Free HESI LPN Fundamentals of Nursing practice for HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank (HESI LPN). Answer 91 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mod
At the surgical scrub sink, a surgical nurse demonstrated the proper surgical handwashing technique by scrubbing:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct technique for surgical handwashing involves scrubbing with hands held higher than the elbows. This positioning helps prevent water from the contaminated area (the hands) from flowing towards the cleaner area (the elbows). This directional flow minimizes the risk of contaminating the scrubbed hands during the handwashing process. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A - having hands lower than elbows would risk contamination of the clean area, C - using a fist position does not ensure proper coverage and thorough handwashing, and D - placing hands on the chest is not part of the proper surgical handwashing technique.
A nurse is teaching the parents of a toddler about discipline. Which of the following actions should the nurse suggest?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to establish consistent boundaries for the toddler. This approach helps toddlers understand expectations and promotes consistent behavior. Placing the toddler alone or using food rewards may not effectively teach discipline and could be inappropriate. Informing the toddler about feelings when misbehaving may not be developmentally appropriate for a toddler to understand the consequences of their actions.
Before administering the prescribed morphine sulfate to a client post-op following laparotomy who reports pain and dry mouth, what should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Before administering morphine sulfate, it is crucial to measure the client's vital signs to ensure that the client is stable and safe to receive the medication. This step helps identify any contraindications or abnormalities that could affect the administration of morphine. Assessing the client's pain level (choice B) is important, but ensuring the client's physiological stability takes precedence. Verifying the morphine order with another nurse (choice C) and checking the client's last dose of morphine (choice D) are important steps but are not the priority before administering the medication.
A healthcare professional is assessing a patient's skin. Which patient is most at risk for impaired skin integrity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Excessive moisture on the skin, as seen in a diaphoretic patient, can lead to impaired skin integrity. Diaphoresis softens epidermal cells, promotes bacterial growth, and can cause skin maceration. Afebrile status, strong pedal pulses, and adequate skin turgor are not directly associated with an increased risk of impaired skin integrity. Afebrile indicates the absence of fever, not a risk to skin integrity. Strong pedal pulses suggest good circulation, which is beneficial for skin health. Adequate skin turgor is a sign of good hydration and skin elasticity, indicating a lower risk of impaired skin integrity.
The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of insulin to a client with diabetes. What is the best site for the nurse to select for this injection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'D: Abdomen.' The abdomen is the best site for insulin injections as it provides a larger area with consistent absorption rates due to the high vascularity of the area. The subcutaneous tissue in the abdomen allows for a more predictable and consistent absorption of insulin compared to other sites. Ventrogluteal and dorsogluteal sites are not commonly used for insulin injections due to the risk of hitting the sciatic nerve or causing tissue damage. The deltoid site is more commonly used for intramuscular injections rather than subcutaneous injections like insulin.
When caring for a client with diarrhea due to shigellosis, what precautions should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to wear a gown when caring for the client. Shigellosis is highly contagious, and contact precautions are essential to prevent the spread of infection. Wearing gloves alone may not provide adequate protection as the client's diarrhea can contain infectious pathogens that can easily spread. Standard precautions include hand hygiene, but specific precautions for shigellosis require wearing a gown to protect against contact with infectious material. Wearing a mask and face shield are not necessary for shigellosis, as the primary mode of transmission is through the fecal-oral route, and these precautions are not indicated for this type of transmission.
A nurse is caring for a client who is unstable and has vital signs measured every 15 minutes by an electronic blood pressure machine. The nurse notices the machine begins to measure the blood pressure at varied intervals and the readings are inconsistent. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the nurse should adjust the machine settings. If the electronic blood pressure machine is providing varied intervals and inconsistent readings, it indicates a potential malfunction. Changing the settings may help correct the issue and ensure accurate measurements. Discontinuing the machine and measuring manually every 15 minutes (Choice A) may be time-consuming and impractical. Cleaning the machine (Choice C) is important for routine maintenance but may not address the current issue of varied intervals and inconsistent readings. Increasing the frequency of the readings (Choice D) does not address the problem of inaccurate measurements caused by the malfunctioning machine.
A patient with stomatitis is receiving oral care education from a nurse. Which instructions will the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a patient with stomatitis is to avoid commercial mouthwashes. Commercial mouthwashes often contain alcohol and other ingredients that can irritate the already inflamed oral mucosa in patients with stomatitis. Avoiding commercial mouthwashes helps prevent further irritation and discomfort. Choice B is incorrect because normal saline rinses are gentle and can help soothe the oral mucosa in patients with stomatitis. Choice C is incorrect because a soft toothbrush should be used to prevent further irritation or injury to the gums. Choice D is incorrect because an alcohol-based toothpaste can be too harsh and drying for patients with stomatitis.
How should a healthcare professional care for a client approaching death with shortness of breath and noisy respirations?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a palliative care setting, when caring for a client approaching death with symptoms of shortness of breath and noisy respirations, using a fan can help alleviate the sensation of breathlessness. This intervention can provide comfort by improving air circulation and reducing the perception of breathlessness. Turning the client every 2 hours may not directly address the respiratory distress caused by noisy respirations. Providing supplemental oxygen may not be indicated or effective in all cases, especially in end-of-life care where the focus is on comfort rather than aggressive interventions. Administering diuretics as prescribed would not be appropriate for addressing noisy respirations and shortness of breath in a dying client, as this may not be related to fluid overload or congestion. Therefore, the most appropriate action to help the client feel more comfortable in this situation is to use a fan to reduce the feeling of breathlessness.
A 15-year-old client has been placed in a Milwaukee Brace. Which statement from the adolescent indicates the need for additional teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. The statement 'I will only have to wear this for 6 months' indicates a need for additional teaching because the Milwaukee Brace is typically worn for 12-18 months, not just 6 months. Choice B is correct as inspecting the skin daily is important to prevent skin breakdown. Choice C is correct as the brace is usually worn day and night for effectiveness. Choice D is correct as the brace can be removed when showering to maintain hygiene.
A nurse is assigned to a manipulative client for 5 days and becomes aware of feelings of reluctance to interact with the client. What should the nurse do next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
It is important for the nurse to address their feelings of reluctance when dealing with a manipulative client by discussing them with an objective peer or supervisor. This action can provide valuable insight and support for managing the nurse-client relationship. Choice B should be avoided as limiting contacts with the client may not address the underlying issues and could potentially harm the therapeutic relationship. Choice C is confrontational and may escalate the situation rather than resolve it. Choice D, while important, should come after addressing the nurse's feelings and seeking support.
