Free HESI LPN Pediatrics practice for Pediatric HESI 2024 (HESI LPN). Answer 112 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress tracking
The nurse is assessing an infant and notes that the infant's urine has a mousy or musty odor. What would the nurse suspect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Phenylketonuria (PKU). PKU is suggested by a mousy or musty odor of the urine, which is caused by the inability to metabolize phenylalanine. Choice A, Maple syrup urine disease, is characterized by a sweet-smelling urine. Choice B, Tyrosinemia, typically presents with cabbage-like odor in the urine. Choice D, Trimethylaminuria, is associated with a fishy odor in the urine, breath, and sweat.
The nurse caring for families in crisis assesses the affective function of an immigrant family consisting of a father, mother, and two school-age children. Based on Friedman's structural functional theory, what defines this family component?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In Friedman's structural functional theory, the affective function of a family involves meeting the love and belonging needs of each member. This includes emotional support, care, and connections that contribute to the overall well-being of the family unit. Choice B is incorrect as it pertains more to the socialization function of the family, where children learn societal roles. Choice C relates to the economic function of the family, ensuring resources are available and allocated appropriately. Choice D focuses on the instrumental function of the family, which involves meeting the physical needs and health of its members.
Why should a nurse plan an evening snack for a child receiving Novolin N insulin?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Novolin N insulin peaks in the evening, which can lead to hypoglycemia during the night. Providing an evening snack helps to counteract the late insulin activity and prevent hypoglycemia. Choice A is incorrect because the primary reason for the evening snack is not to encourage adherence to the diet. Choice B is incorrect as the snack is not primarily for immediate energy use. Choice C is incorrect as the goal of the snack is not to help the child gain weight but to manage blood sugar levels.
What behavior does a toddler subjected to prolonged hospitalization with limited parental visits typically exhibit?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Toddlers subjected to prolonged hospitalization with limited parental visits often exhibit a limited emotional response to the environment. This behavior is a common coping mechanism in young children facing such situations. While cheerful interactions with staff members (choice A) may occur occasionally, the overall response tends to be subdued. Indications of sadness throughout the day (choice B) and excessive crying when parents are not present (choice C) are less typical in this scenario, as the child may have learned to suppress emotions due to the challenging circumstances.
When assessing a 10-month-old infant, what developmental milestone should the nurse expect to observe?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
At 10 months of age, pulling to a stand is a developmental milestone that most infants can achieve. Crawling typically occurs around 6-9 months, sitting without support around 6-8 months, and standing with assistance around 7-11 months. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are not the expected developmental milestones for a 10-month-old infant.
Which of the following signs or symptoms is more common in children than adults following head trauma?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Nausea and vomiting are more common in children following head trauma due to their higher risk of increased intracranial pressure. Children have less skull compliance and higher brain water content, making them more susceptible to developing symptoms like nausea and vomiting. Altered mental status (choice B) can occur in both children and adults but is not more common in children. Tachycardia and diaphoresis (choice C) are nonspecific and can occur in both age groups. Changes in pupillary reaction (choice D) are not typically more common in children following head trauma compared to adults.
A child is being assessed for suspected appendicitis. What clinical manifestation is the healthcare professional likely to observe?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Right lower quadrant pain is a classic symptom of appendicitis. The appendix is typically located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, so pain in this area is commonly associated with appendicitis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because left lower quadrant pain, rebound tenderness, and epigastric pain are not typical manifestations of appendicitis. Left lower quadrant pain is not associated with appendicitis since the appendix is situated in the right lower quadrant. Rebound tenderness is more commonly linked with peritonitis rather than appendicitis. Epigastric pain is not a typical presentation of appendicitis as the pain is usually localized to the right lower quadrant.
What definitive diagnostic procedure does the nurse expect to be used to confirm the diagnosis of Hirschsprung disease in a 1-month-old infant?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Rectal biopsy is the definitive diagnostic procedure for Hirschsprung disease in infants. This procedure reveals the absence of ganglion cells in the affected bowel segment, which is a hallmark of Hirschsprung disease. Colonoscopy (Choice A) is not typically used for diagnosing Hirschsprung disease due to the risk of not accurately reaching the affected segment. Multiple saline enemas (Choice C) are not used to confirm the diagnosis of Hirschsprung disease. Fiberoptic nasoenteric tube (Choice D) is not a standard diagnostic procedure for Hirschsprung disease and does not provide the necessary information to confirm the absence of ganglion cells in the affected bowel segment.
When developing the plan of care for a child with cerebral palsy, which treatment would the nurse expect as least likely?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When caring for a child with cerebral palsy, skeletal traction is the least likely treatment intervention. Cerebral palsy primarily involves motor function impairments, and skeletal traction is not a typical intervention for this condition. Physical therapy is commonly used to improve movement and function, orthotics help with posture and mobility, and occupational therapy addresses activities of daily living. These interventions are more aligned with the needs of a child with cerebral palsy compared to skeletal traction, making it the least likely treatment option.
Which is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the child with acute glomerulonephritis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a child with acute glomerulonephritis is fluid volume excess related to decreased plasma filtration. Acute glomerulonephritis is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys, leading to decreased plasma filtration and retention of fluid. This results in fluid volume excess rather than fluid deficit (choice B) or fluid accumulation in tissues and third spaces (choice D). The diagnosis of 'risk for injury related to malignant process and treatment' (choice A) is not directly related to the pathophysiology of acute glomerulonephritis.
When administering IV fluids to a dehydrated infant, what intervention is most important at this time?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Monitoring the intravenous drop rate is crucial when administering IV fluids to ensure that the correct amount of fluids is delivered to the dehydrated infant. Choice A assumes the initial rate is correct without ongoing assessment. Choice C, while important, does not address the immediate need for monitoring the infusion rate. Choice D, maintaining the fluid at body temperature, is essential for comfort but is not as critical as ensuring the correct fluid delivery rate. By monitoring the intravenous drop rate, healthcare providers can adjust the flow as needed to prevent overhydration or underhydration, helping to manage the infant's fluid balance effectively.
Which is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a child with acute glomerulonephritis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a child with acute glomerulonephritis is 'Fluid volume excess related to decreased plasma filtration.' Acute glomerulonephritis is characterized by inflammation in the glomeruli, leading to decreased plasma filtration and retention of fluid. This results in fluid volume excess rather than deficit, making choice C the correct answer. Choice A is incorrect because acute glomerulonephritis is not primarily associated with a malignant process. Choice B is incorrect as the condition typically presents with fluid volume excess rather than deficit. Choice D is also incorrect as fluid accumulation in tissues and third spaces is not a typical manifestation of acute glomerulonephritis.
The nurse is teaching a parent group about the reasons for adhering to the immunization schedule. What complication of mumps is important for adolescents to avoid?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Sterility. Mumps can lead to serious complications such as sterility, especially in adolescent males. Vaccination is essential to prevent this potential outcome. Hypopituitarism (Choice B) is not a typical complication of mumps. Choices C and D, decrease in libido and decrease in androgens, are not directly associated with mumps complications, particularly in the context of adolescents.
A healthcare provider is discussing the care of an infant with colic with the parents. What should the healthcare provider explain is the cause of colicky behavior?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Colicky behavior in infants is primarily characterized by paroxysmal abdominal pain, resulting in excessive crying and fussiness. The pain episodes are often unpredictable and can be distressing for both the infant and the parents. Inadequate peristalsis (Choice A) refers to weak or ineffective bowel movements and is not the typical cause of colic. While some infants may experience colic due to an allergic response to certain proteins in milk (Choice C), this is not the primary cause of colic behavior in all infants. Choice D, a protective mechanism designed to eliminate foreign proteins, is not a recognized cause of colic. Therefore, the correct explanation for the cause of colicky behavior in infants is paroxysmal abdominal pain.
