to improving the child's condition. Encouraging bed rest and quiet activities (Choice B) is appropriate as it helps in conserving energy and preventing physical exertion. Promoting a diet rich in iron (Choice D) is beneficial for improving hemoglobin levels in the long term, but immediate rest and recovery take precedence in this scenario.
The nurse is providing care for a client with a wound infection. Which type of precautions should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Contact precautions are necessary when caring for a client with a wound infection to prevent the spread of infection. Contact precautions involve practices such as wearing gloves and gowns, and ensuring proper hand hygiene. Airborne precautions are for diseases transmitted by small droplet nuclei that can remain suspended in the air, like tuberculosis. Droplet precautions are for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets larger than 5 microns, such as influenza. Standard precautions are used for all clients to prevent the spread of infection and include practices like hand hygiene, use of personal protective equipment, and safe injection practices. In this case, since the client has a wound infection, the nurse should focus on implementing contact precautions to reduce the risk of spreading the infection to themselves or others.
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is resistant to learning self-injection of insulin. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Asking the client what can be done to help overcome the fear of self-injections demonstrates empathy, understanding, and a willingness to support the client in addressing their barriers. This approach facilitates open communication, acknowledges the client's feelings, and involves them in the decision-making process. Choices B and C are authoritarian and may increase resistance in the client by being directive and not considering the client's perspective. Choice D, while positive, does not directly address the client's fear and resistance to self-injections, missing the opportunity to explore the underlying issues.
A healthcare professional is planning to document care provided for a client. Which of the following abbreviations should the professional use?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: PC for after meals. PC stands for 'post cibum,' which is the appropriate abbreviation for 'after meals' in medical documentation. Choices B, QD, and C, BID, represent 'every day' and 'twice a day,' respectively, which are not specific to meal times. Choice D, PRN, signifies 'as needed,' which is also not related to meal timings. Therefore, for documenting care provided after meals, the most suitable abbreviation is PC.
A client with pneumonia is receiving antibiotic therapy. Which finding indicates that the treatment is effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Increased breath sounds. When a client with pneumonia is receiving antibiotic therapy, increased breath sounds indicate that the lungs are clearing and the pneumonia is resolving. This improvement in breath sounds suggests that the antibiotics are effectively treating the infection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a decreased white blood cell count, decreased respiratory rate, and increased heart rate are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of antibiotic therapy in treating pneumonia. While these parameters may change in response to treatment, they do not directly reflect the resolution of the pneumonia infection.
The nurse is caring for an adult who has fluid volume excess. When weighing the client, the nurse should:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Weighing the client upon rising is the correct approach when caring for a client with fluid volume excess. Weighing the client in the morning upon rising provides a consistent and accurate measure of weight, as it helps to eliminate the influence of daily fluctuations that can occur throughout the day. Weighing at different times of the day (choice B) may lead to inconsistent measurements due to variations in food intake, hydration status, and other factors. Weighing the client after meals (choice C) can also lead to inaccurate readings as food and fluid intake can affect weight. Weighing the client weekly (choice D) is not frequent enough to monitor changes in weight accurately for a client with fluid volume excess.
A client admitted with sudden onset of severe back pain of unknown origin. Which statement would be most effective for the nurse to use to elicit further information from this client about his pain?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Describe the pain you are experiencing.' This question is the most effective as it prompts the client to provide detailed information about the nature of the pain, including its characteristics, intensity, and location. This detailed description can help the nurse in assessing the possible cause and severity of the pain. Choices A, C, and D are not as effective as they are either too general ('Tell me how you are feeling right now'), redundant ('Can you tell me more about your back pain?'), or focused only on timing and severity ('When did the pain start and how severe is it?').
When evaluating the effectiveness of a client's nursing care, the nurse first reviews the expected outcomes identified in the plan of care. What action should the nurse take next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After reviewing the expected outcomes in the plan of care, the nurse should obtain current client data to compare with these outcomes. This step is crucial in determining the effectiveness of the care provided. Choice A is incorrect because determining the realism of expected outcomes comes after assessing current client data. Choice C is incorrect as modifying nursing interventions should be based on the data comparison rather than done immediately after reviewing expected outcomes. Choice D is also incorrect as reviewing professional standards of care is important but not the immediate next step in evaluating care effectiveness.
When caring for an older adult client who becomes agitated when asked to remove dentures before surgery, which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response is to ask the client about their concerns regarding being without their teeth. This approach helps address the client's anxiety and provides insight into the reason for their agitation. Choice B is authoritarian and does not address the client's emotional needs. Choice C focuses on the technical aspect of surgery and does not address the client's emotional state. Choice D implies a one-way communication without addressing the client's feelings or concerns.
A healthcare professional is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change for a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Setting up the sterile field at waist level is crucial to maintaining its sterility during a dressing change. Choice A is incorrect because sterile gloves should be worn after opening sterile dressing supplies to prevent contamination. Choice C is incorrect as the entire border of the sterile field should be considered contaminated to maintain sterility. Choice D is incorrect because the cap of a sterile solution should never be placed inside the sterile field to prevent contamination.
The healthcare provider is assessing a client diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Fever in a client with rheumatoid arthritis can indicate an underlying infection or a more serious systemic involvement, such as vasculitis or inflammation of internal organs. These conditions can lead to serious complications and require immediate medical attention. Joint deformities and morning stiffness are common manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis itself and may not be indicative of an acute issue. Weight loss can be seen in chronic inflammatory conditions like rheumatoid arthritis but is not as concerning as fever, which suggests an acute process requiring prompt evaluation and intervention.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer medications to a client. Which of the following client identifiers should the healthcare professional use to ensure medication safety?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Comparing the client's wristband with the medication administration record is a crucial step in ensuring medication safety. The wristband typically contains unique identifiers such as the client's name, date of birth, and medical record number, which should be cross-checked with the medication administration record to confirm the correct patient. Asking the client to state their name (Choice A) or date of birth (Choice B) may not be as reliable as the information can be misunderstood or miscommunicated. Asking for the room number (Choice D) is not a reliable client identifier for medication administration and does not confirm the patient's identity accurately.
