HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health
1. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) repeatedly checks the locks on the doors. What is the best nursing intervention?
- A. Encourage the client to discuss their fears.
- B. Limit the client's time for ritualistic behavior.
- C. Assist the client to complete the ritual faster.
- D. Prevent the client from engaging in the behavior.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best nursing intervention when dealing with a client with OCD who repeatedly checks locks is to encourage the client to discuss their fears. This approach can help the client identify underlying anxiety triggers and work towards developing alternative coping mechanisms. Choice B, limiting the client's time for ritualistic behavior, may increase anxiety and worsen symptoms by creating a sense of urgency. Choice C, assisting the client to complete the ritual faster, does not address the underlying issues and may reinforce the behavior. Choice D, preventing the client from engaging in the behavior, can lead to increased anxiety and distress for the client.
2. A client diagnosed with undifferentiated schizophrenia is being discharged on aripiprazole (Abilify) 5 mg every night. When developing the teaching plan about the most common adverse effects, which of the following should the nurse include? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Headaches that will subside in a few weeks
- B. Transient mild anxiety
- C. Insomnia
- D. Torticollis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Torticollis. Common side effects of aripiprazole include headaches, mild anxiety, and insomnia. These side effects are manageable during treatment. Torticollis is not a common adverse effect associated with aripiprazole and is more commonly seen with other medications or conditions. Therefore, the nurse should not include torticollis in the teaching plan about the most common adverse effects of aripiprazole.
3. An older female adult who lives in a nursing home is loudly demanding that the nurse call her son who has been deceased for five years. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Assist the client in making the phone call.
- B. Remind the client about her son's passing.
- C. Escort the client to a private area.
- D. Direct the client to a new activity.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate intervention is to direct the client to a new activity. This approach can help redirect the client's attention, distract her from the distressing request, and engage her in a more positive interaction. Choice A could exacerbate the client's distress by attempting to make the impossible call, and reminding the client about her son's passing (Choice B) may increase her emotional distress. Escorting the client to a private area (Choice C) does not address the underlying issue and may not effectively manage the situation.
4. A 45-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for evaluation. Her husband states that she has been reluctant to leave home for the last six months. The client has not gone to work for a month and has been terminated from her job. She has not left the house since that time. This client is displaying symptoms of what condition?
- A. Claustrophobia
- B. Acrophobia
- C. Agoraphobia
- D. Post-traumatic stress disorder
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Agoraphobia. Agoraphobia is the fear of crowds or being in open places, often leading individuals to avoid situations where they feel trapped, insecure, or out of control. In the case described, the client's reluctance to leave home, avoidance of work, and isolation within the house are indicative of agoraphobia. Claustrophobia (A) is the fear of closed places, while acrophobia (B) is the fear of high places. Post-traumatic stress disorder (D) involves the development of anxiety symptoms following a traumatic event, characterized by terror, fear, and helplessness, and is different from a phobia.
5. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse's station in a laterally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Medicate the client with the prescribed antipsychotic thioridazine (Mellaril).
- B. Offer the client a prescribed physical therapy hot pack for muscle spasms.
- C. Direct the client to occupational therapy to distract him from somatic complaints.
- D. Administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia. Dystonia can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone, leading to involuntary muscle contractions and abnormal postures. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat dystonia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because thioridazine is not the appropriate medication in this case, a hot pack would not address the underlying issue of dystonia, and occupational therapy is not the primary intervention for addressing acute dystonic reactions.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access