The mother of an 8-year-old girl with a broken arm is the nurturer in the family. Which nursing activity should be focused on her?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, focusing on teaching the mother proper care procedures is crucial. This empowers the mother to provide appropriate care for her daughter's broken arm, promoting optimal healing. Dealing with insurance coverage (Choice B) is important but not the immediate focus for the mother. Determining the success of treatment (Choice C) is typically done by healthcare professionals, not family members. Transmitting information to family members (Choice D) may be beneficial but ensuring the primary caregiver, in this case, the mother, is well-informed and capable of providing care takes precedence.
A child with a diagnosis of leukemia is admitted to the hospital with a fever. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Monitoring for signs of infection. When a child with leukemia presents with a fever, the priority nursing intervention is to monitor for signs of infection due to the immunocompromised state of the child. Administering antibiotics (choice A) may be necessary based on the assessment of signs of infection, but monitoring comes first. Administering antipyretics (choice B) helps to reduce fever but does not address the underlying cause. Providing nutritional support (choice C) is essential but not the priority when the child is at risk of infection.
A nurse is caring for an infant with intractable vomiting. For what complication is it most important for the nurse to assess?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When an infant experiences intractable vomiting, it can lead to the loss of stomach acids, resulting in metabolic alkalosis. Alkalosis is characterized by elevated blood pH and can lead to serious complications. Assessing for alkalosis is essential in this scenario to monitor and manage the infant's condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because in this context, the primary concern is the metabolic imbalance caused by excessive vomiting, leading to alkalosis rather than acidosis, hyperkalemia, or hypernatremia.
After corrective surgery for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) is completed, and the infant is returned to the pediatric unit with an IV infusion in place, what is the priority nursing action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing action after corrective surgery for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) is to assess the IV site for infiltration. This is crucial as it ensures proper fluid administration and prevents complications such as phlebitis or infiltration-related tissue damage. Applying restraints (Choice A) would not be appropriate in this situation as it is not related to the immediate post-operative care of an infant with an IV infusion. Administering a mild sedative (Choice B) is not indicated as the primary concern post-surgery is monitoring the IV site and the infant's response to the surgery. Attaching the nasogastric tube to wall suction (Choice D) is not the priority at this time, as assessing the IV site takes precedence to prevent potential complications.
What should the nurse recommend to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) in a 6-month-old infant?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Placing the infant on their back to sleep is the correct recommendation to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). This sleep position has been shown to significantly decrease the incidence of SIDS. Using a pacifier during sleep (Choice B) can also help reduce the risk, but it is secondary to the back sleeping position. Having the infant sleep on their side (Choice C) is not recommended, as it increases the risk of SIDS. Keeping the infant's room cool (Choice D) may provide a comfortable sleeping environment but does not directly reduce the risk of SIDS.
What are the most common signs and symptoms of leukemia related to bone marrow involvement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: petechiae, infection, fatigue. In leukemia, bone marrow involvement leads to a decrease in normal blood cell production, resulting in petechiae (small red or purple spots on the skin), increased susceptibility to infections due to decreased white blood cells, and fatigue from anemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the typical signs and symptoms of leukemia with bone marrow involvement. Headache, papilledema, irritability, muscle wasting, weight loss, decreased intracranial pressure, psychosis, and confusion are not typically associated with leukemia and bone marrow involvement.
A child with a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is being discharged from the hospital. What is important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For a child with diabetes mellitus, following a specific meal plan is crucial for managing blood glucose levels effectively. This helps in maintaining stable blood sugar levels and preventing complications associated with the condition. Monitoring blood glucose levels daily and recognizing signs of hypoglycemia are also important aspects of managing diabetes; however, adherence to a specific meal plan plays a fundamental role in overall diabetes care. Administering insulin based on blood glucose levels alone is not recommended without a specific plan provided by healthcare providers.
A 4-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of epiglottitis. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing intervention for a 4-year-old child admitted to the hospital with epiglottitis is to keep the child NPO (nothing by mouth). Epiglottitis is a serious condition that can lead to airway obstruction. Keeping the child NPO helps prevent further compromise of the airway and reduces the risk of aspiration. Administering antibiotics may be necessary but ensuring the airway is not compromised takes precedence. Providing humidified oxygen is important for respiratory support, but not the priority over maintaining a patent airway. Positioning the child upright can help with breathing and comfort, but it does not directly address the immediate risk of airway compromise associated with epiglottitis.
A nurse is providing care to a child diagnosed with sickle cell anemia. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In sickle cell anemia, pain management is a priority due to vaso-occlusive crises that cause severe pain. Administering pain medication helps alleviate discomfort and improve the child's quality of life. Ensuring adequate hydration, although important, is secondary to addressing the immediate pain issue. Providing nutritional support is beneficial for overall health but does not address the acute pain experienced. Monitoring vital signs is essential but not the immediate priority when managing pain in sickle cell anemia.
A 6-year-old child with asthma is admitted to the hospital with an acute exacerbation. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention for a child experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation. Bronchodilators help to dilate the airways quickly, providing immediate relief by opening up the narrowed air passages in asthma. Antihistamines are not the first-line treatment for asthma exacerbations and may not address the underlying bronchoconstriction. Corticosteroids are important for long-term control of asthma but may take longer to have an effect compared to bronchodilators. Administering oxygen is essential for hypoxemia in asthma exacerbations, but the priority is to relieve bronchoconstriction promptly with a bronchodilator.
What is a key assessment the nurse should perform for a 5-year-old child diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Monitoring urine output is crucial in assessing kidney function in a child with acute glomerulonephritis. In this condition, there is inflammation in the glomeruli of the kidneys, affecting their ability to filter waste and excess fluids from the blood. Monitoring urine output helps evaluate the kidneys' ability to excrete waste and maintain fluid balance. Options A, B, and D are less relevant in the context of acute glomerulonephritis. Monitoring blood glucose levels is more pertinent in conditions like diabetes, monitoring respiratory rate is important for respiratory conditions, and monitoring for signs of infection is crucial in cases of suspected infections but is not the primary assessment focus in acute glomerulonephritis.
A child is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis. Which laboratory test would the nurse expect the child to undergo to provide additional evidence for this condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) level. An elevated serum IgE level is commonly associated with atopic dermatitis, reflecting an allergic response. Choice A, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, is a nonspecific test for inflammation and not specific to atopic dermatitis. Choice B, potassium hydroxide prep, is used to diagnose fungal infections like tinea versicolor, not atopic dermatitis. Choice C, wound culture, is not typically indicated for the diagnosis of atopic dermatitis as it is a chronic inflammatory skin condition rather than an infectious process.
After undergoing surgery using steel bar placement to correct pectus excavatum, what position should the nurse instruct the parents to avoid for the child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After undergoing surgery for pectus excavatum correction with steel bar placement, the nurse should instruct the parents to avoid placing the child in a side-lying position. This position should be avoided to prevent displacement of the steel bar, which could compromise the surgical outcome. Semi-Fowler, supine, and high Fowler positions do not pose the same risk of displacing the steel bar and are generally safe and comfortable for the child in this postoperative period.
A 4-year-old child is admitted with a diagnosis of bacterial pneumonia. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing intervention for a 4-year-old child admitted with bacterial pneumonia is administering antibiotics. Antibiotics are essential to treat the infection, prevent its spread, and avoid potential complications. Administering antipyretics (Choice A) may help reduce fever but does not address the underlying cause of pneumonia, which is bacterial in this case. Monitoring fluid intake (Choice C) is important to maintain hydration but does not directly treat the infection. Providing nutritional support (Choice D) is crucial for overall health, but the immediate priority is to address the bacterial infection with antibiotics to prevent further complications and promote recovery.
A 4-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of epiglottitis. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing intervention for a 4-year-old child admitted with epiglottitis is to keep the child NPO (nothing by mouth). This is crucial to prevent further airway compromise due to the inflamed epiglottis. Administering antibiotics may be necessary but is not the priority at this moment. Providing humidified oxygen can support oxygenation but does not address the immediate risk of airway obstruction. Positioning the child upright may help with breathing but does not address the risk of aspiration. Keeping the child NPO is essential to maintain a patent airway and prevent complications associated with epiglottitis.