A client is scheduled for an IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram). Which of the following data from the client's history indicates a potential hazard for this test?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B, 'Allergic to shellfish.' An allergy to shellfish can indicate a sensitivity to iodine, which is used in the contrast dye for an IVP, posing a risk of an allergic reaction. Reflex incontinence (Choice A) is not directly related to the potential hazard of an IVP. Claustrophobia (Choice C) and hypertension (Choice D) are also not significant factors that indicate a potential hazard for an IVP.
During a Weber test, what is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a Weber test, the nurse should place an activated tuning fork in the middle of the client's forehead. This test is used to assess for lateralization of sound in a client with possible hearing issues. Choice A is incorrect because the Weber test does not involve delivering high-pitched sounds at random intervals. Choice C is incorrect as it describes the Rinne test, not the Weber test. Choice D is incorrect as whispering words into one ear is not part of the Weber test procedure.
The healthcare provider is planning care for a 14-year-old client returning from scoliosis corrective surgery. Which of the following actions should receive priority in the plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing movement and sensation of extremities is the priority after scoliosis corrective surgery as it helps in early detection of any neurological deficits that may have occurred during the procedure. This assessment is essential for prompt intervention if any issues are identified. Administering antibiotics, teaching exercises, and assisting the client to stand up are important aspects of care but assessing neurological status takes precedence to ensure the client's safety and recovery.
A client is grieving the loss of her partner and expresses thoughts of not wanting to live. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to ask the client if she plans to harm herself. This is crucial to assess the client's risk of self-harm or suicide. Providing immediate safety and appropriate interventions is the priority when a client expresses such thoughts. Requesting additional support from the family (Choice A) may be helpful but does not address the immediate safety concern. Informing the client that feeling this way is normal (Choice C) may invalidate her feelings and does not address the safety risk. Suggesting counseling (Choice D) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the immediate priority when assessing for self-harm or suicide risk.
What immediate action should a healthcare worker take after being stuck in the hand by an exposed needle?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct immediate action for a healthcare worker who has been stuck by an exposed needle is to wash the hands thoroughly with soap and water to reduce the risk of infection. This helps to remove any potential pathogens introduced by the needle stick. Looking up the policy on needle sticks (Choice A) is important but not the immediate action required. Contacting employee health services (Choice B) and notifying the supervisor and risk management (Choice D) are crucial steps to take, but they should follow the initial step of washing the hands to mitigate the risk of infection.
The client is being instructed on how to collect a clean catch urine specimen. Which sequence is appropriate for teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct sequence for obtaining a clean catch urine specimen involves first cleaning the meatus to prevent contamination, then initiating voiding to catch the midstream urine. This method ensures that the sample is as uncontaminated as possible, making choice B the correct sequence. Option A is incorrect as cleaning the meatus should be done before voiding. Option C is incorrect as it does not involve catching a midstream urine sample. Option D is incorrect as it suggests catching urine throughout the entire voiding process, which may lead to contamination.
A nurse is caring for an older, immobile patient whose condition requires a supine position. Which metabolic alteration will the nurse monitor for in this patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When an older, immobile patient is in a supine position, it increases cardiac workload, leading to an increased pulse rate. This is because the heart rate in older adults may not tolerate the additional workload. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because an increased appetite, increased diarrhea, and increased metabolic rate are not directly associated with being immobile in a supine position. Increased appetite is more related to nutritional needs or certain medical conditions, increased diarrhea could be due to various causes, and an increased metabolic rate is not typically a direct consequence of lying supine.
A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a group of clients. The nurse should identify that which of the following clients is at risk for hypovolemia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Nasogastric suctioning can lead to hypovolemia due to the loss of gastric fluids. Chronic constipation and syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) are not typically associated with hypovolemia. A toxic dose of sodium bicarbonate antacids may lead to metabolic alkalosis, not hypovolemia.
A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of packed RBCs (red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Ensuring the accuracy of the blood type match is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions. The LPN/LVN must prioritize this step to avoid adverse outcomes. Obtaining the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level (Option A) is important but not as critical as ensuring blood type compatibility. Priming the tubing and setting up the blood pump (Option B) and monitoring vital signs every 15 minutes (Option C) are essential steps in the transfusion process, but the primary concern should be preventing transfusion reactions by verifying blood type compatibility.
The healthcare professional is preparing to administer a medication through a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which action should the healthcare professional take to ensure proper administration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Flushing the NG tube with water before and after medication administration is essential to ensure the tube is patent and prevent clogging. This action helps in clearing the tube and ensures that the medication is delivered properly. Administering medication with food (Choice B) may not be appropriate for all medications and can interfere with their absorption. Verifying tube placement by aspirating stomach contents (Choice C) is important but does not directly relate to ensuring proper medication administration. Diluting the medication with normal saline (Choice D) is not a standard practice for administering medications through an NG tube.
What is the first step a healthcare professional should take when preparing to provide tracheostomy care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Performing hand hygiene is the initial step a healthcare professional should take when preparing to provide tracheostomy care. This step is crucial to prevent the transmission of pathogens and reduce the risk of infection to the client. By cleansing the hands, the healthcare professional ensures patient safety. While gathering equipment, explaining the procedure, and assessing the client are essential components of tracheostomy care, they should occur after performing hand hygiene to maintain aseptic technique and minimize the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms to the client.
