Free HESI LPN Fundamentals of Nursing practice for HESI Fundamental Practice Exam (HESI LPN). Answer 91 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode,
A client reports insomnia. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform shortly before bedtime?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Offering a wet washcloth for the client to wash their face is a soothing and calming activity that can help the client relax before bedtime, promoting better sleep. Providing a late supper can lead to indigestion and disrupt sleep. Performing range of motion exercises may increase alertness rather than promoting relaxation. Preparing a hot cocoa or tea containing caffeine close to bedtime can interfere with falling asleep.
A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse how to perform a capillary blood glucose test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction is to puncture the site after cleansing and before the antiseptic dries. This sequence helps ensure proper blood collection without introducing contaminants. Choice A is incorrect because wearing sterile gloves is not necessary for capillary blood glucose testing. Choice C is incorrect as wiping the puncture site can introduce contaminants and alter the blood sample. Choice D is incorrect as holding the finger below the heart level is not required for a capillary blood glucose test.
A client is 48 hours postoperative following a small bowel resection. The client reports gas pains in the periumbilical area. The nurse should plan care based on which of the following factors contributing to this postoperative complication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Gas pains in the periumbilical area postoperatively are often caused by impaired peristalsis and bowel function. Following abdominal surgery, it is common for peristalsis to be reduced due to surgical manipulation and anesthesia effects. This reduction in peristalsis can lead to the accumulation of gas in the intestines, resulting in gas pains. Infection at the surgical site (Choice B) would present with localized signs of infection such as redness, swelling, warmth, and drainage, rather than diffuse gas pains. Fluid overload (Choice C) would manifest with symptoms such as edema, increased blood pressure, and respiratory distress, not gas pains. Inadequate pain management (Choice D) may lead to increased discomfort, but it is not the primary cause of gas pains in the periumbilical area following a small bowel resection.
To use proper body mechanics while making an occupied bed for a client on bed rest, the nurse should:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When making an occupied bed for a client on bed rest, the nurse should place the bed in a high horizontal position to promote better body mechanics. This positioning helps reduce strain on the nurse's back and promotes proper alignment while working. Using a low bed position can lead to awkward bending and increased risk of musculoskeletal injuries. Bending at the waist is discouraged as it can strain the back. Keeping the bed flat and at a comfortable working height may not provide the optimal ergonomic setup needed to prevent injury.
A client has been admitted to the hospital with severe diarrhea. The nurse should monitor the client for which complication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Severe diarrhea can lead to metabolic acidosis due to the loss of bicarbonate. When there is excessive loss of bicarbonate through diarrhea, the pH of the blood decreases, leading to metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis (Choice B) is not typically associated with severe diarrhea as it involves elevated pH and bicarbonate levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely with severe diarrhea as potassium is often lost along with fluids. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common complication of severe diarrhea; instead, hypocalcemia may occur due to malabsorption of calcium.
A healthcare professional is teaching about home safety with a client. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to use electrical tape to secure extension cords next to baseboards on the floor. This practice helps prevent tripping and electrical hazards by keeping cords out of the way. Option A is incorrect as unplugging electronics should be done by holding the plug, not the cord itself. Option C is incorrect because when using a fire extinguisher, it should be aimed at the base of the flames, not at the top. Option D is not directly related to home safety teaching and may not be necessary for all clients, as it suggests an unnecessary change that may not improve safety.
A nurse is planning strategies to manage time effectively for client care. What should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Using the planning step of the nursing process to prioritize client care delivery is crucial for effective time management. By prioritizing tasks based on client needs and acuity levels, the nurse can ensure that the most critical care is provided in a timely manner. Choice B is incorrect because while delegation is important, not all tasks can be delegated, and the nurse is ultimately responsible for the care provided. Choice C is incorrect as completing tasks in the order they are assigned may not align with the urgency of client needs. Choice D is incorrect as using a checklist can help the nurse stay organized and ensure that all necessary tasks are completed.
During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.
