HESI LPN
Pediatric HESI 2024
1. A 6-year-old child with asthma is admitted to the hospital with an acute exacerbation. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administering a bronchodilator
- B. Administering an antihistamine
- C. Administering a corticosteroid
- D. Administering oxygen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention for a child experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation. Bronchodilators help to dilate the airways quickly, providing immediate relief by opening up the narrowed air passages in asthma. Antihistamines are not the first-line treatment for asthma exacerbations and may not address the underlying bronchoconstriction. Corticosteroids are important for long-term control of asthma but may take longer to have an effect compared to bronchodilators. Administering oxygen is essential for hypoxemia in asthma exacerbations, but the priority is to relieve bronchoconstriction promptly with a bronchodilator.
2. What are the most common signs and symptoms of leukemia related to bone marrow involvement?
- A. petechiae, infection, fatigue
- B. headache, papilledema, irritability
- C. muscle wasting, weight loss, fatigue
- D. decreased intracranial pressure, psychosis, confusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: petechiae, infection, fatigue. In leukemia, bone marrow involvement leads to a decrease in normal blood cell production, resulting in petechiae (small red or purple spots on the skin), increased susceptibility to infections due to decreased white blood cells, and fatigue from anemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the typical signs and symptoms of leukemia with bone marrow involvement. Headache, papilledema, irritability, muscle wasting, weight loss, decreased intracranial pressure, psychosis, and confusion are not typically associated with leukemia and bone marrow involvement.
3. The nurse closely monitors the temperature of a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome. The purpose of this assessment is to detect an early sign of which possible complication?
- A. infection
- B. hypertension
- C. encephalopathy
- D. edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring the temperature of a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome is crucial to detect early signs of infection. Infection is a common complication in nephrotic syndrome, and fever can be an early indicator. Hypertension (choice B) is not typically associated with nephrotic syndrome. Encephalopathy (choice C) is a neurological complication and would present with altered mental status rather than a change in temperature. Edema (choice D) is a common symptom of nephrotic syndrome but is not typically monitored through temperature assessment.
4. When you attempt to assess a 22-year-old woman who has been sexually assaulted, and she orders you not to touch her, your most appropriate initial action should be to
- A. ask the patient to sign a release form
- B. ask a female EMT-B to attempt to assess the patient
- C. explain to the patient that she must be examined
- D. transport the patient without performing an assessment
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient has requested not to be touched, indicating a need for sensitivity and understanding. Asking a female EMT-B to attempt to assess the patient is the most appropriate initial action as it respects the patient's need for privacy, comfort, and potentially reduces re-traumatization. Asking the patient to sign a release form (Choice A) is not suitable as it disregards the patient's immediate concerns. Explaining to the patient that she must be examined (Choice C) may further distress her and violate her autonomy. Transporting the patient without performing an assessment (Choice D) ignores the patient's expressed wishes and may lead to inadequate care.
5. The nurse is caring for an infant with candidal diaper rash. Which topical agent would the nurse expect the healthcare provider to order?
- A. Corticosteroids.
- B. Antifungals.
- C. Antibiotics.
- D. Retinoids.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Antifungals. Candidal diaper rash is caused by a yeast infection and is best treated with antifungal agents. Corticosteroids (choice A) may worsen fungal infections by suppressing the immune response. Antibiotics (choice C) are used to treat bacterial infections, not fungal infections like candidal diaper rash. Retinoids (choice D) are not typically used to treat candidal diaper rash in infants; they are more commonly used for dermatological conditions like acne.
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