A healthcare professional is reviewing a plan of care for a client who was admitted with dehydration as a result of prolonged watery diarrhea. Which prescription should the healthcare professional question?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, Parenteral albumin (Albuminar). Parenteral albumin is not typically indicated for dehydration resulting from diarrhea. In this case, fluid replacement therapy with intravenous fluids such as parenteral half normal saline would be more appropriate. Oral psyllium and oral potassium supplement are not the primary interventions for managing dehydration due to watery diarrhea. Oral psyllium is a fiber supplement used for constipation rather than diarrhea. Oral potassium supplements may be necessary if potassium levels are low due to dehydration, but the priority is fluid replacement. Therefore, choices A and B are less relevant in this scenario.
An occupational health nurse is caring for an employee who was exposed to an unknown dry chemical, resulting in a chemical burn. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for an employee exposed to an unknown dry chemical is to brush off the chemical from the skin and clothing. This helps prevent further skin contact before irrigation can be done. Irrigating the affected area with running water is crucial after brushing off the chemical to minimize the exposure. Washing the affected area with antibacterial soap is not appropriate for chemical burns, as soap can react with certain chemicals and worsen the situation. Leaving the clothing in place until emergency personnel arrive may allow the chemical to continue to harm the skin and should be avoided.
When administering an otic medication to an older adult client, which action should the nurse take to ensure that the medication reaches the inner ear?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action to ensure that otic medication reaches the inner ear is to press gently on the tragus. The tragus is a small cartilaginous projection in front of the ear canal. Pressing on it helps to straighten the ear canal, allowing the medication to reach the inner ear. Packing cotton or moving the auricle can obstruct the ear canal and prevent proper medication delivery. Tilting the client's head backward is not necessary and may not facilitate the medication reaching the inner ear as effectively as pressing on the tragus.
A nurse observes smoke coming from under the door of the staff lounge. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a fire emergency, the nurse's priority is to activate the fire alarm. This action alerts others to the emergency, initiates the evacuation process, and ensures everyone's safety. Extinguishing the fire can be dangerous and should be left to trained personnel. Moving clients who are nearby might delay the activation of the alarm and can put the nurse and clients at risk. Closing all open doors on the unit is important to contain the fire but should not take precedence over alerting others through the fire alarm system.
The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which action should the nurse take to maintain patency of the tube?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To maintain the patency of a nasogastric (NG) tube, it is essential to flush the tube with 30 ml of water before and after medication administration. This action helps ensure that the tube remains open and free from blockages. Flushing the tube prevents any medication residue from causing blockages, maintaining its patency. Choice B is incorrect because administering medication with food does not relate to maintaining tube patency. Choice C is incorrect as verifying tube placement by aspirating stomach contents is related to confirming correct tube placement, not maintaining patency. Choice D is also incorrect because diluting the medication with normal saline is not primarily aimed at maintaining the tube's patency.
After inserting an NG tube for a client, which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect to confirm correct tube placement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct placement of an NG tube is confirmed by aspirating gastric fluid, which indicates that the tube is in the stomach. An x-ray can help visualize tube placement, but it alone does not confirm correct placement. Flushing the tube with sterile water without resistance indicates patency but not necessarily correct placement. The absence of coughing or choking does not confirm tube placement and is more related to the client's comfort during the procedure.
During an admission history assessment, a client informs the nurse about consuming herbal tea every afternoon at work to alleviate stress. What ingredient is likely present in the tea?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Chamomile. Chamomile tea is commonly used for stress relief. Choice B, Ginseng, is not typically used in teas for stress relief but for energy and immune system support. Choice C, Ginger, is more commonly used for digestive health and nausea. Choice D, Echinacea, is often used to boost the immune system. Therefore, in the context of stress relief, Chamomile is the most appropriate ingredient.
The nurse is planning a meal plan that would provide the most iron for a child with anemia. Which dinner menu would be best?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Ground beef, lima beans, and raisins are rich sources of iron, making this meal plan the most suitable for a child with anemia. Ground beef is a high-iron meat, while lima beans and raisins are also excellent sources of iron. Fish sticks, french fries, banana, and cookies in option A lack sufficient iron content compared to the options in B. Chicken nuggets, macaroni, and peas in option C are not as iron-rich as the ground beef, lima beans, and raisins in option B. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich with apple slices in option D also fall short in providing enough iron when compared to the iron-rich components of option B.
Before donning gloves to perform a procedure, proper hand hygiene is essential. The healthcare professional understands that the most important aspect of hand hygiene is the amount of:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Friction. The amount of friction is crucial in effective hand hygiene to remove microorganisms. Rubbing hands together with friction helps to dislodge and remove dirt, oils, and microorganisms. While temperature and soap are important factors in hand hygiene, the mechanical action of friction plays a more significant role in physically removing contaminants. Time is also important in hand hygiene practice, but without adequate friction, the effectiveness of the process is compromised.
A male client presents to the clinic stating that he has a high-stress job and is having difficulty falling asleep at night. The client reports having a constant headache and is seeking medication to help with sleep. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing the client's sleep and activity patterns is crucial in understanding the factors contributing to the sleep difficulties and headaches. By evaluating these patterns, the nurse can identify triggers, stressors, and lifestyle habits that may be impacting the client's sleep quality and overall well-being. This assessment will guide the nurse in formulating an appropriate care plan tailored to the client's specific needs. Option B is not appropriate as it focuses solely on providing medication without addressing underlying issues. Option C is premature as a thorough assessment should precede any referrals for specialized studies. Option D, while important, should come after understanding the client's sleep patterns to provide more targeted coping strategies.