After clearing the airway of a newborn who is not in distress, what is the most important action for you to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Keeping the newborn warm is crucial as newborns are at high risk of hypothermia due to their large body surface area and limited subcutaneous fat. Hypothermia can lead to complications such as respiratory distress, hypoglycemia, and metabolic acidosis. Providing warmth helps maintain the newborn's body temperature and supports physiological processes, promoting overall well-being. Applying free-flow oxygen is not necessary if the newborn is not in distress. Clamping and cutting the cord can be done after addressing the immediate need for warmth. Obtaining an APGAR score is important for assessing the newborn's overall condition but ensuring warmth takes precedence to prevent complications related to hypothermia.
A 1-year-old child has a congenital cardiac malformation that causes right-to-left shunting of blood through the heart. What clinical finding should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a child with a congenital cardiac malformation causing right-to-left shunting of blood, the nurse should expect an elevated hematocrit. This occurs because the body compensates for decreased oxygenation by producing more red blood cells. Proteinuria (Choice A) is not a typical clinical finding related to right-to-left shunting. Peripheral edema (Choice B) is more commonly associated with conditions causing volume overload, such as left-sided heart failure. Absence of pedal pulses (Choice D) is not directly related to right-to-left shunting but may be seen in conditions affecting peripheral circulation.
The school nurse is presenting a class to a group of students about common overuse disorders. Which disorder would the school nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Osgood-Schlatter disease is a common overuse injury that specifically affects the knee. It is characterized by inflammation of the patellar ligament at the tibial tuberosity due to repetitive strain on the growth plate during activities such as running and jumping. Dislocated radial head (Choice A) is not an overuse disorder but rather an injury usually seen in young children. Transient synovitis of the hip (Choice B) is an acute hip condition and not typically classified as an overuse disorder. Scoliosis (Choice D) is a condition characterized by an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine and is not considered an overuse disorder.
A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory report of a child with tetralogy of Fallot that indicates an elevated RBC count. What does the professional identify as the cause of the polycythemia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Tissue oxygen needs. Polycythemia occurs as the body's response to chronic hypoxia by increasing RBC production to enhance oxygen delivery. In tetralogy of Fallot, a congenital heart defect, the heart's structure causes reduced oxygen levels in the blood. This chronic hypoxia stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells, leading to an elevated RBC count. Choice A is incorrect as low blood pressure is not directly related to polycythemia in this context. Choice C, diminished iron level, is not the cause of polycythemia in tetralogy of Fallot. Choice D, hypertrophic cardiac muscle, is not the primary cause of the elevated RBC count in this case.
At 7 AM, a nurse receives the information that an adolescent with diabetes has a 6:30 AM fasting blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL. What is the priority nursing action at this time?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Rapid acting insulin will help lower the elevated blood glucose level quickly.
A 4-year-old fell from a third-story window and landed on her head. She is semiconscious with slow, irregular breathing and bleeding from her mouth. After performing a jaw-thrust maneuver with simultaneous stabilization of her head, what should you do next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the patient is experiencing airway compromise due to the fall and potential oropharyngeal obstruction from bleeding. Performing a jaw-thrust maneuver with head stabilization helps maintain the airway patency. The next step should be to suction the oropharynx to clear any blood or secretions, which can obstruct the airway and lead to aspiration. Inserting a nasopharyngeal airway may worsen bleeding or cause further injury to the patient's airway. Initiating positive pressure ventilations can be ineffective if the airway is not cleared first. Administering oxygen via mask is not the immediate priority; ensuring a patent airway by suctioning takes precedence.
A nurse is assessing the oral cavity of a 6-month-old infant. The parent asks which teeth will erupt first. How should the nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Incisors. In infants, incisors are usually the first teeth to erupt, typically around 6 months of age. These are the front teeth used for cutting food. Canines (Choice B), upper molars (Choice C), and lower molars (Choice D) typically erupt after the incisors. Canines are sharp teeth used for tearing food, while molars are flat teeth used for grinding food.
A mother confides to the nurse that she is thinking of divorce. Which suggestion by the nurse would help minimize the effects on the child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In situations of divorce, it is crucial for both parents to inform the child together using age-appropriate language. This approach helps maintain consistency and clarity for the child, reducing confusion and anxiety. Choice B is incorrect because reassurance should not be solely focused on love but on explaining the situation appropriately. Choice C may inadvertently send the message that the divorce is the child's fault or requires compensation. Choice D is incorrect as children benefit from understanding and processing emotions in a healthy manner, rather than having them kept hidden.
The healthcare professional is assessing a 4-year-old client. Which finding suggests to the healthcare professional this child may have a genetic disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Low-set ears with lobe creases are often associated with genetic disorders and can indicate underlying chromosomal abnormalities. This physical characteristic is known to be a common sign in various syndromes like Down syndrome. Choices A, B, and D are not directly linked to genetic disorders. Feeding problems and specific weight/height measurements are more general indicators of growth and development, while the ability to hop on one foot but not skip is a developmental milestone assessment that does not specifically point towards a genetic disorder.
What information would the nurse include in the preoperative plan of care for an infant with myelomeningocele?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Covering the sac with saline-soaked nonadhesive gauze. This intervention is essential in caring for an infant with myelomeningocele as it helps prevent infection and maintains a moist environment around the sac before surgical repair. Positioning the infant supine with a pillow under the buttocks (Choice A) may be suitable for comfort but is not directly related to managing the myelomeningocele. Wrapping the infant snugly in a blanket (Choice C) and applying a diaper (Choice D) are not recommended as they can increase the risk of infection and damage to the sac.
The parent of a child who has received all of the primary immunizations asks the nurse which ones the child should receive before starting kindergarten. The nurse tells the parent that her child should receive boosters of:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: DTaP, IPV, MMR. Before starting kindergarten, the child should receive boosters of DTaP, IPV, and MMR to ensure ongoing protection against diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, measles, mumps, and rubella. Choice A is incorrect because it includes HepB instead of MMR. Choice B is incorrect as it includes HepB instead of MMR and DTaP instead of IPV. Choice C is incorrect as it includes Hib instead of IPV.
The nurse is counseling a young couple who, in 2 months, are having their third baby. The nurse uses Von Bertalanffy's general system theory applied to families to analyze the family structure. Which best describes the main emphasis of this theory and its application to family dynamics?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Von Bertalanffy's general system theory applied to families emphasizes the family as a system with interdependent, interacting parts that endure over time to ensure the survival, continuity, and growth of its components. This perspective views the family as a dynamic entity where each member's actions and behaviors impact the overall functioning of the family unit. Choice B is incorrect because it focuses more on the social aspects of family structure rather than the systemic view provided by Von Bertalanffy's theory. Choice C is incorrect as it pertains more to the family life cycle theory, which is different from the general system theory. Choice D is incorrect as it addresses stress response within families, a concept not central to Von Bertalanffy's general system theory.
A 34-year-old woman, who is 36 weeks pregnant, is having a seizure. After you protect her airway and ensure adequate ventilation, you should transport her
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a pregnant woman experiences a seizure, it is crucial to transport her on her left side. This position helps to improve blood flow to the fetus by preventing compression of the inferior vena cava, reducing the risk of further complications. Placing her in the prone position (lying face down) or supine position (lying on her back) may compromise blood flow to the fetus and lead to adverse outcomes. Similarly, transporting her in a semi-sitting position may not provide the optimal circulation needed for both the woman and the fetus during this critical situation.
The nurse is caring for an 8-year-old girl with an endocrine disorder involving the posterior pituitary gland. What care would the nurse expect to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For a child with a disorder of the posterior pituitary gland, desmopressin acetate is a medication commonly used to manage the condition by replacing the antidiuretic hormone. Instructing the parents on how to administer desmopressin acetate correctly is essential for the child's care. Choice A is incorrect because growth hormone treatment is not typically used for posterior pituitary disorders. Choice C is incorrect as treatment for this condition usually continues beyond puberty. Choice D is incorrect as acute adrenal crisis is not directly related to a disorder of the posterior pituitary gland.