A client has pharyngeal diphtheria. What transmission precautions are necessary?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Pharyngeal diphtheria is primarily spread through droplet transmission, which occurs when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks, releasing respiratory droplets containing the bacteria. Therefore, the correct precaution for caring for a client with pharyngeal diphtheria is droplet precautions. Droplet precautions help prevent the transmission of respiratory pathogens over short distances via respiratory droplets. Contact precautions are used for diseases spread through direct or indirect contact with the patient or their environment. Airborne precautions are used for diseases that spread through small droplets suspended in the air. Standard precautions are basic infection prevention practices applying to all patient care.
The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which assessment finding would be most concerning?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The use of accessory muscles is the most concerning finding in a client with COPD. It indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory distress, requiring immediate attention. Barrel chest is a common physical characteristic in individuals with COPD due to chronic air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs but is not as acutely concerning as the use of accessory muscles. Clubbing of the fingers is a late sign of chronic hypoxia and is often seen in conditions with prolonged hypoxemia but is not as acute as the use of accessory muscles. Cough with sputum production is a common symptom in COPD due to excess mucus production but does not indicate immediate respiratory distress as the use of accessory muscles does.
A healthcare professional is assessing postoperative circulation of the lower extremities for a client who had knee surgery. The healthcare professional should test which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Assessing skin color is crucial to evaluate perfusion and circulation postoperatively. Skin color changes can indicate compromised circulation, such as pallor or cyanosis. Edema may suggest fluid retention but is not a direct indicator of circulation status. Range of motion is more related to joint function and mobility, not specifically circulation.
What are the correct steps used for abdominal assessment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct order for abdominal assessment is inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation. Inspection allows the nurse to visually assess the abdomen for any abnormalities or distension. Auscultation follows to listen for bowel sounds and vascular sounds. Percussion helps to assess the density of underlying structures and detect any abnormal masses. Palpation is performed last to assess tenderness, organ size, and detect any masses. Choices B, C, and D have the steps in the incorrect order, making them the wrong choices.
The nurse manager hears a healthcare provider loudly criticize one of the staff nurses within the hearing of others. The employee does not respond to the healthcare provider's complaints. The nurse manager's next action should be to
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse manager in this situation is to request an immediate private meeting with the healthcare provider and staff nurse. By doing so, the nurse manager can facilitate a more appropriate and professional discussion of the issues at hand in a private setting. Option A, which involves addressing the behavior quietly, may not effectively resolve the issue as it needs to be openly discussed. Option B is not advisable as the nurse manager should intervene to address the situation and provide support. Option C, notifying other administrative personnel, may escalate the situation unnecessarily before attempting to resolve it directly with the involved parties.
A mother of a child with a neural tube defect asks the nurse what she can do to decrease the chances of having another baby with a neural tube defect. What is the best response by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Folic acid should be taken before and after conception.' Folic acid supplementation before and during early pregnancy has been shown to significantly reduce the risk of neural tube defects. Choice B is incorrect because while multivitamin supplements are beneficial during pregnancy, the specific focus for preventing neural tube defects is on folic acid. Choice C is a general statement about a well-balanced diet and does not specifically address neural tube defects. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on dietary iron, which is important for overall health but not specifically proven to prevent neural tube defects.
A client is admitted with infective endocarditis (IE). Which symptom would alert the nurse to a complication of this condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A new or changed heart murmur is a common sign of valve involvement in infective endocarditis, indicating a complication such as valve damage or regurgitation. Dyspnea is more commonly associated with respiratory or cardiac conditions not directly related to infective endocarditis. A macular rash is not a typical symptom of infective endocarditis, suggesting other conditions like infectious diseases. Hemorrhage is not a direct complication of infective endocarditis but may occur due to factors such as anticoagulant therapy or underlying bleeding disorders.
A nurse at a screening clinic is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur related to aortic valve stenosis. At which of the following anatomical areas should the nurse place the stethoscope to auscultate the aortic valve?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct placement to auscultate the aortic valve is at the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum, which coincides with the aortic area. The choice stating 'Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line' is the correct answer for auscultating the aortic valve. Placing the stethoscope at the left sternal border would be more suitable for listening to the tricuspid valve. The fifth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line is the recommended area for auscultating the mitral valve. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer for assessing the aortic valve in a client with a history of a heart murmur related to aortic valve stenosis.
A client has C-diff infection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to initiate contact precautions when providing client care. C-diff (Clostridium difficile) is highly contagious, and contact precautions are necessary to prevent its spread. Giving the client chlorhexidine gluconate for hand hygiene (Choice A) is not specific to managing C-diff. Removing the protective gown first when exiting the client's room (Choice B) may increase the risk of contaminating oneself and the environment. Using alcohol-based hand rub when caring for the client (Choice C) is not sufficient to prevent the transmission of C-diff, as soap and water are more effective against this particular pathogen.
A nurse is providing care to a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Securing the catheter to the client's thigh is the correct action to prevent CAUTIs. By securing the catheter, movement is minimized, reducing the risk of introducing bacteria into the urinary tract. Choice A is incorrect because routine irrigation of the catheter is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection. Choice B is incorrect as emptying the catheter bag every 8 hours is important for proper drainage but does not directly prevent CAUTIs. Choice C is incorrect because cleaning the perineal area with antiseptic solution does not address the main source of CAUTIs related to catheter care.
A nurse is caring for a client receiving fluid through a peripheral IV catheter. Which of the following findings at the IV site should the nurse identify as infiltration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Infiltration occurs when the IV fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue instead of entering the bloodstream properly. Skin blanching, swelling, and coolness at the IV site are typical signs of infiltration. Purulent exudate (choice A) is associated with infection, warmth (choice B) can indicate phlebitis, and bleeding (choice D) may occur if the IV catheter punctures a blood vessel.