The caregiver is assessing an 8-month-old child with atonic cerebral palsy. Which statement from the caregiver supports the presence of this problem?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The statement 'When I place the baby in a supine position, that's how I find the baby' supports the presence of atonic cerebral palsy. In this type of cerebral palsy, the child may have poor muscle tone, making it difficult for them to roll from a back-lying position. This inability to roll indicates a lack of muscle tone, which is a characteristic feature of atonic cerebral palsy. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to the muscle tone issues typical of atonic cerebral palsy. Choice A focuses on a lack of grasp response, which may suggest motor issues but not specifically atonic cerebral palsy. Choice B refers to visual tracking, and choice C is about the startle reflex, neither of which are defining characteristics of atonic cerebral palsy.
The nurse is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Increased urine output. In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to the excretion of large amounts of dilute urine. Reporting increased urine output is crucial as it is a hallmark sign of diabetes insipidus. Weight gain (choice A) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus; instead, clients may experience weight loss due to fluid loss. Low blood pressure (choice C) can be a complication of diabetes insipidus due to dehydration from excessive urination, but the priority finding to report is the increased urine output. Thirst (choice D) is a common symptom of diabetes insipidus due to the body's attempt to compensate for fluid loss, but it is not the most critical finding to report.
When assessing a client's IV for infiltration, which finding would be unexpected for the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Warmth around the infusion site is not an expected finding with infiltration. Infiltration typically presents with swelling and coolness due to the fluid leaking into the surrounding tissue. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because swelling, coolness, and difficulty flushing the line, as well as lack of blood return, are commonly associated with infiltration.
A patient is placed in the Sims' position. Which areas will the nurse observe for pressure points?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a patient is placed in the Sims' position, the nurse should observe pressure points on the ileum, clavicle, humerus, knees, and ankles. Choice A is incorrect as the chin and hips are not typically pressure points in the Sims' position. Choice C is incorrect as the shoulder and anterior iliac spine are not commonly observed pressure points in this position. Choice D is also incorrect as the occipital region of the head, coccyx, and heels are not pressure points commonly associated with the Sims' position.
When assessing a male client, the nurse finds that he is fatigued and is experiencing muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Based on these findings, the nurse plans to check the client's laboratory values to validate the existence of which condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The symptoms of muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias are indicative of hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low potassium levels. Checking the client's laboratory values for potassium will help confirm this diagnosis. Hyperphosphatemia (Choice A) is an elevated phosphate level in the blood, which is not consistent with the symptoms described. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) is a low calcium level and typically presents with different symptoms than those mentioned in the scenario. Hypermagnesemia (Choice C) is an excess of magnesium in the blood and does not align with the symptoms of muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias observed in the client.
A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is washing her hands prior to assisting with a surgical procedure. Which of the following actions by the nurse demonstrates proper surgical hand-washing technique?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Proper surgical hand-washing technique involves washing with the hands held higher than the elbows. This positioning is essential to ensure proper rinsing and to prevent the risk of contamination. Option B, using an alcohol-based hand rub for 30 seconds, is not specific to surgical hand-washing and is more commonly used for routine hand hygiene. Option C, scrubbing hands and forearms for 2 minutes with soap and water, is excessive and not typically required for routine hand-washing. Option D, washing hands with soap and water for only 15 seconds, is insufficient for thorough surgical hand-washing.
A healthcare provider is preparing to insert an IV catheter into a client's arm before starting IV fluid therapy. Which of the following interventions should the provider implement to prevent infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Inserting the IV catheter so that the hub rests at the insertion site reduces the risk of contamination along the length of the catheter. This technique helps prevent introducing microbes into the bloodstream during the catheter insertion process. Shaving excess hair is unnecessary and can increase the risk of skin irritation and infection. Cleansing the site with hydrogen peroxide is outdated as it can cause tissue damage and delay wound healing. Palpating the site just before insertion can introduce bacteria from the skin surface into the insertion site, increasing the risk of infection.
The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with diabetes. Which task will the nurse assign to the nursing assistive personnel?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is making the patient's bed. Delegating bed-making tasks to nursing assistive personnel is appropriate as it falls within their scope of practice and helps free up the nurse's time to focus on tasks that require their specialized skills and knowledge. Providing nail care and teaching foot care involve direct patient care and education, which should be performed by licensed nursing staff. Determining aspiration risk requires critical thinking and clinical judgment, making it a responsibility of the nurse.