The healthcare provider is admitting a child with a Wilms tumor. Which is the initial assessment finding associated with this tumor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Abdominal swelling is a classic presentation and often the first noticeable sign of a Wilms tumor. This occurs due to the tumor mass in the kidney, leading to abdominal distension. Weight gain (Choice B) is less likely as a presenting symptom compared to abdominal swelling. Hypotension (Choice C) is not typically associated with a Wilms tumor unless complications like bleeding or shock occur. Increased urinary output (Choice D) is not a typical finding for Wilms tumor; instead, patients may present with hematuria or urinary symptoms.
While waiting for the administration of air pressure to reduce the intussusception, the boy passes a normal brown stool. Which nursing action is the most appropriate for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to notify the practitioner. The passage of a normal brown stool in a child with intussusception could indicate spontaneous reduction of the intussusception. It is crucial to inform the practitioner immediately so that they can reassess the situation and determine the next steps, which may include adjusting the planned intervention. Measuring abdominal girth (choice B) may be important in assessing for abdominal distension but is not the most immediate action required in this scenario. Auscultating for bowel sounds (choice C) is a routine nursing assessment but does not take precedence over notifying the practitioner in this critical situation. Taking vital signs, including blood pressure (choice D), is also important but notifying the practitioner is more urgent to address the unexpected change in the patient's condition.
Which nursing intervention provides the most support to the parents of an infant with an obvious physical anomaly?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging parents to express their concerns is the most supportive intervention as it allows them to process their emotions and provides an opportunity for the nurse to offer appropriate support and information. This choice focuses on validating the parents' feelings and creating an open communication channel. Choices B and C are incorrect as they can hinder the parents' emotional processing and may provide false reassurance. Choice D, showing postoperative photographs, may not be appropriate at this stage as it might not address the parents' current emotional needs and could induce anxiety or unrealistic expectations.
A healthcare professional is teaching a class of new parents about how to position their infants during the first few weeks of life. Which position is safest?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'On the back, lying flat.' Placing infants on their back to sleep is recommended to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). This position promotes safe sleep practices and helps prevent accidental suffocation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as placing infants on their side or with the head slightly elevated may increase the risk of breathing difficulties or other hazards during sleep.
The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results of a child with Addison's disease. What would the nurse expect to find?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In Addison's disease, adrenal insufficiency leads to decreased aldosterone production. This results in impaired sodium retention and potassium excretion, leading to hyperkalemia. Therefore, the correct answer is hyperkalemia (choice B). Hypernatremia (choice A) is less likely because of the loss of sodium in Addison's disease. Hyperglycemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not typically associated with Addison's disease and are less likely to be present in this condition.
A 3-year-old child with a diagnosis of acute otitis media is being discharged. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to encourage the child to drink plenty of fluids. Encouraging adequate fluid intake helps to relieve symptoms and prevent dehydration in children with acute otitis media. A balanced diet (choice B) is important for overall health but is not specifically related to managing otitis media. While pain medication (choice C) may be prescribed, it should not be administered without medical advice. Applying warm compresses (choice D) is not typically recommended for acute otitis media as it can potentially worsen the condition by promoting bacterial growth.
Which cardiac defects are associated with tetralogy of Fallot?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four specific cardiac defects: right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta. Choice A is incorrect as it includes mitral valve stenosis, which is not typically part of tetralogy of Fallot. Choice B describes transposition of the great arteries rather than tetralogy of Fallot. Choice D includes an atrial septal defect, which is not part of the classic presentation of tetralogy of Fallot.
A child with a diagnosis of appendicitis is scheduled for surgery. What preoperative intervention is important for the nurse to perform?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct preoperative intervention for a child with appendicitis scheduled for surgery is maintaining strict NPO (nothing by mouth) status. This is crucial to reduce the risk of aspiration during anesthesia induction and prevent potential complications during surgery. Administering antibiotics may be a part of the treatment plan but is not a preoperative intervention. Encouraging fluid intake is contraindicated preoperatively to avoid delays in surgery and complications related to anesthesia. Monitoring for signs of infection is important postoperatively to assess for any complications that may arise due to the surgical procedure.
.A nurse is caring for an infant whose vomiting is intractable. For what complication is it most important for the nurse to assess?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Intractable vomiting can lead to alkalosis due to loss of stomach acids.
A 2-year-old child who was admitted to the hospital for further surgical repair of a clubfoot is standing in the crib, crying. The child refuses to be comforted and calls for the mother. As the nurse approaches the crib to provide morning care, the child screams louder. Knowing that this behavior is typical of the stage of protest, what is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During the stage of protest, children may display distress when separated from their primary caregiver. Sitting by the crib and providing comfort when the child is less anxious is an appropriate intervention. Choice A is incorrect because attempting to hold the child while they are in distress may escalate the situation. Choice B is inappropriate as it ignores the child's emotional distress and proceeds with a task that can wait. Choice D is not the best option as postponing the bath for a day is not necessary; instead, addressing the child's emotional needs promptly is crucial in this situation.
An order is written for an isotonic enema for a 2-year-old child. What is the maximum amount of fluid the nurse should administer without a specific order from the health care provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For a 2-year-old child, the maximum recommended amount of fluid for an isotonic enema is between 155 to 250 mL to prevent overdistension and potential harm. Choice A (100 to 150 mL) is too low and may not be effective in achieving the desired outcome. Choices C (255 to 360 mL) and D (365 to 500 mL) exceed the safe range for a 2-year-old child and can lead to overdistension, electrolyte imbalance, or other complications. Therefore, the correct answer is B.
The nurse notes that a child has lost 8 pounds after 4 days of hospitalization for acute glomerulonephritis. This is most likely the result of
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: reduction of edema. In acute glomerulonephritis, weight loss is often a result of the reduction of edema. Acute glomerulonephritis causes fluid retention and edema due to kidney inflammation. As the inflammation resolves with treatment, the kidneys can excrete excess fluid, leading to weight loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Poor appetite, increased potassium intake, and restriction to bed rest are not typically the primary reasons for weight loss in acute glomerulonephritis.
An additional defect is associated with exstrophy of the bladder. For what anomaly should the nurse assess the infant?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Pubic bone malformation. Exstrophy of the bladder is commonly associated with pubic bone malformation as the condition involves a defect in the pelvic region. Imperforate anus, absence of one kidney, and congenital heart disease are not typically associated with exstrophy of the bladder, making them incorrect choices. Therefore, the nurse should primarily assess the infant for pubic bone malformation in this case.
Surgical repair for patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is done to prevent the complication of
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Surgical repair of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) aims to prevent increased pulmonary vascular congestion, which can lead to congestive heart failure and respiratory distress. Choice A, pulmonary infection, is not a direct complication of PDA but rather a result of other factors. Choice B, right-to-left shunt of blood, is a characteristic of a different heart condition (e.g., Tetralogy of Fallot) and not specifically associated with PDA. Choice C, decreased workload on the left side of the heart, is not a typical complication of PDA but rather a consequence of left-to-right shunting that can cause volume overload in the pulmonary circulation.
The nurse is teaching a group of parents about the side effects of immunization vaccines. Which sign should the nurse include when discussing an infant receiving the Haemophilus influenzae (Hib) vaccine?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'D. Low-grade fever.' A low-grade fever is a common and mild side effect of the Hib vaccine, indicating that the immune system is responding to the immunization. Lethargy (choice A) can be a sign of more serious adverse effects and should be monitored closely but is not typically associated with the Hib vaccine. Urticaria (choice B) and generalized rash (choice C) are less common side effects of the Hib vaccine compared to low-grade fever.