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Clients taking digoxin should avoid eating foods high in potassium, as this can affect the medication's efficacy. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements regarding digoxin administration and precautions, indicating the client's understanding of the medication and its management.
Three days following surgery, a male client observes his colostomy for the first time. He becomes quite upset and tells the LPN that it is much bigger than he expected. What is the best response by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response is to instruct the client that the stoma will become smaller when the initial swelling diminishes. This explanation helps reassure the client about the temporary appearance of the stoma. Choice A is incorrect because simply reassuring the client that he will become accustomed to the stoma's appearance does not address the immediate concern about the stoma size. Choice C is incorrect because offering to contact a support group does not directly address the client's current distress about the stoma size. Choice D is incorrect because encouraging the client to handle stoma equipment does not directly address the client's concern about the stoma size and may not be appropriate at this time.
After completing an assessment and determining that a client has a problem, what should the LPN/LVN do next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After identifying a problem in a client, the next step for the LPN/LVN is to determine the etiology or cause of the problem. Understanding the root cause of the issue is essential as it guides the development of appropriate interventions. Option B, prioritizing nursing care interventions, is premature without knowing the cause of the problem. Option C, planning appropriate interventions, also relies on knowing the etiology first to ensure the interventions directly address the underlying issue. Collaborating with the client to set goals, as mentioned in option D, is important but typically comes after understanding the cause of the problem to ensure the goals are relevant and effective.
The nurse manager has been using a decentralized block scheduling plan to staff the nursing unit. However, staff have asked for many changes and exceptions to the schedule over the past few months. The manager considers self-scheduling knowing that this method will
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: 'Improve team morale.' Self-scheduling allows staff more control over their work hours, which can lead to increased job satisfaction, autonomy, and a sense of ownership over their schedules. This, in turn, fosters a positive work environment, enhances collaboration among team members, and boosts morale. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while self-scheduling may indirectly contribute to improved quality of care, decreased staff turnover, and minimized overtime payouts, the primary benefit in this context is the positive impact on team morale.
Which statement best describes time management strategies applied to the role of a nurse manager?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Setting daily goals and prioritizing tasks is crucial for effective time management as a nurse manager. This approach helps in organizing and focusing on the most important responsibilities, ensuring that key tasks are completed efficiently. Choice A is incorrect as scheduling staff efficiently, while important, is more related to staffing management than direct time management strategies. Choice B is incorrect as assuming direct client care does not necessarily align with effective time management strategies for a nurse manager, as their primary role is overseeing and coordinating care. Choice D, while delegation is a key aspect of time management, the emphasis on reducing workload specifically associated with direct care and meetings may not always be the primary focus of a nurse manager's time management strategies.
At a mobile screening clinic, a nurse is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur due to aortic stenosis. To auscultate the aortic valve, where should the nurse place the stethoscope?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct location to auscultate the aortic valve is the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum. This area corresponds to the aortic valve area where aortic valve sounds are best heard. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect for auscultating the aortic valve. The fifth intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the mitral valve is best heard, the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the pulmonic valve is best heard, and the fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line is where the tricuspid valve is best auscultated.
The healthcare provider is caring for a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the healthcare provider review first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the toxic effects of the drug on the liver. Liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) are essential markers to assess liver function and damage. Monitoring these enzymes early is crucial to detect hepatotoxicity and guide further management. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red and white blood cell counts are not specific to assess liver damage in this context. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels are primarily used to evaluate kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.
A client has been sitting in a chair for 1 hour. Which of the following complications poses the greatest risk to the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Pressure injury. Prolonged sitting can lead to pressure injuries due to continuous pressure on certain body areas, reducing blood flow and causing tissue damage. While decreased subcutaneous fat, muscle atrophy, and fecal impaction are potential concerns, pressure injuries pose the greatest immediate risk as they can lead to serious complications such as tissue necrosis and infection if not addressed promptly. Decreased subcutaneous fat and muscle atrophy may develop over time with prolonged immobility but are not as acutely dangerous as a pressure injury. Fecal impaction, while uncomfortable and potentially serious, does not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the development of a pressure injury.
When a nurse instructs a client with hearing loss about cleaning their new hearing aids, which statement indicates that the client understands the instructions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because cleaning the outside part of hearing aids with a damp cloth is an appropriate method. Rubbing alcohol can damage ear molds, so choice B is incorrect. Keeping the volume of hearing aids turned up high may lead to discomfort, making choice C incorrect. Removing batteries when not in use at night is good practice for battery life, but it does not directly relate to understanding cleaning instructions, so choice D is less relevant in this context.
A healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation requires immediate intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Crepitus around the chest tube insertion site may indicate subcutaneous emphysema, a serious condition that requires immediate attention. It can be a sign of an air leak in the lung or surrounding tissues. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber is expected in a functioning chest tube system as it indicates proper suction. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber is also normal, showing that the system is functioning correctly, allowing air to escape but not re-enter. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is within the expected range for chest tube output and does not require immediate intervention unless there are other concerning signs such as rapid increase or a sudden change in color or consistency.
A healthcare provider is preparing to perform mouth care for an unresponsive client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider plan to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Raising the bed level is the correct action to facilitate easier access for mouth care in an unresponsive client. This position enhances the safety and comfort of both the client and the healthcare provider. Administering mouth care with the client in a supine position (lying flat on their back) can increase the risk of aspiration. Using a tongue depressor to open the mouth is not recommended as it can cause discomfort and potential injury. Placing the client in a prone position (lying face down) is contraindicated for mouth care and can compromise the client's airway.