What intervention can help prevent atelectasis and pneumonia in a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Chest physiotherapy is essential for clients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) to prevent atelectasis and pneumonia. Chest physiotherapy aids in clearing secretions, maintaining lung function, and preventing respiratory complications. Active and passive range of motion exercises (Choice A) are important for maintaining joint mobility but are not directly associated with preventing atelectasis and pneumonia in ALS. Incentive spirometer use every 4 hours (Choice B) is beneficial for lung expansion and preventing atelectasis but may not be as effective as chest physiotherapy in managing secretions. Repositioning every 2 hours (Choice D) is crucial for preventing pressure ulcers but is not directly related to preventing atelectasis and pneumonia in ALS.
Which nutritional assessment data should be collected to best reflect total muscle mass in an adolescent?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Upper arm circumference.' Upper arm circumference is a better indicator of total muscle mass in adolescents compared to height, weight, or triceps skinfold thickness. Triceps skinfold thickness primarily reflects subcutaneous fat, while weight and height are not specific to muscle mass. Upper arm circumference directly measures the muscle mass in the upper arm and can provide a more accurate assessment in this context. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly reflect total muscle mass in adolescents.
A nurse is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent the spread of infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A client who has tuberculosis requires airborne precautions, including placing the client in a room with negative-pressure airflow to reduce the risk of infection transmission. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Carrying soiled linens in a mesh bag, providing disposable plates and utensils for an HIV-positive client, and disposing of blood-saturated dressing in a biohazard bag do not specifically address preventing the spread of tuberculosis, which requires airborne precautions.
A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a client prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to place the tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve completely. This route of administration allows for rapid absorption of the medication through the oral mucosa, providing quick relief for angina symptoms. Option A, taking the medication with food, is incorrect as nitroglycerin should be taken sublingually, not with food. Option C, swallowing the tablet whole with water, is incorrect as sublingual tablets should not be swallowed whole. Option D, chewing the tablet for faster relief, is also incorrect as chewing the tablet can lead to rapid absorption and potential adverse effects rather than a controlled release for angina relief.
A client in the terminal stage of cancer is crying. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In situations where a client is in the terminal stage of cancer and crying, it is essential for the nurse to provide comfort and support. Sitting with the client and holding their hand can offer a sense of presence and emotional support, showing empathy and understanding. Encouraging the client to talk about their feelings (choice B) is also important, but initially, non-verbal support through physical presence can be comforting. Leaving the client alone to cry (choice C) can make the client feel abandoned and unsupported during a vulnerable moment. Ignoring the client's crying (choice D) is not appropriate and lacks compassion and empathy, which are crucial in end-of-life care.
A client is incontinent of loose stool and is reporting a painful perineum. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing the client's perineum is the priority nursing action in this situation. By checking the perineum, the nurse can evaluate for skin damage, irritation, infection, or other issues that may be causing the client's pain. This assessment is crucial to determine the appropriate interventions needed to address the client's discomfort and prevent complications. Administering pain medication, cleaning the area with a mild cleanser, or applying a barrier cream are important interventions but should follow the initial assessment of the perineum to ensure comprehensive care and effective management of the client's condition. Prioritizing assessment allows for a targeted and individualized approach to care, enhancing the client's overall well-being.
A client who is lactating is being taught about taking medications by a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse recommend to minimize the entry of medication into breast milk?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Taking medications immediately after breastfeeding helps minimize the amount of medication that enters breast milk. By doing so, there is a longer interval between the medication intake and the next breastfeeding session, reducing the concentration of the medication in breast milk. Options A and B are incorrect as drinking water with medication or using medications with a short half-life do not directly minimize the entry of medication into breast milk. Option D is unnecessary and wasteful as pumping and discarding breast milk before feeding is not as effective as timing medication intake with breastfeeding to reduce medication transfer into breast milk.