A child with a cardiac malformation associated with left-to-right shunting. What does this type of congenital disorder lead to primarily?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Left-to-right shunting in a cardiac malformation results in increased blood flow to the lungs. This increased blood flow can lead to pulmonary hypertension and heart failure if left untreated. Elevated hematocrit (Choice A) is not a characteristic directly associated with left-to-right shunting. Severe growth retardation (Choice B) is not a typical manifestation of this type of congenital disorder. Clubbing of the fingers and toes (Choice C) is more commonly seen in conditions like chronic respiratory or cardiac diseases, not specifically with left-to-right shunting and associated cardiac malformations.
What is the priority nursing intervention for a child with a diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) receiving chemotherapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Preventing infection. When caring for a child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) undergoing chemotherapy, the top priority is to prevent infection. Chemotherapy suppresses the immune system, making the child more susceptible to infections. By implementing infection control measures such as hand hygiene, aseptic techniques, and environmental cleanliness, the nurse can help protect the child from potentially life-threatening infections. Administering chemotherapy (choice B) is important but not the priority over preventing infection. Providing nutritional support (choice C) and monitoring fluid intake (choice D) are essential aspects of care but take a back seat to preventing infection in this scenario.
The nurse is caring for a child who has been admitted for a sickle cell crisis. What would the nurse do first to provide adequate pain management?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Initiating pain assessment with a standardized pain scale is crucial in effectively managing pain during a sickle cell crisis. This initial step helps the nurse understand the severity of the pain, which guides subsequent interventions. Administering medications, such as NSAIDs or meperidine, should only be done after a thorough pain assessment to ensure appropriate and individualized treatment. Using guided imagery and therapeutic touch may be beneficial as adjunct interventions, but they should not replace the essential first step of assessing the pain level accurately.
A parent brings a 2-month-old infant with Down syndrome to the pediatric clinic for a physical and administration of immunizations. Which clinical finding should alert the nurse to perform a further assessment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Circumoral cyanosis should alert the nurse to perform a further assessment because it may indicate inadequate oxygenation or circulation, potentially related to cardiac or respiratory issues. Flat occiput (choice A) is a common finding in infants and is not typically concerning. Small, low-set ears (choice B) are common in Down syndrome and not specifically indicative of an acute issue requiring immediate further assessment. Protruding furrowed tongue (choice D) is also commonly seen in infants with Down syndrome and typically does not warrant immediate further assessment unless associated with other concerning signs or symptoms.
Which of the following findings would indicate altered mental status in a small child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a small child, displaying a lack of attention to the EMT-B's presence would indicate altered mental status. This behavior suggests a diminished level of consciousness or awareness, which is concerning. Recognizing the parents (Choice A) is a normal and expected behavior for a child. Showing fright at the EMT-B's presence (Choice B) may indicate fear or anxiety but not necessarily altered mental status. Maintaining consistent eye contact with the EMT-B (Choice D) may indicate engagement or curiosity rather than altered mental status.
A child with a diagnosis of gastroenteritis is admitted to the hospital. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is monitoring fluid and electrolyte balance. Gastroenteritis is characterized by inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract leading to diarrhea and vomiting, which can result in dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Therefore, the priority nursing intervention is to monitor and maintain the child's fluid and electrolyte balance to prevent complications. Encouraging regular exercise (Choice B) may not be appropriate initially for a child with gastroenteritis who needs rest and fluid replacement. Administering antipyretics (Choice C) is not the priority unless the child has a fever. Administering antibiotics (Choice D) is not indicated for viral gastroenteritis, which is the most common cause of the condition.
A healthcare professional is reviewing the clinical records of infants and children with cardiac disorders who developed heart failure. What did the healthcare professional determine is the last sign of heart failure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Peripheral edema is often the last sign of heart failure in infants and children as it indicates significant fluid retention and circulatory compromise. Tachypnea (Choice A) and tachycardia (Choice B) are early signs of heart failure due to the body's compensatory mechanisms. Periorbital edema (Choice D) can occur in heart failure but is not typically the last sign; it is more commonly associated with renal or hepatic dysfunction.
The nurse is caring for a 3-day-old girl with Down syndrome whose mother had no prenatal care. What is the priority nursing diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing diagnosis for a 3-day-old girl with Down syndrome, whose mother had no prenatal care, is imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements related to the effects of hypotonia. Newborns with Down syndrome often experience feeding difficulties due to hypotonia, which can lead to inadequate nutrition intake. Option B is incorrect because at this age, the infant is not capable of having knowledge deficits related to a genetic disorder. Option C is incorrect as delayed growth and development are not the immediate priority in this scenario. Option D is incorrect as impaired physical mobility is not typically a priority concern for a newborn with Down syndrome.
A child with a diagnosis of asthma is being cared for by a nurse. What is an important nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering bronchodilators is a crucial nursing intervention for a child with asthma because it helps to open the airways and ease breathing during an asthma attack. Bronchodilators are medications that work by relaxing the muscles around the airways, making it easier for the child to breathe. Encouraging physical activity may exacerbate asthma symptoms in some cases due to increased respiratory effort and exposure to triggers. Monitoring oxygen saturation is important but does not address the immediate need of opening the airways during an asthma episode. Providing nutritional support is essential for overall health but is not the primary intervention needed in managing an acute asthma exacerbation.
A 2-year-old child with a diagnosis of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being discharged. What dietary instructions should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct dietary instruction for a 2-year-old child with GERD is to avoid gluten. Gluten is a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye that can worsen GERD symptoms. Avoiding gluten can help reduce inflammation and discomfort in the esophagus. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because spicy foods, high-fat foods, and dairy products can exacerbate GERD symptoms. Spicy foods can irritate the esophagus, high-fat foods delay stomach emptying leading to increased acid reflux, and dairy products can stimulate acid production, all of which can worsen GERD symptoms.
The nurse is conducting a physical examination of a 9-month-old baby with a flat, discolored area on the skin. The nurse documents this as a:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A macule is defined as a flat, discolored area on the skin that is different from surrounding tissue due to a change in color. In this case, the baby has a flat, discolored area on the skin, which fits the description of a macule. A papule is a small, raised solid bump, a vesicle is a small fluid-filled blister, and a scale is a flake of skin that is often dry and rough. Therefore, choices A, C, and D do not accurately describe the flat, discolored area on the baby's skin, making them incorrect.
A child has been admitted to the pediatric unit with a severe asthma attack. What type of acid-base imbalance should the nurse expect the child to develop?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a severe asthma attack, the child is likely to develop respiratory acidosis due to impaired respirations leading to the retention of carbon dioxide, which combines with water to form carbonic acid. This results in the pH imbalance characterized by an excess of carbonic acid. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis (Choice A) is not typically associated with severe asthma attacks; respiratory alkalosis (Choice B) would involve a decrease, not an increase, in carbon dioxide levels; and metabolic acidosis (Choice D) is not the primary acid-base imbalance seen in severe asthma attacks.
The nurse volunteering at a homeless shelter to assist families with children identifies homelessness as a risk preventing families from achieving positive outcomes in life. What family theory encompasses this approach to assessing family dynamics?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Resiliency model of family stress, adjustment, and adaptation is the appropriate theory in this scenario. This model focuses on identifying risks and protective factors that help families achieve positive outcomes despite challenges. Duvall's developmental theory primarily focuses on family life cycle stages, Friedman's structural functional theory emphasizes the interdependence of family members, and Von Bertalanffy's general system theory applied to families looks at the family as a dynamic system. These theories do not specifically address the concept of resilience and adaptation in the face of stressors like homelessness.
When compensating for increased physical activity, what should the nurse teach a child with type 1 diabetes to do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to 'Eat more food when planning to exercise more than usual.' Increased physical activity requires more energy, so additional food intake is necessary to prevent hypoglycemia. Choice B is incorrect because the method of insulin administration should not be altered based on physical activity. Choice C is incorrect as insulin timing should be consistent rather than based on anticipated exercise. Choice D is incorrect since relying on foods with sugar can lead to unstable blood sugar levels, which is not ideal for managing diabetes during exercise.