A client has a closed wound drainage system. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a closed wound drainage system, it is essential to maintain the drain in a dependent position to allow for proper drainage. Gravity aids in the flow of drainage, preventing fluid backflow or pooling. Avoiding pressing the container down to create a vacuum (Choice A) is crucial as it can lead to complications in the system. Wearing sterile gloves (Choice B) is important for infection control when handling the drainage system. Resetting the container with the drainage port closed (Choice C) is incorrect as it can cause spillage and contamination of the surrounding area.
A nurse educator is presenting a module on basic first aid for newly licensed home health nurses. The client who has heat stroke will have which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Heat stroke is characterized by elevated body temperature, which can lead to hypotension (low blood pressure) due to dehydration and vasodilation. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and clammy skin are not typical findings in heat stroke. Bradypnea (slow breathing) is also not a common feature of heat stroke. Therefore, hypotension is the most likely cardiovascular manifestation seen in a client with heat stroke.
Which action is most important for maintaining sterility when donning sterile gloves?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most crucial action for maintaining sterility when donning sterile gloves is to keep gloved hands above the elbows. This practice is essential to prevent potential contamination and maintain a sterile field. Choices A, maintaining thumbs at a ninety-degree angle, and B, holding hands with fingers pointing downward while gloving, are not as critical as keeping hands above the elbows for maintaining sterility. Choice D, putting the glove on the dominant hand first, is not as important as ensuring that gloved hands are kept above the elbows to maintain sterility.
A client who is postoperative is verbalizing pain as a 2 on a pain scale of 0-10. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the preoperative teaching they received about pain management?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Listening to music is a non-pharmacological method to help manage mild pain, reflecting an understanding of pain management strategies. It shows the client's grasp of non-pharmacological pain management techniques taught preoperatively. Choice B, while important, only addresses pharmacological pain management, omitting other strategies discussed in preoperative teaching. Choice C jumps to changing medications without considering non-pharmacological methods first, indicating a narrow approach to pain management. Choice D involves a physical therapist, which is not directly related to the pain management strategies typically discussed in preoperative teaching.
A client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) 2 days ago has many questions about this condition. What area is a priority for the nurse to discuss at this time?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Addressing the client's daily needs and concerns is a priority to help alleviate anxiety and ensure the client understands the immediate post-MI care. Daily needs and concerns encompass basic aspects like comfort, hygiene, emotional support, and overall well-being, which are crucial in the early recovery phase post-MI. Discussing cardiac rehabilitation, medication and diet guidelines, or activity and rest guidelines are important topics but addressing immediate personal needs and concerns takes precedence to establish a supportive and informative care environment.
A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What is the most important action for the LPN/LVN to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important action for the LPN/LVN to take when a client with a history of diabetes mellitus experiences symptoms of hyperglycemia such as polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia is to monitor the client's blood glucose level. This action helps assess the severity of hyperglycemia and guides further interventions. Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake (Choice B) may exacerbate the symptoms by further diluting the blood glucose concentration. Administering insulin as prescribed (Choice C) should be done based on the healthcare provider's orders and after assessing the blood glucose levels. Assessing the client's urine output (Choice D) is important but not the most immediate action needed in this scenario.
A healthcare professional is providing care to a client who has a tracheostomy. Which of the following actions should the professional take to prevent complications?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Maintaining sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care is essential in preventing infections and complications. Option A is incorrect because povidone-iodine may be too harsh for cleaning around the stoma and can lead to skin irritation. Option C is incorrect because suctioning a tracheostomy should be done using sterile technique to minimize the risk of introducing pathogens. Option D is incorrect as tracheostomy ties need to be changed more frequently, usually every 1-2 days, to prevent skin breakdown and infection.
A nurse in a provider's office is preparing to assess a young adult client's musculoskeletal system as part of a comprehensive physical examination. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assessing a young adult's musculoskeletal system, the nurse should expect an exaggerated lumbar curvature (lordosis). This is a normal finding in young adults due to the natural curvature of the spine. Concave thoracic spine posteriorly (choice A) and concave lumbar spine posteriorly (choice C) are not typical findings as the spine should have normal curvatures. Exaggerated thoracic curvature (choice D) is also not a typical finding in young adults.
The healthcare provider is assessing a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the provider review first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the potential for hepatotoxicity. Therefore, the healthcare provider should first review liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) to assess liver function. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts are important in assessing for anemia or infection but are not specific to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels primarily assess kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.
A nurse in a provider's office is collecting information from an older adult who reports that he has been taking acetaminophen 500 mg/day for severe joint pain. The nurse should instruct the client that large doses of acetaminophen could cause which of the following adverse effects?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct Answer: Large doses of acetaminophen can cause liver damage, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Acetaminophen is metabolized in the liver, and excessive amounts can overwhelm the liver's ability to process it, leading to hepatotoxicity. Renal failure (Choice B) is not typically associated with acetaminophen use. Gastric bleeding (Choice C) is more commonly linked to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) rather than acetaminophen. Heart attack (Choice D) is not a recognized adverse effect of acetaminophen, which primarily affects the liver when taken in large amounts.
The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which symptom would be most concerning?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Shortness of breath is the most concerning symptom in a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) because it could indicate a pulmonary embolism. A pulmonary embolism is a serious complication of DVT where a blood clot travels to the lungs and can be life-threatening. Immediate medical attention is required to prevent further complications. Pain, redness, warmth, and swelling in the affected leg are common symptoms of DVT itself but do not pose the same level of immediate danger as the potential for a pulmonary embolism.
The LPN observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) taking a client's blood pressure with a cuff that is too small, but the blood pressure reading obtained is within the client's usual range. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Reassessing the client's blood pressure using a larger cuff is the most important action for the nurse to implement in this situation. Using the correct cuff size is crucial for obtaining accurate blood pressure readings. By reassessing with a larger cuff, the nurse can ensure an accurate measurement and proper monitoring of the client's blood pressure. Choice A is not the best option as it doesn't address the immediate need for accurate blood pressure measurement. Choice C is not the most appropriate action at this time since the immediate concern is ensuring correct blood pressure assessment. Choice D, while important, is not the most critical step in this scenario where immediate reassessment is needed with the correct cuff size.