The patient diagnosed with diabetes is reporting severe foot pain due to corns and has been using oval corn pads to self-treat the corns. Which information will the nurse share with the patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should inform the patient that using oval corn pads can increase pressure on the toes and impede circulation, which may exacerbate foot problems in patients with diabetes. It is important to avoid practices that restrict blood flow to the feet, as poor circulation can lead to serious complications. Soaking the feet and using a pumice stone can be beneficial for corns, but in this case, the current self-treatment with corn pads is not recommended. Tighter shoes would further increase pressure on the corns and should be avoided. Therefore, the nurse should emphasize the importance of proper foot care and recommend alternative treatments to promote foot health and prevent complications.
What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform on a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receiving oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Measuring the client's oxygen saturation level is the most important assessment in this scenario. Oxygen saturation level reflects how well the client is oxygenating, which is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of oxygen therapy for a client with COPD. Monitoring the respiratory rate and effort (Choice A) is important but assessing oxygenation with saturation levels takes precedence. While arterial blood gas levels (Choice C) provide comprehensive information, checking oxygen saturation is a quicker and more immediate way to assess oxygenation status. Checking blood pressure (Choice D) is not the priority when evaluating the effectiveness of oxygen therapy in COPD.
A client who is a Jehovah's Witness is admitted to the nursing unit. Which concern should the LPN have for planning care in terms of the client's beliefs?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Blood transfusions are forbidden.' Jehovah's Witnesses typically refuse blood transfusions due to their religious beliefs. This is crucial for the LPN to consider when planning the client's care to ensure that alternative treatments are explored. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the specific beliefs and practices of Jehovah's Witnesses. Autopsy prohibition, alcohol use restrictions, and dietary preferences are not primary concerns related to the religious beliefs of Jehovah's Witnesses.
A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory values for a client who has a positive Chvostek's sign. Which of the following laboratory findings should the healthcare professional expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A positive Chvostek's sign is a clinical indication of low calcium levels, known as hypocalcemia. This sign is elicited by tapping the facial nerve anterior to the ear, resulting in facial muscle twitching. The correct laboratory finding associated with a positive Chvostek's sign is decreased calcium. Elevated potassium (Choice B) is not typically associated with Chvostek's sign but can be seen in conditions like renal failure. Increased sodium (Choice C) is not directly related to Chvostek's sign and is more commonly associated with hypernatremia. Low hemoglobin (Choice D) is not the expected laboratory finding in a client with a positive Chvostek's sign; instead, it suggests anemia, which is unrelated to this clinical manifestation.
A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's fluid and electrolyte status. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. A potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L is above the expected reference range, indicating hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious complications such as dysrhythmias, making it important for the healthcare professional to report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and C fall within normal ranges and do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health, so they would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider. Elevated BUN or creatinine levels may indicate kidney dysfunction, while a sodium level of 143 mEq/L falls within the normal range for adults and does not typically require urgent intervention.
A client who is postoperative is verbalizing pain as a 2 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the preoperative teaching she received about pain management?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because listening to music is an effective nonpharmacological intervention for managing mild pain. Choice A is incorrect as increasing the frequency of pain medication without consulting healthcare providers can lead to adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect as distracting techniques like breathing faster may not address the pain effectively. Choice D is incorrect as avoidance of physical activity due to pain can hinder postoperative recovery.
An older adult client at risk for osteoporosis is being taught by a nurse about starting a regular physical activity program. Which type of activity should the nurse recommend?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is walking briskly. Weight-bearing exercises, such as brisk walking, are recommended for individuals at risk for osteoporosis because they help maintain bone mass and prevent bone loss. Riding a bicycle and performing isometric exercises are not weight-bearing activities, and therefore, may not provide the same bone-strengthening benefits as walking. High-impact aerobics can increase the risk of fractures in individuals with osteoporosis due to the high level of impact involved.