What is the priority intervention for a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis upon admission?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct priority intervention for a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis is to place a tracheotomy set at the bedside. Acute laryngotracheobronchitis can lead to airway obstruction, making it essential to have the equipment readily available in case of emergency. Padding the side rails, arranging for a quiet room, or obtaining a recliner for a parent are not the immediate priorities in managing a child with this condition.
Based on developmental norms for a 5-year-old child, at what apical pulse did the nurse decide to withhold a scheduled dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) elixir and notify the health care provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For a 5-year-old child, an apical pulse below 90 beats/min is a reason to withhold digoxin. Digoxin is a medication commonly used to treat heart conditions, and its administration is based on heart rate parameters. A pulse rate below 90 beats/min indicates bradycardia. In pediatric patients, bradycardia below this threshold may be a sign of toxicity or potential adverse effects of digoxin, necessitating withholding the medication and informing the healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they represent pulse rates above the threshold for withholding digoxin in a 5-year-old child.
A nurse is caring for an infant with phenylketonuria (PKU). What diet should the nurse anticipate will be ordered by the healthcare provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A low-phenylalanine diet is necessary for infants with PKU because it helps prevent the accumulation of phenylalanine, which can result in brain damage. Fat-free (Choice A) and protein-enriched (Choice B) diets are not specifically indicated for PKU. While phenylalanine-free (Choice C) may seem logical, complete elimination of phenylalanine is not practical or safe as it is an essential amino acid. Therefore, the correct choice is a low-phenylalanine diet, which restricts phenylalanine intake to a safe level.
What should be included in the preoperative teaching for a 4-year-old child scheduled for a tonsillectomy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging deep breathing exercises is important preoperative teaching for a child scheduled for a tonsillectomy. Deep breathing exercises can help the child relax and reduce anxiety, which is beneficial before the procedure. Explaining the procedure in detail might be overwhelming for a 4-year-old, whereas encouraging deep breathing exercises can be more beneficial in promoting relaxation and preparing the child. Discussing the importance of hydration is crucial for postoperative care but may not be the priority for preoperative teaching. Using play therapy can help prepare the child, but encouraging deep breathing exercises is more directly related to relaxation and preparation for the procedure.
A parent and 3-month-old infant are visiting the well-baby clinic for a routine examination. What should the nurse include in the accident prevention teaching plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to test the temperature of water before bathing. This is crucial in preventing burns, which is a significant risk for infants due to their sensitive skin. Infants have delicate skin that can be easily burned by water that is too hot. Removing small objects from the floor (Choice A) is important to prevent choking hazards but not directly related to burns. Covering electric outlets with safety plugs (Choice B) is essential to prevent electrocution but does not address the risk of burns specifically. Removing toxic substances from low areas (Choice C) is necessary to prevent poisoning but is not directly related to burns. Therefore, the priority in this scenario is to prevent burns by ensuring the water temperature is safe for the infant.
A child with a cardiac malformation associated with left-to-right shunting is being cared for by a nurse. What does the nurse consider to be the major characteristic of this type of congenital disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The major characteristic of a cardiac malformation associated with left-to-right shunting is increased blood flow to the lungs. This increased flow can lead to pulmonary hypertension and heart failure if left untreated. Elevated hematocrit (Choice A) is not a typical characteristic of this condition. Severe growth retardation (Choice B) is not directly associated with left-to-right shunting. Clubbing of the fingers and toes (Choice C) is more commonly seen in conditions involving chronic hypoxia.
An 8-year-old girl was diagnosed with a closed fracture of the radius at approximately 2 p.m. The fracture was reduced in the emergency department, and her arm placed in a cast. At 11 p.m., her mother brings her back to the emergency department due to unrelenting pain that has not been relieved by the prescribed narcotics. Which action would be the priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action would be to notify the doctor immediately. Unrelenting pain despite medication can indicate compartment syndrome, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate attention. Applying ice or elevating the arm may not address the potential serious underlying issue of compartment syndrome. Giving additional pain medication without further assessment could delay necessary intervention and potentially worsen the condition.
At 0345, you receive a call for a woman in labor. Upon arriving at the scene, you are greeted by a very anxious man who tells you that his wife is having her baby 'now.' This man escorts you into the living room where a 25-year-old woman is lying on the couch in obvious pain. Which of the following statements regarding crowning is true?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During crowning, it is essential to apply gentle pressure to the baby's head to prevent rapid delivery, which can lead to potential injuries to both the mother and the baby. Choice A is incorrect because crowning signifies the beginning, not the end, of the second stage of labor. Choice B is incorrect as crowning can occur before or after the amniotic sac ruptures. Choice C is incorrect as transporting the patient during crowning, even if the hospital is close, can be unsafe due to the risk of rapid delivery and complications.
A 2-week-old infant is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of a ventricular septal defect. The parents report that their baby has had difficulty feeding since coming home after birth. What should the nurse consider before responding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the nurse should consider that ineffective sucking and swallowing in a 2-week-old infant could be early signs of a heart defect such as a ventricular septal defect. This is crucial information as it can guide further assessment and management. Choice A is incorrect because while feeding problems can be common in neonates, in this case, the specific context of a suspected heart defect should be prioritized. Choice B is incorrect as inadequate sucking can indeed be significant, especially when considering potential underlying heart issues, regardless of the presence of cyanosis. Choice D is incorrect as while mucus retention can affect feeding, in this case, the focus should be on the possibility of a heart defect rather than a temporary issue like mucus interference.
When caring for a child diagnosed with asthma, what is an important nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering bronchodilators is a crucial nursing intervention for a child with asthma as it helps to open the airways and improve breathing. Bronchodilators work by relaxing the muscles around the airways, making breathing easier for the child. Encouraging physical activity may exacerbate asthma symptoms in some cases, so it is not recommended as a primary intervention. Monitoring oxygen saturation is important in assessing respiratory status, but administering bronchodilators would take precedence in this situation. Providing nutritional support is a general nursing intervention and not specific to managing asthma symptoms.
An 8-year-old girl was diagnosed with a closed fracture of the radius at approximately 2 p.m. The fracture was reduced in the emergency department and her arm placed in a cast. At 11 p.m. her mother brings her back to the emergency department due to unrelenting pain that has not been relieved by the prescribed narcotics. Which action would be the priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action would be to notify the doctor immediately. Unrelenting pain despite medication can indicate compartment syndrome, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate attention. Applying ice, elevating the arm, or giving additional pain medication may not address the underlying cause of the unrelenting pain, which could be a sign of a serious complication like compartment syndrome. Prompt medical evaluation is crucial in this situation to prevent potential complications.
An 8-year-old child diagnosed with meningitis is to undergo a lumbar puncture. What should the nurse explain is the purpose of this procedure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid for analysis. This fluid is then examined for signs of infection, bleeding, or other abnormalities. Measuring the pressure of cerebrospinal fluid is typically done during the procedure itself, but it is not the primary purpose of the lumbar puncture. While a lumbar puncture can indirectly help relieve intracranial pressure by removing excess cerebrospinal fluid, this is not its primary purpose. Assessing the presence of infection in the spinal fluid is part of the analysis that follows the collection of the sample, making it a secondary outcome of the procedure.
What type of play does a caregiver expect when observing a toddler in a playroom with other children?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When observing a toddler in a playroom with other children, a caregiver would expect to witness parallel play. Parallel play is common among toddlers, where they play alongside but not directly with other children. This type of play is characterized by children engaging in similar activities near each other without interactive or cooperative play. Solitary play (Choice B) involves a child playing alone, while cooperative play (Choice C) involves children playing together towards a common goal. Competitive play (Choice D) involves activities where children compete against each other.