The healthcare professional is preparing to administer potassium chloride intravenously to a client with hypokalemia. Which action is most important?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to dilute the potassium chloride in an appropriate IV solution. Potassium chloride should never be administered as a rapid IV push as it can lead to severe complications, including cardiac arrhythmias. Diluting the medication and administering it slowly helps reduce the risk of adverse effects. Monitoring the client's respiratory rate (Choice A) and checking urine output (Choice B) are important aspects of patient assessment but not the most crucial when administering potassium chloride. Administering potassium chloride as a rapid IV push (Choice C) is dangerous and can result in serious harm to the client.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has had a stroke, resulting in aphasia and dysphagia. Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to an assistive personnel (AP)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the nurse should assign the task of assisting the client with a partial bed bath to an assistive personnel (AP). APs are trained to provide basic care tasks like hygiene assistance. Options B, C, and D involve more complex tasks such as measuring BP, using a communication board for speech-impaired clients, and feeding, which require nursing judgment and skills beyond basic care. Therefore, these tasks should be performed by licensed nursing staff who can assess, communicate effectively, and address the specific medical and safety needs of the client.
After preparing and lubricating the enema set, what is the correct sequence of steps a nurse should follow when administering a large volume enema to a client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct sequence for administering a large volume enema is as follows: 1. Insert the enema tube into the rectum, 2. Administer the enema solution, 3. Clamp the tube, 4. Remove the tube, 5. Wrap the end with tissue. Therefore, the nurse should remove the enema tube from the client's rectum after administering the enema solution. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the enema tube should be removed from the rectum after the administration of the solution, not before or during the process.
How should the nurse transcribe the dosage of this medication on the client's medical record?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct way to transcribe the dosage of three tenths of a milligram of levothyroxine IV STAT is 0.3 mg. When expressing decimals less than 1, there should be a leading zero before the decimal point. Choice A is incorrect (.3 mg) because it lacks the leading zero. Choice C (0.30 mg) is incorrect as it includes a trailing zero after the decimal point, which is unnecessary. Choice D (3/10 mg) is incorrect as it presents the dosage as a fraction, which is not the standard format for transcribing medication dosages. Therefore, B (0.3 mg) is the most appropriate and accurate way to document this prescription on the client's medical record.
A client with limited mobility in his lower extremities is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent skin breakdown?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to have the client use a trapeze bar when changing positions. This action helps in repositioning without causing friction or shearing, which can lead to skin breakdown. Placing the client in high-Fowler's position (Choice A) may not directly prevent skin breakdown related to limited mobility. Increasing carbohydrate intake (Choice B) is not relevant to preventing skin breakdown. Massaging reddened areas with lotion (Choice C) can potentially cause more harm by increasing friction and damaging the skin further, rather than preventing breakdown.
A client has a prescription for 5 units of regular insulin and 10 units of NPH insulin to mix together and administer subcutaneously. Determine the correct order of steps for this procedure.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct order of steps for this procedure is to first inject air into the NPH insulin bottle to prevent vacuum formation. After injecting air into the NPH insulin, the next step is to withdraw the correct dose of regular insulin from its bottle. This sequence ensures that the regular insulin is drawn after the NPH insulin, preventing contamination and ensuring accurate dosing. Therefore, choice B is correct. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because air should be injected into the NPH insulin first, not the regular insulin, and the doses should be withdrawn in the appropriate order to maintain the integrity and potency of each insulin type.
While interviewing a client, the nurse records the assessment in the electronic health record. Which statement is most accurate regarding electronic documentation during an interview?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most accurate statement is that the nurse has a limited ability to observe nonverbal communication while entering the assessment electronically. This is because the nurse's focus is on typing or inputting data, which may lead to missing important nonverbal cues from the client. Choices A and B are incorrect as they do not address the limitation of observing nonverbal cues. Choice A is incorrect because breaking eye contact to type notes may hinder the client's comfort level. Choice B is incorrect because it states that electronic documentation enhances the interview process, which may not always be the case. Choice D is incorrect as completing the electronic record during an interview is typically a standard practice but not a legal obligation.
The healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube. What is the most important action for the healthcare professional to take to ensure the chest tube is functioning properly?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Ensuring the water seal chamber is filled to the appropriate level is crucial to maintain the effectiveness of the chest tube drainage system. This step helps prevent air from entering the pleural space, ensuring proper lung re-expansion. 'Milking' the chest tube is not recommended as it can cause damage to the chest tube and surrounding tissues. Clamping the chest tube is not advisable as it can lead to tension pneumothorax. Securing the chest tube to the bed is important for stability but does not directly impact the functioning of the chest tube.
What will ensure the safe movement of a patient who is unable to move and needs to be pulled up in bed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To ensure the safe movement of a patient who is unable to move and needs to be pulled up in bed, it is essential to use a friction-reducing device. This device helps reduce the risk of injury to both the patient and the healthcare provider by minimizing the effort required to reposition the patient. Placing a pillow under the patient's head and shoulders (Choice A) may provide comfort but does not address the safety concerns associated with moving the patient. Attempting to move the patient alone (Choice B) is not recommended as it can lead to injuries for both the patient and the healthcare provider. Placing the side rails in the up position (Choice C) may not directly contribute to the safe movement of the patient in this scenario.
During a dressing change, a healthcare professional observes granulation tissue in a client's wound. Which of the following findings should be documented?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Granulation tissue is a hallmark of healing in wounds. It appears as translucent and red, indicating angiogenesis and the formation of new blood vessels in the wound bed. This tissue is vital for wound healing as it provides a scaffold for cell migration and promotes re-epithelialization. Choices A, C, and D do not describe granulation tissue accurately. Stringy, white tissue may suggest fibrin, soft, yellow tissue could indicate slough, and thick, black tissue may imply necrotic tissue, all of which are not synonymous with granulation tissue and do not signify the healing process.
A charge nurse is assigning client care for four clients. Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to a PN?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client who has pneumonia. This task falls within the practical nurse's scope of practice, as it involves direct patient care and basic interventions. Creating a plan of care for a client recovering from a stroke involves critical thinking and comprehensive assessment, which are typically responsibilities of registered nurses. Assessing a pressure injury requires specialized wound care knowledge, often performed by wound care specialists or registered nurses with wound care training. Teaching a client to use a metered-dose inhaler involves patient education and requires a thorough understanding of asthma management, making it more suitable for a registered nurse.