An assistive personnel tells the nurse, 'I am unable to find a large blood pressure cuff for a client who is obese. Can I just use the regular cuff if I can get it to stay on?' The nurse replies that taking the blood pressure of a morbidly obese client with a regular blood pressure cuff will result in a reading that is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Using a regular blood pressure cuff on a morbidly obese client will lead to a falsely high blood pressure reading. This occurs because the cuff is not appropriately sized for the client's arm circumference, resulting in increased pressure on the artery and an inaccurate high reading. Choice A is incorrect because the reading will be falsely high, not low. Choice C is incorrect as the reading will not be accurate with an incorrectly sized cuff. Choice D is incorrect because the reading will be affected by using the wrong cuff size.
A client with a terminal illness is expected to pass away within 24 hours. The family asks the nurse about what to expect at this time. Which of the following findings should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
As death approaches, decreased muscle tone and other signs like decreased blood pressure, irregular breathing patterns, cold extremities, and decreased urine output are common. Warm extremities (choice B) would not be expected as circulation may be compromised. Increased urine output (choice C) is unlikely as organ function declines. A regular breathing pattern (choice A) is also unlikely as irregular breathing patterns are common near death.
Following change-of-shift report on an orthopedic unit, which client should the nurse see first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago should be seen first due to the potential for immediate post-operative complications. This patient is in the immediate postoperative period and requires close monitoring for any signs of complications such as bleeding, infection, or impaired circulation. The other patients are relatively stable compared to the patient who just had surgery and therefore can wait for assessment and care without immediate risk. The 16-year-old had surgery ten hours ago, which is longer than the 72-year-old and is at a lower risk for immediate complications. The 20-year-old in skeletal traction for two weeks is stable in his current condition. The 75-year-old in skin traction before planned surgery does not require immediate attention as the surgery has not yet taken place.
The client is being taught about the use of syringes and needles for home administration of medications. Which action by the client indicates an understanding of standard precautions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Washing hands before handling the needle and syringe is a critical step in infection control and adherence to standard precautions. Clean hands help prevent the transfer of microorganisms and reduce the risk of infection. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to standard precautions. Removing the needle after discarding used syringes (Choice A) can increase the risk of needlestick injuries. Wearing gloves while disposing of the needle and syringe (Choice B) is important for personal protection but does not specifically address standard precautions. Wearing a face mask during medication administration (Choice C) is not directly related to handling syringes and needles, which are more pertinent to standard precautions.
A client's readiness to learn about insulin administration is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to learn?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice A is the correct answer because the client's statement about the best time to concentrate indicates readiness for learning. This statement shows an awareness and interest in learning. Choice B is incorrect as it indicates a barrier to learning due to not having glasses. Choice C is incorrect as it shows a lack of understanding or motivation for learning. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests a lack of personal involvement or responsibility in the learning process since the client is deflecting the responsibility to someone else.
An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The first action the nurse should implement is to determine the size and depth of the skin breakdown over the sacral area. This initial assessment will provide crucial information on the extent of the damage and guide appropriate care interventions. Option A is not the priority in this scenario as the immediate concern is addressing the existing skin breakdown. Option B, completing a functional assessment, is important but should come after addressing the acute issue of skin breakdown. Option C, applying a barrier ointment, may be beneficial later but does not address the primary need of assessing the extent of the current skin damage.
The patient refuses to bathe in the morning, stating a preference for evening baths. What is the best action for the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best action by the nurse is to respect the patient's preference and autonomy. Defer the bath until evening to allow the patient to follow their usual hygiene routine. Passing on the information to the next shift ensures continuity of care. Choice B is incorrect because it disregards the patient's preference and autonomy. Choice C, while important, does not address the patient's immediate concern. Choice D is incorrect as it does not respect the patient's wishes and may lead to further resistance to bathing.
Which behavior indicates the nurse is using a team approach when caring for a patient who is experiencing alterations in mobility?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Consulting physical therapy for strengthening exercises in the extremities demonstrates a team approach in caring for a patient with mobility issues. Involving other healthcare professionals like physical therapists ensures a comprehensive and specialized approach to address the patient's mobility needs. This collaborative approach benefits the patient by providing specialized interventions. Choices A, B, and D do not exemplify a collaborative team approach. Delegating assessment tasks to nursing assistive personnel (Choice A) may not address the mobility issue directly. Becoming solely responsible for modifying activities of daily living (Choice B) limits the scope of interventions. Involving respiratory therapy for anxiety-related breathing issues (Choice D) addresses a different aspect of care and does not directly target mobility concerns.
A healthcare professional is using the I-SBAR communication tool to provide the client's provider with information about the client. The healthcare professional should convey the client's pain status in which portion of the report?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the I-SBAR communication tool, the 'Assessment' portion is where the healthcare professional should convey the client's pain status. This section includes the current patient information, such as the client's pain level, to provide a comprehensive view of the client's condition. Choice B ('Situation') typically involves a brief summary of the client's problem or reason for the communication. Choice C ('Background') usually covers the client's medical history and background information. Choice D ('Recommendation') focuses on the healthcare professional's suggestions or requests regarding the client's care plan, which may include pain management strategies but not the current pain status.
A client has a new prescription for a metered-dose inhaler. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for using a metered-dose inhaler is to hold your breath for 10 seconds after inhaling the medication. This allows the medication to be absorbed more effectively in the lungs. Inhaling quickly and deeply while pressing down on the inhaler (Choice A) may cause the medication to deposit in the mouth and throat rather than reaching the lungs. Exhaling immediately after inhaling the medication (Choice C) may also lead to medication wastage. Shaking the inhaler before each use (Choice D) is not necessary for all types of inhalers and can sometimes cause improper drug delivery.