A nurse in a health clinic is caring for a 20-year-old client who tells the nurse that their last physical exam was in high school. Which of the following health screenings should the nurse expect the provider to perform for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A testicular examination is appropriate for a 20-year-old male to screen for testicular cancer, which is more common in younger age groups. Testicular cancer is most frequently diagnosed in individuals between the ages of 15 and 40. Blood glucose screening is typically recommended for older individuals or those at risk for diabetes. Fecal occult blood testing is used for colorectal cancer screening, usually starting at age 50. Prostate-specific antigen testing is commonly considered for prostate cancer screening in older males, typically around age 50. Therefore, the most appropriate screening for the 20-year-old client is the testicular examination.
When assessing a client's neurologic system, what should the nurse ask the client to close their eyes and identify?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a nurse asks a client to identify a number traced on the palm of the hand with their eyes closed, it assesses the client's ability to perceive touch sensations. This test specifically evaluates the tactile discrimination of the client. The other options do not test the client's ability to identify sensations accurately with eyes closed. Option A tests auditory perception, option C tests vibratory sense, and option D tests object recognition but not tactile discrimination, making them incorrect choices.
A client is grieving the loss of her partner and expresses thoughts of not seeing the point of living anymore. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client expresses feelings of hopelessness or worthlessness, it is crucial for the nurse to assess for suicidal ideation. Asking the client directly if she plans to harm herself is essential to determine the level of risk and ensure appropriate interventions are implemented. Recommending spiritual guidance (Choice A) may not address the immediate safety concerns related to suicidal ideation. Requesting additional support from the client's family (Choice B) is not as direct in addressing the client's safety. While stating that the client's response is a normal part of grief (Choice C) may provide validation, it does not address the potential risk of harm to the client.
What is the rate of delivery in mL/hr if a total volume of 750 mL is infused over a period of 7 hours?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct rate of delivery is 107 mL/hr. To find the rate of delivery, divide the total volume by the total time: 750 mL / 7 hours = 107 mL/hr. Choice B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation based on the total volume and time provided.
A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention is to give the missed dose at 1300 and adjust the schedule to administer daily at 1300. This approach ensures that the client receives the correct total daily dose of levofloxacin. Choice A is incorrect because contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form would not address the immediate need to administer the missed dose. Choice B is incorrect as administering the missed dose at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next morning would result in a missed dose for that day. Choice C is not the best course of action as notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report should come after addressing the immediate need to administer the missed dose and adjusting the schedule for future doses.
A healthcare provider is delegating client care to assistive personnel. Which of the following tasks should the healthcare provider delegate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct task that a healthcare provider should delegate to assistive personnel is performing a simple dressing change. Assistive personnel are trained and competent in performing basic wound care activities like simple dressing changes. Evaluating the healing of an incision requires clinical judgment and assessment skills that are typically performed by licensed healthcare professionals, such as nurses or physicians. Inserting an NG tube and changing IV tubing involve invasive procedures that require specialized training and skills, making them tasks that should be performed by licensed healthcare providers rather than assistive personnel.
An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) places a client in a left lateral position before administering a soap suds enema. Which instruction should the LPN/LVN provide the UAP?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction the LPN/LVN should provide to the UAP is to reposition the client in a Sim's position with the weight on the anterior ilium for administering a soap suds enema. This position helps facilitate the administration of the enema by providing better access and comfort for the client. Choice A is incorrect as reverse Trendelenburg is not the appropriate position for administering a soap suds enema. Choice B is incorrect as the concentration of soap in the enema solution is not specified and might be too strong. Choice D is incorrect as raising the side rails and elevating the bed does not directly relate to the proper positioning for administering the enema.
A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first when using the nursing process?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Obtain client information. The first step in the nursing process is assessment, which involves gathering data about the client's condition, needs, and preferences. This information forms the foundation for developing a comprehensive plan of care. Developing a plan of care (Choice B) comes after assessment to address the identified needs. Implementing nursing interventions (Choice C) follows the development of the plan of care. Evaluating the client's response to treatment (Choice D) occurs after implementing the interventions to determine the effectiveness of the care provided. Therefore, the initial and priority step is to obtain client information through assessment.