During an assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating a client who has been on bed rest for the past month. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the client has developed thrombophlebitis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Calf swelling, redness, and tenderness are classic signs of thrombophlebitis. The swelling occurs due to the formation of a blood clot in the deep veins of the calf, leading to inflammation and potential obstruction of blood flow. Bladder distention (Choice A) is more indicative of urinary retention, decreased blood pressure (Choice B) can be seen in conditions like shock, and diminished bowel sounds (Choice D) may suggest gastrointestinal issues, none of which are directly related to thrombophlebitis.
A nurse in a long-term care facility is planning to perform hygiene care for a new resident. Which of the following assessment questions is the nurse's priority before beginning this procedure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority assessment question before beginning hygiene care for a new resident is determining if the resident is able to help with their hygiene care. This is essential to ensure the resident's safety during the procedure and prevent any potential injuries. Options A, B, and C, while relevant to providing personalized care, are not as critical as assessing the resident's ability to participate in their own hygiene care. Asking about the resident's ability to assist also promotes their independence and autonomy in self-care activities.
A client is on bed rest following an abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings indicates the need to increase the frequency of position changes?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The presence of a non-blanching red area over the client's trochanter is a concerning finding as it indicates possible pressure ulcer formation. This finding necessitates an increase in the frequency of position changes to prevent skin breakdown. Choices A, C, and D do not directly correlate with the need for increased position changes. A flat rash, ecchymosis, and petechiae may have different causes and would not be addressed by changing the client's position more frequently.
The patient diagnosed with athlete's foot (tinea pedis) states that he is relieved because it is only athlete's foot, and it can be treated easily. Which information about this condition should the nurse consider when formulating a response to the patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Athlete's foot, also known as tinea pedis, is a contagious fungal infection that can easily spread to other body parts, particularly the hands. It often recurs if not properly treated, making choice A the correct answer. Choices B and C are incorrect because while it is beneficial to air-dry feet after bathing to prevent moisture buildup, athlete's foot is commonly treated with antifungal medications, not salicylic acid. Choice D is incorrect because athlete's foot is caused by a fungal infection, not lice.
When moving a patient up in bed using a drawsheet with the help of another nurse, in which order will the nurses perform the steps, starting with the first one?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When moving a patient up in bed with a drawsheet and the assistance of another nurse, it is important to have one nurse positioned at each side of the bed initially. This allows for proper coordination and support during the patient movement. Placing the drawsheet under the patient from shoulder to thigh, grasping the drawsheet firmly near the patient, and moving the patient and drawsheet to the desired position follow after the nurses are positioned on each side of the bed. The correct sequence ensures a safe and coordinated approach to repositioning the patient in bed.
When taking a history of a 3-year-old with neuroblastoma, what comment by the parents requires follow-up and is consistent with the diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Clothes becoming tighter across the abdomen is indicative of an abdominal mass, a common presentation in neuroblastoma. This symptom should be followed up on further as it aligns with the diagnosis. Choices A, B, and D are less specific to neuroblastoma. Weight loss and listlessness (Choice A) can be nonspecific symptoms, while dark yellow urine in small amounts (Choice B) may suggest dehydration or other conditions. Muscle weakness and unsteadiness (Choice D) could point towards various neurological or muscular issues but are not as directly related to neuroblastoma as the symptom described in Choice C.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer metoprolol 200 mg PO daily. The medication available is metoprolol 100 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To administer 200 mg of metoprolol using 100 mg tablets, the healthcare professional should give 2 tablets. Each tablet contains 100 mg of metoprolol, so 2 tablets will provide the required 200 mg dose. Choice A is incorrect because 1 tablet would only provide 100 mg, which is insufficient. Choice C is incorrect as fractions of tablets are usually not used in practice to ensure accurate dosing. Choice D is incorrect as it would result in an overdose, providing 400 mg instead of the prescribed 200 mg.
A client has right-sided paralysis following a cerebrovascular accident. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate to prevent a plantar flexion contracture of the affected extremity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An ankle-foot orthotic is the correct choice to prevent a plantar flexion contracture in a paralyzed limb. An ankle-foot orthotic helps maintain proper alignment of the foot and ankle, preventing the foot from being permanently fixed in a pointed-down position. Continuous passive motion machines are typically used to promote joint movement after surgery and would not address the prevention of contractures in this case. Abduction splints are used to keep the legs apart and would not address the specific issue described. Sequential compression devices are used to prevent deep vein thrombosis by promoting circulation in the lower extremities and are not indicated for preventing plantar flexion contractures.
A nurse is providing teaching to an older adult client who has constipation. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement the nurse should include in the teaching is to 'Sit on the toilet 30 minutes after eating a meal.' This advice can help establish a regular bowel routine and improve bowel movement. Option B, 'Increase your fluid intake to help with bowel movements,' while important, is not specific to the time after eating and does not directly address the need for establishing a routine. Option C, 'Exercise regularly to improve bowel function,' is also important but does not address the timing of bowel movements. Option D, 'Consume more high-fiber foods to prevent constipation,' is beneficial for preventing constipation but does not address the timing aspect related to bowel movements.
A nurse is providing care to four clients. Which of the following situations requires the nurse to complete an incident report?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. An incident report should be completed when a nurse administers medication to a client significantly earlier than the scheduled time. This deviation from the prescribed schedule could potentially impact the client's treatment plan and requires documentation for proper evaluation and follow-up. Choices A, B, and D do not necessarily require an incident report. Choice A involves improper restraint application, which is a safety issue but does not directly involve medication administration. Choice B involves a protective measure for a client with TB, which is within the scope of practice for assistive personnel. Choice D describes an increase in IV fluid administration, which may need monitoring but does not necessarily indicate a need for an incident report unless there are specific complications or adverse effects related to the additional fluid.
What is the most important action for the nurse to take to prevent infection in a client who has just returned from surgery with an indwelling urinary catheter in place?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important action to prevent infection in a client with an indwelling urinary catheter is to ensure the catheter tubing is free of kinks. This action helps prevent obstruction, ensures proper drainage, and reduces the risk of infection. Changing the catheter every 72 hours is not necessary unless clinically indicated and may introduce unnecessary risk. Cleaning the perineal area with antiseptic solution daily is important for general hygiene but not the most critical action for catheter-related infection prevention. Irrigating the catheter with normal saline every shift is not a routine nursing intervention for catheter care and may increase the risk of introducing pathogens.