A client is reporting difficulty falling asleep. Which of the following measures should the nurse recommend?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to recommend the client to use progressive relaxation techniques at bedtime. Progressive relaxation techniques help reduce stress and muscle tension, which can promote better sleep. Choice A, drinking a cup of hot cocoa before bedtime, contains caffeine which can interfere with falling asleep. Choice B, exercising 1 hour before going to bed, can stimulate the body and mind, making it harder to fall asleep. Choice D, reflecting on the day's activities before going to bed, may lead to increased mental activity and prevent relaxation, making it difficult to fall asleep.
A client requires an NG tube for stomach decompression. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when inserting the NG tube?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action when inserting an NG tube is to help the client take sips of water. This helps facilitate the insertion of the tube by promoting swallowing and passage through the esophagus. Asking the client to swallow assists in guiding the tube into the stomach. Inserting the tube without asking the client to swallow may lead to incorrect placement or discomfort. Advancing the tube continuously without pausing can cause the tube to coil in the esophagus, leading to complications. Using a large-bore tube for insertion is unnecessary and may increase the risk of injury or discomfort for the client.
During an assessment, a client receiving tube feedings via NG tube shows signs of nasal mucosa irritation. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Irritation of nasal mucosa is a crucial finding that the nurse should report to the provider as it suggests potential complications with NG tube placement, such as improper positioning or mucosal damage. High potassium levels (Choice A) can be concerning but are not directly related to NG tube placement issues. Normal sodium levels (Choice C) and loose stools (Choice D) are common occurrences in clients receiving tube feedings and are not typically indicative of immediate complications that require urgent reporting.
During the initial morning assessment, a male client denies dysuria but reports that his urine appears dark amber. Which intervention should the LPN/LVN implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging additional oral intake of juices and water is the appropriate intervention in this scenario. Dark amber urine can indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or other factors. By encouraging more fluids, the LPN/LVN can help dilute the urine, reducing the concentration of pigments causing the dark color. Providing additional coffee (Choice A) would not necessarily increase hydration and could potentially have a diuretic effect. Exchanging grape juice for cranberry juice (Choice B) does not address the core issue of hydration. Bringing additional fruit (Choice C) may provide some fluid, but encouraging specific fluids like juices and water would be more effective in diluting the urine.
A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse should monitor the client for which complication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hyperglycemia is the correct complication to monitor for in a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) due to the high glucose content of the solution. TPN solutions are rich in glucose, so monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to prevent hyperglycemia. Hypoglycemia (Choice A) is less common with TPN due to the high glucose content, making hyperglycemia a more significant concern. Hypertension (Choice C) and hyperkalemia (Choice D) are not typically associated with TPN administration, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
Which nursing diagnosis would be a priority for a client admitted with a CVA (cerebral vascular accident)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Risk for aspiration' as it is a priority concern in clients with a CVA due to potential swallowing difficulties. Aspiration poses immediate risks such as pneumonia, which can be life-threatening. Impaired physical mobility, while important, may not be as urgent as the risk for aspiration in this scenario. Disturbed sensory perception and interrupted family processes are not typically the most critical concerns in the acute phase of a CVA.
During an admission assessment, a nurse is documenting a client's medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During an admission assessment, compiling a list of the client's current medications is crucial for accurate documentation and planning. This information helps prevent medication errors, identify potential interactions, and ensure continuity of care. While counseling the client on medication adherence (Choice A) is important, it is not the primary action when documenting medications. Assessing the client for medication reactions (Choice B) is relevant for monitoring side effects but not the immediate focus during documentation. Evaluating the client's understanding of medications (Choice D) is essential for education but does not address the immediate need for compiling a list of current medications.
Which nursing action prevents injury to a client's eye during the administration of eye drops?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct nursing action to prevent injury to a client's eye during the administration of eye drops is to hold the tip of the container above the conjunctival sac. This technique helps to prevent direct contact between the container and the eye, reducing the risk of injury. Rinsing the eye with saline before administration (Choice B) is not a standard practice and may not necessarily prevent injury. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice C) is not directly related to preventing eye injury during eye drop administration. Pressing gently on the lower eyelid to open the eye (Choice D) is not recommended as it can potentially cause injury or discomfort to the client.
How can self-injury be prevented when lifting a bedside cabinet?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct way to prevent self-injury when lifting a bedside cabinet is by standing close to the cabinet. By standing close, the individual can maintain better control and balance while lifting, reducing the risk of injury. Bending at the waist when lifting (choice B) can strain the back and lead to injury. Twisting while lifting (choice C) can also cause strain and imbalance. Lifting with a quick motion (choice D) can increase the risk of injury due to lack of control and improper body mechanics.
A child is postoperative following a tonsillectomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering analgesics to the child on a routine schedule throughout the day and night is crucial for managing postoperative pain effectively and ensuring the child's comfort. Pain management is a priority in the postoperative period to promote healing and prevent complications. Offering fluids to the child immediately after surgery (Choice B) is essential to prevent dehydration, but pain control takes precedence. Allowing the child to return to solid foods gradually (Choice C) is important, but initially, the child may need to start with clear liquids and progress to soft foods post-tonsillectomy. Avoiding administering any medication until the child is fully awake (Choice D) is not advisable because timely pain relief is essential for the child's comfort and recovery.
