HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Test Bank
1. A client at 26 weeks gestation was informed this morning that she has an elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level. After the healthcare provider leaves the room, the client asks what she should do next. What information should the nurse provide?
- A. Reassure the client that the AFP results are likely to be a false reading.
- B. Explain that a sonogram should be scheduled for definitive results.
- C. Inform her that a repeat alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test should be evaluated.
- D. Discuss options for intrauterine surgical correction of congenital defects.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An elevated AFP level during pregnancy can indicate potential fetal anomalies. Further evaluation is necessary to confirm the findings and assess the need for additional interventions. Scheduling a sonogram is the appropriate next step as it can provide more definitive results and help identify any underlying issues. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the elevated AFP level as a false reading without further investigation can lead to missing important information about the baby's health. Choice C is not the best immediate action, as scheduling a sonogram would provide more detailed information than just repeating the AFP test. Choice D is incorrect as discussing intrauterine surgical correction is premature at this stage and not typically indicated based solely on an elevated AFP level.
2. Rubella, also called German measles, is a viral infection passed from the mother to the fetus that can cause birth defects such as deafness, intellectual disabilities, blindness, and heart disease in the embryo.
- A. Rubella
- B. Syphilis
- C. Cystic fibrosis
- D. Phenylketonuria
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection that can lead to severe birth defects when contracted by a mother during pregnancy. Rubella is the correct answer because it is specifically associated with causing birth defects such as deafness, intellectual disabilities, blindness, and heart disease in the embryo. Syphilis (Choice B) can be passed from mother to fetus but does not cause the mentioned birth defects associated with Rubella. Cystic fibrosis (Choice C) and Phenylketonuria (Choice D) are genetic conditions and not infections transmitted from mother to fetus, making them incorrect choices in this context.
3. Which of the following pairs of bases is present in the rungs of the ladder-like structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)?
- A. Cytosine with guanine.
- B. Rhodamine with biotin.
- C. Diaminopurine with ribozyme.
- D. Serine with tyrosine.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cytosine with guanine. In the DNA double helix, cytosine always pairs with guanine forming a base pair, and adenine pairs with thymine. These complementary base pairs form the rungs of the ladder-like structure of DNA. Choice B, Rhodamine with biotin, is incorrect as they are not base pairs found in DNA. Choice D, Serine with tyrosine, is incorrect as they are amino acids, not DNA bases. Choice C, Diaminopurine with ribozyme, is also incorrect as ribozyme is an enzyme, not a base, and diaminopurine is not one of the standard bases found in DNA.
4. A client at 37 weeks gestation presents to labor and delivery with contractions every two minutes. The nurse observes several shallow small vesicles on her pubis, labia, and perineum. The nurse should recognize the client is exhibiting symptoms of which condition?
- A. Genital Warts
- B. Syphilis
- C. Herpes Simplex Virus
- D. German Measles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV). HSV can present with small vesicles on the genital area, and it is a concern during labor due to the risk of transmission to the newborn. Genital warts (Choice A) are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV) and typically present as flesh-colored growths, not vesicles. Syphilis (Choice B) manifests as painless sores and can have systemic effects but does not typically present with vesicles. German measles (Choice D), also known as Rubella, is a viral illness characterized by a red rash, fever, and lymphadenopathy, not vesicles.
5. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is pregnant. The healthcare provider should expect which of the following laboratory values to increase?
- A. RBC count
- B. Bilirubin
- C. Fasting blood glucose
- D. BUN
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During pregnancy, the body increases the production of red blood cells (RBCs) to meet the increased oxygen demands. This physiological response is known as physiological anemia of pregnancy. Therefore, the RBC count is expected to increase during pregnancy. Bilirubin levels may remain relatively stable, fasting blood glucose levels might fluctuate due to gestational diabetes, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels are not typically affected by pregnancy, making them less likely to increase in this scenario. The correct answer is A because an increase in RBC count is a normal physiological adaptation to pregnancy to support the increased oxygen needs of the mother and the growing fetus. Bilirubin, a product of red blood cell breakdown, is more related to liver function and not expected to increase during pregnancy. Fasting blood glucose levels may vary due to gestational diabetes, but it is not a consistent finding in all pregnant individuals. BUN levels are related to kidney function and are not typically impacted by pregnancy, making it an unlikely choice for an expected increase in laboratory values during pregnancy.
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