A healthcare provider is assessing a client's ability to balance. Which of the following actions is appropriate when the healthcare provider conducts a Romberg test?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Romberg test is a neurological test that assesses proprioception and balance. To perform this test, the client is asked to stand with their feet together and arms at their sides while closing their eyes. By removing visual input, the test challenges the vestibular and proprioceptive systems. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the proper procedure for conducting the Romberg test. Extending arms in front, walking heel to toe, or placing hands on hips are not part of the Romberg test protocol and may introduce variables that could affect the assessment of balance.
After a renal biopsy, a client has returned to the unit. Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Monitoring vital signs is crucial after a renal biopsy to promptly detect any signs of bleeding or complications. Ambulating the client 4 hours after the procedure may increase the risk of bleeding, so it is not appropriate. Maintaining the client on NPO status for 24 hours is not necessary unless specifically ordered by the healthcare provider. Changing the dressing every 8 hours is not typically indicated unless there is a specific concern or order to do so.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has experienced a stroke causing total paralysis of the right side. To help maintain joint function and minimize the disability from contractures, passive range of motion (ROM) will be initiated. When should the nurse begin this therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Passive ROM exercises should begin as soon as the patient loses the ability to move the extremity or joint. Initiating passive ROM early helps prevent contractures and maintain joint function. Choice A is incorrect because delaying passive ROM until after the acute phase may lead to irreversible contractures. Choice C is not the best option as waiting until the patient enters the rehab unit delays crucial preventive measures. Choice D is incorrect as passive ROM should not be based on patient requests but on clinical indications and best practices.
The client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the healthcare provider monitor closely?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct! When a client is taking furosemide (Lasix), monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the potential for hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through increased urine output. Low potassium levels can predispose the client to cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by furosemide to the same extent as potassium, making them less critical to monitor in this scenario.
A client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is admitted with dyspnea and a productive cough. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Auscultating lung sounds is crucial for assessing the extent of congestion in a client with CHF. The presence of crackles or wheezing can indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of CHF. Monitoring urine output (Choice A) is important to assess renal function but is not the priority in this situation. While assessing the apical pulse (Choice C) and checking blood pressure (Choice D) are important in managing CHF, they do not provide immediate information about the respiratory status and congestion level in the lungs, making auscultating lung sounds the most critical assessment.
The provider orders Lanoxin (digoxin) 0.125 mg PO and furosemide 40 mg every day. Which of these foods would the nurse reinforce for the client to eat at least daily?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Watermelon.' Watermelon is high in potassium, which is important to counteract the potassium loss caused by furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, so consuming potassium-rich foods like watermelon can help maintain electrolyte balance. Choices A, C, and D do not specifically address the need for potassium in this scenario and are not as beneficial for addressing the potential electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide.
A client with a tracheostomy collar has a decrease in heart rate and oxygen saturation during tracheal suctioning. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue suctioning. Suctioning should be stopped immediately to prevent further decrease in heart rate and oxygen saturation. Elevating the head of the bed may help with oxygenation, but the priority is to stop the suctioning procedure. Removing the inner cannula or irrigating the stoma are not appropriate actions and could worsen the client's condition.
A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is being assessed. Which symptom would be most concerning?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Chest pain in a client with hypertension is the most concerning symptom as it may indicate a myocardial infarction or other serious cardiac event related to hypertension. Immediate intervention is required to address potential life-threatening conditions. Headache, blurred vision, and dizziness are common symptoms associated with hypertension but are not typically indicative of an acute cardiac event requiring urgent attention.
A nurse manager is assigning care of a client who is being admitted from the PACU following thoracic surgery. The nurse manager should assign the client to which of the following staff members?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, a client who has undergone thoracic surgery and is being admitted from the PACU requires a high level of nursing care. Registered nurses (RNs) have the education and training necessary to provide the complex care and monitoring needed for a post-thoracic surgery client. Charge nurses may oversee units but may not always be directly involved in providing bedside care. Practical nurses (PNs) have a different scope of practice compared to RNs and may not have the advanced skills needed for post-thoracic surgery care. Assistive personnel (AP) provide valuable support but do not have the qualifications to manage the care of a client following thoracic surgery.
During an abdominal assessment for an adult client, what is the correct sequence of steps?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct sequence for an abdominal assessment in an adult client is to first Inspect the abdomen for any visible abnormalities, then Auscultate to listen for bowel sounds, followed by Percussion to assess for organ size and presence of fluid or masses, and finally Palpation to feel for tenderness, masses, or organ enlargement. Choice A, 'Inspect, Auscultate, Percuss, Palpate,' is the correct sequence for an abdominal assessment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the recommended sequence of assessment. Palpation should be the last step as it can potentially alter bowel sounds and percussion findings if done before. This deviation can lead to missing important findings or inaccurate assessment results.
A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a group of clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse expect a prescription for fluid restriction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Fluid restriction is commonly prescribed for clients with heart failure to prevent fluid overload and exacerbation of heart failure symptoms. Heart failure often leads to fluid retention, and restricting fluid intake can help manage this condition. Adrenal insufficiency, diabetic ketoacidosis, and abdominal ascites do not typically require fluid restriction as a primary intervention. Adrenal insufficiency may require hormone replacement therapy, diabetic ketoacidosis requires fluid and electrolyte replacement, and abdominal ascites may require diuretics or paracentesis to remove excess fluid.
When admitting a client to an acute care facility, an identification bracelet is sent up with the admission form. In the event these do not match, the nurse's best action is to
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should notify the admissions office and wait to apply the bracelet. By doing so, the nurse ensures patient safety and accuracy in identification. Changing the incorrect item (Choice A) could lead to errors and confusion in the patient's identification. Using the mismatched items until a replacement is supplied (Choice B) compromises patient safety and could result in errors during care delivery. Making a corrected identification bracelet without verifying the correct information (Choice D) could introduce further inaccuracies and risks in patient identification.
The nurse receives a report that a client with an indwelling urinary catheter has an output of 150 mL for the previous 6-hour shift. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to check the drainage tubing for a kink. A kink in the tubing can obstruct urine flow, potentially causing the low output. By addressing this first, the nurse can ensure that there are no physical obstructions hindering urine drainage. Reviewing the intake and output record is important, but addressing a possible kink in the tubing takes precedence as it directly affects urine flow. Notifying the healthcare provider should be considered after assessing and resolving immediate issues. Giving the client water to drink may be appropriate, but addressing a kink in the tubing is the priority to ensure proper function of the urinary catheter.