A school-aged child has had a long leg (hip to ankle) synthetic cast applied 4 hours ago. Which statement from the mother indicates that teaching has been inadequate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because there is no need to wait 72 hours before allowing the child to stand. The synthetic cast does not affect weight-bearing capacity, and standing can be done as tolerated. Choice A is incorrect because keeping the cast covered can lead to damage or accidents. Choice B is acceptable as applying an ice pack can help relieve itching. Choice C is also correct as elevating the cast on pillows can help reduce swelling and promote comfort during rest.
A 3-year-old child is brought to the clinic by his grandmother to be seen for 'scratching his bottom and wetting the bed at night.' Based on these complaints, the nurse would initially assess for which problem?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, Pinworms. Pinworms are a common cause of itching around the anal area, especially at night, in young children. Scratching the bottom and bedwetting can be indicative of a pinworm infection. Allergies (Choice A) are less likely given the symptoms described. Scabies (Choice B) may cause itching but is less common in causing bedwetting. Regression (Choice C) is not a common cause of these specific symptoms in a 3-year-old child.
When reviewing EBP about the administration of O2 therapy, what is the recommended maximum flow rate for regulating O2 via nasal cannula?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L. This flow rate is generally recommended to ensure adequate oxygen delivery without causing discomfort or potential harm to the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they suggest flow rates that are either too low (2L, 4L) or too high (8L). A flow rate of 2L might not provide sufficient oxygen, while 4L could be inadequate for some patients. On the other hand, a flow rate of 8L could be excessive and potentially harmful, leading to complications like oxygen toxicity. Therefore, the optimal recommendation is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula at a maximum of 6L to balance effectiveness and safety.
A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). What side effect should the healthcare provider report immediately?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Gingival hyperplasia is a significant side effect associated with phenytoin therapy. It is characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to issues such as difficulty in speaking, eating, and maintaining proper oral hygiene. This condition can progress rapidly and may require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Increased appetite, dry mouth, and nausea/vomiting are common side effects of various medications, but they are not as urgent or serious as gingival hyperplasia in a client taking phenytoin.
The nurse in the emergency department observes a colleague viewing the electronic health record (EHR) of a client who holds an elected position in the community. The client is not a part of the colleague's assignment. Which action should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Communicating the colleague's actions to the unit charge nurse is the most appropriate action to take in this scenario. Reporting to the charge nurse follows proper protocol and ensures privacy compliance. This option allows for addressing the issue internally within the healthcare setting, maintaining confidentiality, and following the chain of command. Sending an email to facility administration (Choice B) might be premature without internal investigation and could potentially bypass the immediate supervisor who is responsible for addressing such issues. Writing an anonymous complaint to a professional website (Choice C) and posting a comment about the action on a staff discussion board (Choice D) are not professional or effective ways to address the situation, as they do not ensure proper handling of the breach of privacy within the organization.
A client with iron-deficiency anemia asks a nurse why the Z-track method is necessary for administering iron dextran. Which response should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Z-track method is used to minimize tissue irritation by sealing the medication in the muscle. This technique helps prevent leakage of the medication into subcutaneous tissue, reducing the risk of irritation and staining at the injection site. Option A about decreasing the risk of injecting medication into a blood vessel is not correct as the primary purpose of the Z-track method is to prevent tissue irritation. Option B stating it delays medication absorption is incorrect as the Z-track method does not affect the rate of medication absorption. Option D mentioning it accelerates medication excretion is incorrect as the Z-track method does not impact medication excretion but rather focuses on minimizing tissue irritation.
Seconal 0.1 gram PRN at bedtime is prescribed to a client for rest. The scored tablets are labeled 1.5 grains per tablet. How many tablets should the LPN/LVN plan to administer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the number of tablets needed, convert the prescribed dose of Seconal from grams to grains. Since 1 gram is equal to approximately 15.43 grains, 0.1 gram is roughly 1.543 grains. Given that each tablet contains 1.5 grains, administering 1 tablet (which is slightly more than the 1.543 grains needed) provides the correct dose of Seconal. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should plan to administer 1 tablet. Choice A (0.5 tablet) is incorrect as it would provide less than the required dose. Choice C (1.5 tablets) and Choice D (2 tablets) are incorrect as they would exceed the necessary dosage.
A client has been coughing for 3 weeks and is beginning to cough up blood. The client has manifestations of which of the following conditions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Tuberculosis. Coughing up blood (hemoptysis) is a key symptom of tuberculosis. Tuberculosis is a respiratory infection caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The other options are incorrect because an allergic reaction typically involves symptoms like itching, hives, or swelling, not coughing up blood. Ringworm is a fungal skin infection characterized by a red, circular rash, and systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disease that primarily affects joints and skin without causing hemoptysis.
An older adult client has been hospitalized on bed rest for 1 week. The client reports elbow pain. Which of the following is an appropriate initial action for the nurse caring for this client to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The appropriate initial action for the nurse is to examine the elbow. This step is crucial to assess the site of pain, identify any visible signs of injury or inflammation, and determine the cause of the discomfort. Administering pain medication (Choice B) should come after a thorough assessment. Applying a warm compress (Choice C) might provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying cause. Assessing the client's range of motion (Choice D) is important but would come after the initial examination to further evaluate the elbow joint.
A healthcare professional reviewing a client's health record notes a new prescription for lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily. The healthcare professional should identify this as which of the following types of prescription?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A prescription for once-daily medication is considered routine as it is meant for regular, daily administration to maintain therapeutic levels in the body. Single prescriptions are for one-time use only. Stat prescriptions are for immediate administration in urgent situations, while now prescriptions are also for immediate use but may have varying levels of urgency depending on the patient's condition. In this case, since the prescription is for once daily use, it falls under the category of routine prescription.