A child with a diagnosis of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is being evaluated for medication management. What is an important assessment for the nurse to perform?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing the child's dietary intake is crucial in managing symptoms and ensuring proper nutrition in children with ADHD. Dietary factors can influence ADHD symptoms. While sleep patterns, academic performance, and behavior at home are important aspects to consider, dietary assessment plays a significant role in the management of ADHD.
What is an important nursing responsibility when a dysrhythmia is suspected?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a dysrhythmia is suspected, an important nursing responsibility is to count the apical pulse for 1 full minute and then compare this rate with the radial pulse rate. This method helps in identifying dysrhythmias as it allows for a direct comparison of the heart's rhythm at two different pulse points. Ordering an immediate electrocardiogram (Choice A) may be necessary but should not be the first step. Counting the radial pulse multiple times (Choice B) is not as accurate as comparing rates directly. Having someone else take the radial pulse simultaneously (Choice D) may introduce errors and inconsistencies in the measurement.
During an oral cavity assessment of a 6-month-old infant, the parent inquires about which teeth will erupt first. How should the healthcare provider respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Incisors are the teeth that typically erupt first in infants, usually around 6 months of age. These teeth play a crucial role in biting and cutting food. Canines, upper molars, and lower molars are not the primary teeth to erupt in infants. Canines usually erupt after incisors, while molars, whether upper or lower, come in later during the teething process.
Upon assessing a newborn immediately after delivery, you note that the infant is breathing spontaneously and has a heart rate of 90 beats/min. What is the most appropriate initial management for this newborn?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A heart rate below 100 beats/min in a newborn indicates the need for positive pressure ventilation to improve oxygenation. Providing positive pressure ventilations helps in assisting the newborn's breathing efforts to ensure adequate oxygenation. Choice B, providing blow-by oxygen, may not be sufficient to address the underlying issue of inadequate breathing. Choice C, assessing the newborn's skin condition and color, is important but not the most immediate action needed for a heart rate below 100 beats/min. Choice D, starting chest compressions, is not indicated as the infant is breathing spontaneously and has a heart rate, albeit lower than normal, which does not warrant chest compressions.
What should the nurse advise the parents of a child with asthma on preventing asthma attacks?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to advise the parents to avoid exposure to allergens. Asthma attacks are commonly triggered by allergens such as pollen, dust mites, pet dander, and mold. By minimizing the child's contact with these triggers, the likelihood of asthma attacks can be reduced. Encouraging regular exercise can be beneficial for overall health but may not directly prevent asthma attacks. Providing a high-protein diet and increasing fluid intake are important for general health but are not specific preventive measures for asthma attacks.
The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a child who is to have his cast removed. What instruction would the nurse most likely include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the teaching plan is to advise the child to soak the area in warm water every day. Soaking the area in warm water helps to gently remove dead skin without causing irritation, facilitating the safe and comfortable removal of the cast. Applying petroleum jelly (Choice A) may not be necessary and could interfere with the cast removal process. Rubbing the skin vigorously (Choice B) can lead to skin damage and should be avoided. Washing the skin with diluted peroxide and water (Choice D) is not recommended as peroxide can be irritating to the skin and may not aid in cast removal.
What should be included in the nursing plan of care for a 6-month-old infant admitted to the pediatric unit with a diagnosis of respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Maintain standard and contact precautions. RSV is highly contagious, primarily spread through respiratory secretions. Therefore, it is crucial to implement infection control measures such as standard and contact precautions to prevent the spread of the virus to other patients, staff, and visitors. Choice A is incorrect because warmth and dryness are not specific interventions for RSV; the focus should be on infection control. Choice B may increase the risk of exposing others to RSV, so limiting visitors is recommended. Choice D is unnecessary because RSV is a viral infection, and antibiotics are not effective against viruses.
Which of the following parameters would be LEAST reliable when assessing the perfusion status of a 2-year-old child with possible shock?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Systolic blood pressure is the least reliable parameter when assessing the perfusion status of a 2-year-old child with possible shock. In pediatric patients, especially young children, blood pressure may not decrease until significant shock has already occurred, making it a late indicator of inadequate perfusion. Depending solely on systolic blood pressure to evaluate perfusion status in this age group can lead to a delay in appropriate interventions. Distal capillary refill time, skin color, and temperature changes, and the presence of peripheral pulses are more sensitive and early indicators of perfusion status in pediatric patients. Monitoring distal capillary refill provides information on peripheral perfusion, while changes in skin color and temperature can signal circulatory compromise. Evaluating the presence or absence of peripheral pulses offers insights into vascular perfusion. These parameters offer more reliable and prompt feedback on a child's perfusion status compared to systolic blood pressure.
What is the priority nursing intervention for a child with a diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) receiving chemotherapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing intervention for a child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) receiving chemotherapy is to prevent infection. Chemotherapy compromises the child's immune system, increasing susceptibility to infections. Preventing infection is crucial to avoid potential complications such as sepsis, which can be life-threatening. Administering chemotherapy is essential for treating ALL but preventing infection takes precedence due to the increased risk of infections associated with chemotherapy-induced immunosuppression. Providing nutritional support is important for overall health but preventing infections is more critical in this context. Monitoring fluid intake is significant, but the priority is to prevent infections that can have severe consequences in an immunocompromised child.
The parents of a 6-month-old infant are concerned about the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). What should the nurse recommend to reduce the risk?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct recommendation to reduce the risk of SIDS in infants is to place them on their back to sleep. This sleeping position helps prevent the occurrence of SIDS by maintaining an open airway and reducing the risk of suffocation. Using a pacifier during sleep has also shown some protective effect against SIDS, but it is not as effective as placing the infant on their back. Having the infant sleep on their side is not recommended as it can increase the risk of accidental suffocation. Keeping the infant's room cool does not directly reduce the risk of SIDS.
A child with sickle cell anemia is admitted to the hospital during a vaso-occlusive crisis. What is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell anemia, ensuring adequate hydration is crucial because it helps to reduce the viscosity of the blood and prevent further sickling of the cells. Administering oxygen may be necessary in some cases to improve tissue oxygenation, but hydration is the priority to prevent complications. Monitoring vital signs is important, but hydration takes precedence during a vaso-occlusive crisis. Administering pain medication is important for pain management but does not address the underlying issue of vaso-occlusion.
A young child has coarctation of the aorta. What does the nurse expect to identify when taking the child's vital signs?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In coarctation of the aorta, there is narrowing of the aorta leading to decreased blood flow distal to the constriction. This results in a weak or delayed femoral pulse and a relatively weaker radial pulse compared to the femoral pulse. An irregular heartbeat (choice B) is not a typical finding in coarctation of the aorta. A bounding femoral pulse (choice C) would not be expected due to the decreased blood flow beyond the constriction. An elevated radial blood pressure (choice D) is not a common characteristic of coarctation of the aorta; instead, blood pressure may be higher in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities due to the constriction.
Why is it recommended that closure of the palate should be done before the age of 2 for an 11-month-old infant with a cleft palate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
It is recommended to perform palate closure surgery before the child starts using faulty speech patterns to prevent the development of speech issues that may be harder to correct later. Delaying surgery until after the age of 2 can lead to the child forming incorrect speech habits, which can be challenging to correct. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the specific concern related to speech development in children with cleft palates.
A parent tells a nurse at the clinic, 'Each morning I offer my 24-month-old child juice, and all I hear is 'No.' What should I do because I know my child needs fluid?' What strategy should the nurse suggest?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Offering a choice between two options allows the child to feel a sense of control while ensuring they get the necessary fluids. Providing a choice empowers the child and increases the likelihood of cooperation. Distracting the child with food or offering the glass in a firm manner may not address the underlying issue of refusal. Allowing the child to witness the parent's anger can create a negative environment and may not help in resolving the situation positively.