A nurse is preparing to provide tracheostomy care for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Performing hand hygiene is essential before any direct patient care procedure to prevent the spread of infection. Proper hand hygiene helps reduce the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms to the client, especially when dealing with a procedure like tracheostomy care. Identifying the client, preparing the sterile field, and donning sterile gloves are all important steps in tracheostomy care, but hand hygiene precedes them to maintain asepsis and ensure patient safety.
The patient is reporting an inability to clear nasal passages. Which action will the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a patient reports an inability to clear nasal passages, the appropriate action for the nurse to take is to use gentle suction to prevent tissue damage. Suctioning helps remove excess mucus or secretions without causing harm to the nasal tissues. Instructing the patient to blow their nose forcefully (Choice B) may exacerbate the issue and cause discomfort or injury. Placing a dry washcloth under the nose (Choice C) is not an effective intervention for clearing nasal passages. Inserting a cotton-tipped applicator into the back of the nose (Choice D) is not recommended as it can be invasive and may cause injury or discomfort to the patient.
A client is being taught about medications at discharge. Which statement should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the instructions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Adding liquid medication to pudding can help with swallowing difficulties, demonstrating understanding of the instructions. Options A and C are incorrect as altering time-release capsules and enteric-coated pills is not recommended in medication administration. Option A is incorrect as time-release capsules should not be opened and sprinkled on food, affecting their efficacy. Option C is incorrect as crushing enteric-coated pills can affect their absorption. Option D is unrelated to medication administration and does not demonstrate understanding of the instructions.
A client has been admitted to the Coronary Care Unit with a myocardial infarction. Which nursing diagnosis should have priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Pain related to ischemia. This nursing diagnosis should have priority because addressing the pain caused by ischemia is crucial in managing the client's myocardial infarction. Pain management is essential not only for the client's comfort but also for improving outcomes and reducing complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority in this scenario. Risk for altered elimination: constipation (Choice B) is not as immediate a concern as managing the client's pain. Risk for complication: dysrhythmias (Choice C) may be a potential concern but addressing the client's pain takes precedence. Anxiety related to pain (Choice D) is important to address but should come after managing the pain itself.
A nurse on a rehabilitation unit is preparing to transfer a client who is unable to walk from bed to a wheelchair. Which of the following techniques should the nurse use?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Placing the wheelchair at a 45-degree angle to the bed is the correct technique for transferring a client who is unable to walk from bed to a wheelchair. This positioning facilitates a safer and easier transfer by providing more space for maneuvering and reducing the distance the client needs to be moved. Positioning the wheelchair parallel to the bed (Choice B) may make the transfer more challenging due to limited space and a longer distance to move the client. Placing the wheelchair in front of the bed (Choice C) may not provide an optimal angle for the transfer. Having the client stand and pivot into the wheelchair (Choice D) is not appropriate for a client who is unable to walk and could increase the risk of falls or injuries during the transfer.
When a client decides not to have surgery despite significant blockages of the coronary arteries, it is an example of which of the following ethical principles?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is autonomy. Autonomy is the ethical principle that upholds an individual's right to make decisions about their healthcare, including the choice to refuse treatment or surgery. In this scenario, the client's decision not to have surgery despite the recommendation is an exercise of autonomy. Choice A, fidelity, refers to being faithful and keeping promises, which is not applicable in this situation. Choice C, justice, pertains to fair and equal distribution of resources and treatment, not the individual's right to make decisions. Choice D, nonmaleficence, relates to the obligation to do no harm, which is not directly applicable to the client's decision to refuse surgery.
The nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which action should the LPN/LVN take to ensure the client's safety?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To ensure the client's safety during a blood transfusion, it is crucial to verify the blood product with another nurse before administration. This step helps confirm the correct blood type and prevents transfusion reactions. While checking the client's identification and blood type (Choice A) is important, the ultimate responsibility lies with confirming the blood product before administration. Monitoring vital signs (Choice B) is necessary during a transfusion but does not directly address verifying the blood product. Administering blood through a peripheral IV line (Choice C) is a common practice but does not specifically ensure that the correct blood product is being administered, which is essential for the client's safety.