The debilitated patient is resisting attempts by the nurse to provide oral hygiene. Which action will the nurse take next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a debilitated patient resists oral hygiene, the nurse should prioritize safety. Inserting an oral airway helps keep the mouth open, ensuring adequate access for oral care procedures while preventing any accidental biting or closure of the airway. Placing the patient in a flat, supine position may not address the resistance issue and can lead to aspiration risk. Using undiluted hydrogen peroxide is not recommended due to its potential harmful effects on oral tissues. Proceeding quickly without communication can escalate the situation and compromise patient-centered care.
A self-sufficient bedridden patient is unable to reach all body parts. Which type of bath will the nurse assign to the nursing assistive personnel?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is a partial bed bath (Choice C). A partial bed bath involves washing body parts that the patient cannot reach on their own, such as the back. It also includes providing assistance with a backrub to promote circulation and skin integrity. In this scenario, where the patient is bedridden and unable to reach all body parts, a partial bed bath is the most appropriate as it focuses on areas the patient cannot clean themselves. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a bag bath involves using premoistened disposable cloths for bathing, a sponge bath involves using a basin of water and a sponge for cleansing, and a complete bed bath involves washing the entire body, including areas the patient can reach, which are not necessary in this case.
What action should the nurse include in the plan of care for a postoperative client with a history of poor nutritional intake who needs care for wound healing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To promote wound healing in a postoperative client with poor nutritional intake, the nurse should include a protein intake of 1.5 g/kg of body weight per day in the plan of care. Proteins are essential for tissue repair and wound healing. Increasing carbohydrate intake or administering high-dose vitamin supplements may not directly promote wound healing. Ensuring a daily intake of 1000 calories may not provide adequate nutrients for optimal wound healing.
The client is receiving continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which finding indicates that the bladder irrigation is effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The presence of clear urine free of clots is an indicator that the bladder irrigation is effective. This finding suggests that the irrigation is preventing clot formation and ensuring proper drainage, which is crucial after a TURP procedure. The client reporting minimal pain and discomfort (choice A) may be a positive sign but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of the bladder irrigation. The absence of infection signs (choice C) is important but not specific to evaluating the bladder irrigation. The client being able to void independently (choice D) is a good sign overall but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of the bladder irrigation.
A charge nurse is explaining the various stages of the lifespan to a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following examples should the charge nurse include as a developmental task for a young adult?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Devoting time to establishing an occupation. Young adults typically focus on building their careers and personal identities, making establishing an occupation a crucial developmental task for this age group. Choices A, B, and D do not align with the typical developmental tasks of young adults. Choice A relates more to middle adulthood where individuals take on mentoring roles, choice B is more characteristic of the tasks associated with adjusting to late adulthood, and choice D is more relevant to middle adulthood when individuals may find themselves caring for both their own children and aging parents.
What is the most important aspect for the nurse to include in the discharge plan for a client performing his own dressing changes at home following abdominal surgery?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most critical aspect for the nurse to include in the discharge plan for a client performing his own dressing changes at home following abdominal surgery is the demonstration of appropriate hand hygiene. Proper hand hygiene is essential to prevent the introduction of infection during dressing changes. While wound care technique, signs and symptoms of infection, and instructions for contacting the healthcare provider are all important components of the discharge plan, ensuring the client understands and practices proper hand hygiene is paramount to minimize the risk of infection. This choice takes precedence as it directly addresses infection prevention during the dressing changes, which is crucial for successful post-operative recovery.
A nurse discovers a small paper fire in a trash can in a client's bathroom. The client has been taken to safety and the alarm has been activated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Obtain a class C fire extinguisher to extinguish the fire. Using a class C fire extinguisher is appropriate for electrical fires, which can include fires involving electrical equipment or appliances. In this scenario, a paper fire in a trash can in the client's bathroom could potentially involve electrical components, making a class C fire extinguisher the most suitable choice. Option A, opening the windows, may help with ventilation but does not address the fire directly. Option C, removing electrical equipment, is a precautionary measure but does not address the immediate fire hazard. Option D, placing wet towels along the base of the door, is a strategy to prevent smoke from entering the room but does not extinguish the fire.
The nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative following a cholecystectomy. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A saturated abdominal dressing may indicate active bleeding or other complications that require immediate intervention, such as ensuring hemostasis and preventing further complications. Absent bowel sounds are common in the immediate post-operative period and may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other symptoms. A pain level of 8/10 can be managed with appropriate pain medication and is not typically considered an immediate priority unless other indications suggest complications. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may not be a cause for immediate concern unless it is associated with other signs of infection or distress that would warrant urgent attention.
Following major abdominal surgery, a client postoperative refuses to use the incentive spirometer. What is the nurse's priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse's priority in this situation is to determine the reason why the client is refusing to use the incentive spirometer. By understanding the client's concerns or barriers, the nurse can address them effectively and encourage the client to use the spirometer for optimal postoperative recovery. Insisting that the client use the spirometer without understanding the underlying reason may lead to further resistance. Administering pain medication as a solution does not address the root cause of refusal and may not be necessary if pain is not the primary reason for refusal. Documenting the refusal is important but should come after understanding the client's perspective to provide appropriate care and follow-up.
When teaching a client and their family how to care for the client's tracheostomy at home, which of the following should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to use tracheostomy covers when outdoors. This practice helps protect the stoma from foreign particles and temperature changes, reducing the risk of infection. Maintaining a sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care (choice B) is important to prevent infections but is not specific to outdoor care. Removing the outer cannula for routine cleaning (choice C) is not recommended as it may cause trauma or dislodgment of the tracheostomy tube. Cleaning around the stoma with povidone-iodine (choice D) is not advisable as it can be irritating to the skin and may impair the healing process.
A group of newly licensed nurses is being taught about the Braden Scale by a nurse. Which of the following responses by a newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice B is the correct answer because the Braden Scale measures six elements: Sensory Perception, Moisture, Activity, Mobility, Nutrition, Friction, and Shear. The other choices are incorrect because: Choice A states that the client's age is not a factor in the measurement, which is accurate as age is not included in the Braden Scale. Choice C incorrectly states that a lower score indicates a higher risk of pressure ulcers, which is the opposite of how the Braden Scale works. Choice D inaccurately describes the scoring range of each element on the Braden Scale, which is not from 1 to 4 points but rather from 1 to 3.