When the working mother of a toddler is preparing to take her child home after a prolonged hospitalization, she asks the nurse what type of behavior she should expect to be displayed. What is the nurse's most appropriate description of her child's probable behavior?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After a prolonged hospitalization, a toddler may exhibit excessively demanding behavior as they readjust to being home. This behavior can be a result of the child seeking extra attention and reassurance after a stressful experience. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hostility, cheerfulness with shallow attachment, and withdrawal without emotional ties are less likely outcomes in this situation and do not align with common reactions of toddlers after hospitalization.
An infant with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) is admitted to the pediatric unit. What does the nurse expect to find when palpating the infant's abdomen?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When palpating the abdomen of an infant with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS), the nurse would expect to feel an olive-sized mass in the right upper quadrant. This finding is characteristic of HPS, where the hypertrophied pyloric muscle forms a palpable mass in the abdomen. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A distended colon is not a typical finding in HPS, marked tenderness around the umbilicus is not specific to this condition, and rhythmic peristaltic waves in the lower abdomen are not associated with HPS.
A parent and 4-year-old child who recently emigrated from Colombia arrive at the pediatric clinic. The child has a temperature of 102°F, is irritable, and has a runny nose. Inspection reveals a rash and several small, red, irregularly shaped spots with blue-white centers in the mouth. What illness does the nurse suspect the child has?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should suspect measles in this child. The presence of a high fever, irritability, runny nose, rash, and Koplik spots (small, red spots with blue-white centers in the mouth) are classic signs of measles. Measles is a highly contagious viral illness that can lead to serious complications if not managed promptly. Chickenpox (choice B) presents with a different rash pattern and does not typically involve Koplik spots. Fifth disease (choice C) and scarlet fever (choice D) also have distinct clinical presentations and are not characterized by the specific symptoms described in this case.
A child is admitted with extensive burns. The nurse notes burns on the child's lips and singed nasal hairs. The nurse should suspect that the child has a(n)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Burns on the lips and singed nasal hairs are indicative of an inhalation injury. This suggests that the child has likely inhaled hot gases or smoke, leading to damage in the respiratory tract. Choice A, chemical burn, is incorrect because the symptoms described are more aligned with inhalation rather than direct contact with chemicals. Choice C, electrical burn, is incorrect as there are no mentions of contact with an electrical source. Choice D, hot-water scald, is also incorrect as the presentation of burns on the lips and singed nasal hairs is not characteristic of scald injuries.
A home care nurse is visiting a family for the first time. The 4-week-old infant had surgery for exstrophy of the bladder and creation of an ileal conduit soon after birth. When the nurse arrives, the mother appears tired, and the baby is crying. After an introduction, which is the most appropriate statement by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate statement by the nurse in this scenario is to inquire about the family's daily routine. This question allows the nurse to gather information about the family dynamics, the care routine for the infant post-surgery, feeding schedules, and potential stressors. It opens the conversation in a non-intrusive manner and helps the nurse assess the family's situation to provide appropriate support. Choices B, C, and D do not address the situation effectively. Asking about the daily routine is crucial for the nurse to understand the family's needs and offer targeted assistance.
A child sitting on a chair in a playroom starts to have a tonic-clonic seizure with a clenched jaw. What is the nurse's best initial action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct initial action during a tonic-clonic seizure is to place the child on the floor to prevent injury. This action helps protect the child from falling off the chair and provides a safer environment for the seizure to occur. Attempting to open the jaw can cause harm or injury. Calling out for assistance is important but should follow the immediate action of moving the child to the floor. Placing a pillow under the child's head is not recommended as it may lead to airway obstruction or further injury during the seizure.
A parent and 4-year-old child who recently emigrated from Colombia arrive at the pediatric clinic. The child has a temperature of 102°F, is irritable, and has a runny nose. Inspection reveals a rash and several small, red, irregularly shaped spots with blue-white centers in the mouth. What illness does the nurse suspect the child has?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should suspect measles based on the symptoms described, including the presence of Koplik spots (small, red spots with blue-white centers in the mouth). Measles typically presents with fever, irritability, runny nose, and a rash that begins on the face and spreads downward. Chickenpox (choice B) presents with vesicular lesions in different stages of healing and usually starts on the trunk. Fifth disease (choice C) presents with a 'slapped cheek' rash on the face and can cause joint pain. Scarlet fever (choice D) is characterized by a sandpaper-like rash, fever, and strawberry tongue.
A child has been diagnosed with classic hemophilia. A nurse teaches the child's parents how to administer the plasma component factor VIII through a venous port. It is to be given 3 times a week. What should the nurse tell them about when to administer this therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering factor VIII in the morning on scheduled days ensures that there is a consistent level of the plasma component throughout the day, especially when the child is active. This timing helps to maintain adequate levels of factor VIII to prevent bleeding episodes. Choice A is incorrect because administering factor VIII only when a bleed is suspected would not provide the consistent prophylactic coverage needed for children with hemophilia. Choice C is incorrect as bedtime administration may not be practical for ensuring the plasma component is available during the child's active hours. Choice D is incorrect because administering factor VIII on a regular schedule, rather than at specific times of the day, may not optimize its effectiveness in preventing bleeding episodes.
A 12-month-old infant has become immunosuppressed during a course of chemotherapy. When preparing the parents for the infant's discharge, what information should the nurse give concerning the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) immunization?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Live vaccines like MMR should not be given to immunosuppressed infants because their weakened immune systems may not handle the vaccine safely. Choice A is incorrect as delaying the MMR vaccine until the infant reaches 2 years of age does not address the issue of immunosuppression. Choice C is incorrect because administering live vaccines to an immunosuppressed individual could lead to serious complications. Choice D is incorrect as immediate action is required to prevent potential harm to the immunosuppressed infant.
What should the nurse suggest to a parent asking for help with a child experiencing night terrors?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Establishing a bedtime routine is the most appropriate suggestion for a parent seeking help with a child experiencing night terrors. Bedtime routines can create a sense of security and predictability for the child, potentially reducing the frequency of night terrors. Encouraging the child to talk about the night terrors (Choice A) may not be effective during the episode as the child is usually not fully awake. Allowing the child to sleep with the parents (Choice C) may inadvertently reinforce the behavior and hinder the child's ability to learn to self-soothe. Waking the child during the night (Choice D) may disrupt the sleep cycle and exacerbate the night terrors.
A parent tells the nurse, "My 9-month-old baby no longer has the same strong grasp that was present at birth and no longer acts startled by loud noises." How should the nurse explain these changes in behavior?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. The grasp reflex and startle reflex (Moro reflex) are normal in newborns but typically disappear as the infant's nervous system matures and voluntary control develops. At around five months of age, these reflexes are replaced by voluntary movements as part of the normal developmental process. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A suggests delaying a decision until further assessment, which is not necessary as the disappearance of these reflexes is a normal part of infant development. Choice B implies a developmental delay, which is not the case as these reflexes naturally disappear with age. Choice C recommending additional sensory stimulation is unnecessary and not the reason for the absence of these reflexes.
A 7-month-old girl is to be catheterized to obtain a sterile urine specimen. One of the infant's parents expresses fear that this procedure may traumatize the baby psychologically. How should the nurse provide reassurance?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
While catheterization can be uncomfortable, it does not typically result in long-term psychological harm, and obtaining a sterile specimen is important for accurate diagnosis.
A nurse is teaching a class about immunizations to members of a grammar school's Parent-Teachers Association. Which childhood disease is the nurse discussing when explaining that it is a viral disease that starts with malaise and a highly pruritic rash that begins on the abdomen, spreads to the face and proximal extremities, and can result in grave complications?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, Chickenpox (varicella). Chickenpox is a viral disease characterized by a highly pruritic rash that typically starts on the abdomen and then spreads to other parts of the body, including the face and proximal extremities. It can lead to complications such as pneumonia and encephalitis. Rubella (German measles) presents with a mild rash and swollen lymph nodes; Rubeola (measles) also presents with a rash but starts on the face before spreading downwards; Scarlet fever is caused by Group A Streptococcus bacteria and is characterized by a rash, fever, and sore throat.
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