When planning care for a newly admitted elderly client who is severely dehydrated, which task is appropriate to assign to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Assigning the UAP to report hourly outputs of less than 30 ml/hr is appropriate as it falls within their scope of practice and does not involve making clinical assessments or decisions. Choices A, C, and D involve tasks that require a higher level of clinical judgment and training. Choice A requires assessing mucous membranes, which is beyond the UAP's scope. Choice C involves assessing movement ability, which requires more specialized training. Choice D involves assessing skin turgor, which also requires a higher level of clinical judgment.
A healthcare professional is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is postoperative and has fluid-volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Fluid-volume deficit causes tachycardia. With correction of the imbalance, the heart rate should return to the expected range. An increase in hematocrit (Choice A) would indicate hemoconcentration, not a successful fluid replacement. An increase in respiratory rate (Choice B) could indicate respiratory distress or hypoxia, not improvement in fluid volume status. A decrease in capillary refill time (Choice D) may indicate improved peripheral perfusion but is not a direct indicator of fluid replacement success.
The nurse is caring for a client with a newly placed colostomy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Changing the colostomy bag every day is not necessary; it should be changed as needed, usually every 3-7 days. This statement indicates a need for additional teaching as frequent changes can irritate the skin and are not typically required. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements regarding colostomy care. Avoiding gas-producing foods, emptying the bag when it is one-third to one-half full, and taking care of the skin around the stoma are all essential aspects of colostomy care to prevent complications and maintain skin integrity.
The healthcare professional is evaluating the body alignment of a patient in the sitting position. Which observation will indicate a normal finding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a normal sitting position, both feet should be supported on the floor with the ankles comfortably flexed. This position helps in maintaining stability and proper alignment. Choice A is incorrect because the edge of the seat pressing against the popliteal space may cause discomfort and is not indicative of proper alignment. Choice C is incorrect as the body weight should be evenly distributed for proper alignment and comfort, not solely on the buttocks. Choice D is incorrect as the position of the arms alone does not indicate proper body alignment in the sitting position; proper arm positioning is important for comfort but not a key indicator of body alignment.
When initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), what assessment finding must the healthcare provider confirm before beginning chest compressions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Absence of a pulse. Prior to initiating chest compressions during CPR, it is essential to confirm the absence of a pulse. Chest compressions are indicated when there is no detectable pulse as it signifies cardiac arrest. Checking for a pulse is a critical step to ensure that CPR is performed on individuals who truly require it. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because focusing on the presence of a pulse, respiratory rate, or blood pressure before starting chest compressions can delay life-saving interventions in a person experiencing cardiac arrest.
A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. When documenting a client in a non-responsive state with stable vital signs and independent breathing, the nurse should document the Glasgow Coma Scale score to assess the level of consciousness and the regularity of respirations. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deeper level of unconsciousness than described in the scenario. Choice C is incorrect as it does not provide a specific assessment like the Glasgow Coma Scale score. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 indicates a more alert state than described in the scenario.
A nurse at a long-term facility is providing a change-of-shift report to an oncoming nurse about an older adult client who has shingles. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the report?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Information about transmission-based precautions is essential for infection control and continuity of care.
The LPN is preparing discharge instructions for a client who has begun to demonstrate signs of early Alzheimer's disease. The client lives alone. The client's adult children live nearby. According to the prescribed medication regimen, the client is to take medications six times throughout the day. What is the priority nursing intervention to assist the client with taking the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing intervention in this scenario is to contact the primary health care provider and discuss the possibility of simplifying the medication regimen. Simplifying the medication regimen is crucial for a client with early Alzheimer's disease to ensure they can manage their medications independently and safely. This intervention focuses on optimizing the client's ability to adhere to the prescribed medication schedule. Choices A and D involve external assistance and may not address the core issue of simplifying the regimen. Choice B, while helpful, does not directly address the need to simplify the regimen to enhance the client's medication management.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an opioid medication to a client for pain management. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When administering opioid medications, it is crucial to monitor the client for respiratory depression, which is a potential side effect of opioids. Monitoring for respiratory depression is a critical safety measure to ensure the client's well-being during opioid therapy. Option A is incorrect because additional monitoring, especially for respiratory depression, is necessary when giving opioids to prevent adverse effects. Option C is incorrect as administering the medication only upon client request may compromise effective pain management and adherence to the prescribed regimen. Option D is incorrect as medication verification by another healthcare professional is essential for safety but not directly related to monitoring the client for respiratory depression after opioid administration.