A client with a terminal illness is being educated by a healthcare provider about her decision to decline resuscitation in her living will. The client asks about the scenario of having difficulty breathing upon arrival at the emergency department.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice A is correct because applying oxygen through a tube in the nose provides comfort and aligns with the client's wishes for palliative care without resuscitation. This intervention can help alleviate breathing difficulties and maintain comfort without initiating full resuscitation efforts, respecting the client's decision. Choice B is incorrect as it goes against the client's expressed wish to decline resuscitation in her living will. Choice C is not the most appropriate response as it does not directly address the client's immediate concern of difficulty breathing and lacks specificity. Choice D, although focusing on comfort measures, is less specific than the correct choice A in addressing the client's immediate need for assistance with breathing.
During a client admission, how should the nurse conduct medication reconciliation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During medication reconciliation, the nurse should compare the client's home medications with the provider's prescriptions to ensure accuracy and prevent medication errors. Reviewing the client's medical history (Choice B) is important but not the primary focus of medication reconciliation. Assessing the client's current medications (Choice C) is also vital but is not specific to the comparison between home and prescribed medications during reconciliation. Asking the client about their allergies (Choice D) is relevant for ensuring safe medication administration but is not the primary step in medication reconciliation, which involves comparing actual medications.
An assistive personnel says to the nurse, "This client is incontinent of stool three or four times a day. I get angry, and I think that the client is doing it just to get attention. I think we should put adult diapers on her." Which is the appropriate nursing response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response is 'It is very upsetting to see an adult client regress.' In this situation, the nurse should acknowledge the emotional impact of caregiving on the assistive personnel and address it professionally. Choice A is incorrect because reporting to the supervisor may not directly address the emotional concerns raised. Choice C is incorrect because immediately resorting to diapers without further assessment or intervention is not the most appropriate solution. Choice D is incorrect as the client's well-being and care are a shared responsibility among healthcare team members.
A nurse observes a family member administer a rectal suppository by having the client lie on the left side for the administration. The family member pushed the suppository until the finger went up to the second knuckle. After 10 minutes the client was told by the family member to turn to the right side and the client did this. What is the appropriate comment for the nurse to make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The appropriate comment by the nurse is to affirm the correct technique while offering support and checking for any issues during the insertion.
During an abdominal examination, a nurse in a provider's office determines that a client has abdominal distention. The protrusion is at midline, the skin over the area is taut, and the nurse notes no involvement of the flanks. Which of the following possible causes of distention should the nurse suspect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Hernias.' Abdominal distention with a midline protrusion, taut skin, and no involvement of the flanks is characteristic of hernias. Hernias are caused by a weakness in the abdominal wall, allowing organs or tissues to protrude through. Fluid accumulation (ascites) typically presents with a more generalized distention, while fat accumulation may cause more diffuse distension rather than a focal midline protrusion. Flatus, or gas, would not typically present with a visible midline protrusion and taut skin like hernias.
A hospitalized client needs a chest x-ray. The radiology department calls the nursing unit and says that they are sending a transporter for the client. When entering the client's room, the priority action is to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action to take when a transporter arrives to take a hospitalized client for a procedure is to check the client's identification bracelet. This step is crucial to prevent errors and ensure that the correct patient is receiving the intended procedure. Informing the client about the procedure and preparing them for transport are important steps in the process, but verifying the client's identity takes precedence to ensure patient safety. Verifying the x-ray order, though important, is not the priority action when the transporter arrives; confirming the patient's identity is essential before proceeding with any procedures.
A client is admitted to the hospital in the terminal stage of cancer. The nurse enters the client's room to administer medications and finds the client crying. The appropriate nursing action is to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In end-of-life care, providing comfort and emotional support is essential. Sitting with the client, holding their hand, and offering a compassionate presence can help the client feel supported during a difficult time. Asking why the client is crying may not always be necessary as the focus should be on providing comfort rather than probing for information. Leaving the room to provide privacy or just administering medications and leaving may neglect the client's emotional needs and miss an opportunity to provide holistic care.
When caring for a client prescribed a blood transfusion that parents refuse due to religious beliefs, what should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When faced with a situation where parents refuse a prescribed treatment due to religious beliefs, the nurse should first examine personal values, understand the client's or family's beliefs, and respect their rights. Proceeding with the transfusion against the parents' wishes without exploring alternatives or understanding their perspective would violate the principle of respect for autonomy and could damage the therapeutic relationship. Referring the issue to the ethics committee should be considered if a resolution cannot be reached through open communication and negotiation with the family.
A healthcare professional is preparing to insert an IV catheter into a client's arm prior to initiating IV fluid therapy. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare professional implement to prevent infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Using a sterile technique throughout the procedure is essential to prevent infection when inserting an IV catheter. This includes maintaining aseptic conditions, using sterile equipment, and following proper hand hygiene practices. Choice A is incorrect because threading the catheter up to the hub does not specifically address infection prevention. Choice C is incorrect as cleaning the insertion site with alcohol only may not provide adequate disinfection, as it is essential to use an antiseptic solution to reduce microbial load. Choice D is incorrect as wearing gloves alone is not sufficient protection against infection; a mask should also be worn to prevent the spread of microorganisms through respiratory secretions.
The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C) in a client undergoing chemotherapy is a significant finding that may indicate an underlying infection, which can be life-threatening due to the client's compromised immune system. Prompt reporting and intervention are crucial to prevent complications. Mild nausea, hair loss, and increased fatigue are common side effects of chemotherapy and are expected findings that do not typically require immediate reporting unless they are severe or significantly impacting the client's well-being. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should prioritize reporting the fever over the other options.
A healthcare professional is screening several clients at a neighborhood health fair. Which of the following assessment findings is the priority for referral for further care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, 'Glucose 45 mg/dL.' Glucose level of 45 mg/dL indicates hypoglycemia, which is a critical condition requiring immediate attention to prevent complications like seizures, loss of consciousness, and even coma. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious adverse outcomes if not promptly addressed. Choices A, B, and C do not represent immediate life-threatening conditions and can be managed as part of routine care, unlike hypoglycemia which demands urgent intervention.
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