A client is scheduled to have his alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level checked. The client asks the nurse to explain the laboratory test. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: "This test will provide information about the function of your liver." Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is an enzyme mainly found in the liver. An elevated ALT level may indicate liver damage or disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because ALT is specifically related to liver function and not indicative of blood clot risk, heart performance, or kidney function.
A nurse is counseling an older adult who describes having difficulty with several issues. Which of the following problems verbalized by the client should the nurse identify as the priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. The statement expressing the loss of friends is the priority issue as it indicates potential grief and emotional distress. Losing multiple friends within a short period can have a profound impact on an older adult's emotional well-being. Option A expresses regret but does not indicate an immediate emotional crisis. Option B focuses on stress related to dependence, which is important but not as urgent as coping with loss. Option D highlights a memory concern, which is significant but does not address the emotional impact of loss.
A nurse is preparing to administer ketorolac 0.5 mg/kg IV bolus every 6 hr to a school-age child who weighs 66 lb. The available ketorolac injection is 30 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the dose, first convert the weight from pounds to kilograms. The child weighs 66 lb, which is approximately 30 kg. The prescribed dose is 0.5 mg/kg, so for a 30 kg child, the dose would be 0.5 mg/kg x 30 kg = 15 mg. Since the available ketorolac injection is 30 mg/mL, the nurse should administer 15 mg ÷ 30 mg/mL = 0.5 mL per dose. Therefore, choice A (0.5 mL) is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the correct dose based on the child's weight and the concentration of the ketorolac injection.
A client is 1-day postoperative and reports a pain level of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. After reviewing the client's medication administration record, which of the following medications should be administered?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Morphine IV is the most appropriate choice for severe postoperative pain due to its rapid onset and effectiveness. Meperidine is not preferred due to its potential side effects, and fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain, not acute postoperative pain. Oxycodone taken orally is not ideal for providing immediate relief in this situation.
During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client's pulse deficit (per minute)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.
A healthcare provider is providing discharge teaching to a client who does not speak the same language. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the healthcare provider when providing discharge teaching to a client who does not speak the same language is to offer written instructions in the client's language. This approach helps ensure better comprehension and adherence to the instructions as the client can refer back to the written material for clarification. Choice A is incorrect because using proper medical terms may not be effective if the client does not understand the language. Choice C is incorrect since verbal instructions should be directed to the client for better understanding. Choice D is incorrect as assistive personnel may not be qualified or trained to provide accurate interpretation, risking miscommunication and potential errors in the instructions.
A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a client who states, "I always have trouble sleeping." Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take first is to identify the client's typical bedtime routine. Understanding the client's sleep habits, environment, and bedtime rituals can provide valuable insight into potential factors contributing to their sleep troubles. Teaching stress reduction techniques (choice A) may be beneficial but should come after understanding the client's routine. Recommending avoiding caffeine intake in the evening (choice B) and encouraging regular daytime exercise (choice D) are important interventions, but identifying the bedtime routine takes precedence as it directly addresses the client's immediate concern.
A nurse is counseling a middle adult client who describes having difficulty dealing with several issues. Which of the following client statements should the nurse identify as the priority to assess further?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. The statement about struggling with aging parents indicates a significant stressor that could impact overall well-being and warrants further assessment. This statement reveals a potential source of emotional distress and adjustment difficulties for the client, as aging parents needing help can be a complex issue involving feelings of loss, role reversal, and increased responsibilities. Choices B, C, and D, although important, do not signify as immediate a need for further assessment compared to the challenges related to aging parents. Choice B focuses on intimate relationships, which is a common concern but may not be as urgent as dealing with aging parents. Choice C reflects feelings of selfishness but does not indicate an immediate need for further assessment. Choice D involves expectations from the client's child but does not highlight a critical issue that could impact the client's well-being as directly as struggling with aging parents.
When administering otic ear medication to an adult client, what action should be done to ensure the medication reaches the inner ear?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action to ensure the medication reaches the inner ear is to press gently on the tragus of the client's ear. The tragus is the small pointed eminence of the external ear, and pressing on it helps direct the medication deeper into the ear canal. Pulling the ear lobe up and back (Choice B) is the correct technique for administering eardrops to a child, not an adult. Inserting the medication deeply into the ear canal (Choice C) can cause injury or discomfort as the eardrops are designed to flow into the ear canal naturally. Massaging the ear gently after administering the medication (Choice D) is unnecessary and may not help the medication reach the inner ear effectively.
A client is experiencing dehydration, and the nurse is planning care. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Checking the client's weight daily is essential for monitoring fluid status in dehydration. Administering antihypertensives, notifying the provider of insufficient urine output, and encouraging ambulation are not primary interventions for managing dehydration. Administering antihypertensives may affect blood pressure, but it is not a direct intervention for dehydration. Notifying the provider of a urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates oliguria, which is a sign of reduced kidney function rather than dehydration. Encouraging ambulation is a general nursing intervention and does not directly address the fluid imbalance associated with dehydration.
A client with heart failure and a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide is receiving discharge teaching about safety considerations from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Leaving a light on in the bathroom at night is important for an older adult with heart failure who is taking hydrochlorothiazide, a diuretic that can cause nocturia. This safety measure helps prevent falls during nighttime bathroom visits. Option A is incorrect because taking a hot bath before bed can increase the risk of falls due to potential dizziness. Option B does not directly relate to safety considerations but rather the timing of medication administration. Option D, weighing oneself once weekly, is important for monitoring fluid retention but does not address safety concerns related to nocturia and falls.
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