What action should be taken to maintain the patency of a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to use sterile technique when changing the dressing. This practice is essential for preventing infections that can compromise the patency of the PICC line. While flushing the catheter with heparin solution helps prevent clot formation, it does not directly maintain patency. Changing the dressing daily is important for hygiene but does not have a direct impact on catheter patency. Keeping the insertion site dry is crucial to prevent infections but does not specifically address patency maintenance.
A patient's hygiene schedule of bathing and brushing teeth is largely influenced by family customs. For which age group is the nurse most likely providing care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Preschooler. Family customs have a significant impact on hygiene practices during childhood, especially in the early years. Preschoolers are at an age where they are learning and forming habits, and family customs play a crucial role in establishing routines such as bathing and brushing teeth. Adolescents, older adults, and adults are more likely to have established their own hygiene routines that may not be as heavily influenced by family customs as in early childhood. Therefore, the nurse is most likely providing care to a preschooler in this scenario.
A nurse in a primary care clinic is assessing a client who has a history of herpes zoster. Which of the following findings suggests that the client has postherpetic neuralgia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Report of continued pain following resolution of the rash. Postherpetic neuralgia is a complication of herpes zoster characterized by persistent pain that continues even after the rash has resolved. This pain can be severe and debilitating, affecting the quality of life of the individual. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because linear clusters of vesicles on the right shoulder would suggest an active herpes zoster outbreak, purulent drainage from both eyes would indicate an eye infection unrelated to postherpetic neuralgia, and a decreased white blood cell count is not typically associated with postherpetic neuralgia.
A client is being discharged home with oxygen therapy via a nasal cannula. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to the client and family?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Wear cotton clothing to avoid static electricity. When using oxygen therapy, static electricity can pose a hazard as it increases the risk of fire. Cotton clothing helps reduce static electricity buildup. Choice B, avoiding electrical appliances, is overly restrictive and not entirely necessary. Choice C, keeping the oxygen tank away from heat sources, is important to prevent fire hazards but is not directly related to the nasal cannula. Choice D, using only a specific type of nasal cannula, is not a universal guideline and limits flexibility in care.
A hospitalized male client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via a small-bore tube and a continuous pump infusion. He reports that he had a bad bout of severe coughing a few minutes ago but feels fine now. What action is best for the LPN/LVN to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After a client experiences severe coughing following nasogastric tube feedings, it is crucial to verify proper tube placement. Checking the pH of fluid withdrawn from the tube helps confirm the tube's correct positioning. Option A is incorrect because further action is necessary to ensure the client's safety. Option B is inappropriate as it suggests stopping the feeding without assessing the tube's placement. Option D is incorrect as injecting air into the tube may lead to further complications if the tube is not positioned correctly.
A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has influenza. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional initiate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Droplet precautions should be initiated for clients with infections that spread via droplet nuclei larger than 5 microns in diameter, such as influenza, rubella, meningococcal pneumonia, and streptococcal pharyngitis. In the case of influenza, the virus is primarily spread through respiratory droplets produced when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks. Airborne precautions are used for pathogens that remain infectious over long distances, typically smaller than 5 microns, like tuberculosis. Contact precautions are for diseases transmitted by direct or indirect contact, and protective environment precautions are for immunocompromised individuals to protect them from environmental pathogens.
A client is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider about reducing the adverse effects of immobility. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice A is correct because performing ankle and knee exercises every hour helps prevent contractures and other adverse effects of immobility. Contractures are a common complication of immobility, and range of motion (ROM) exercises can help maintain joint flexibility and prevent contractures. This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching provided by the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Holding the breath when rising from a sitting position can increase the risk of orthostatic hypotension, not reduce adverse effects of immobility. Removing antiembolic stockings while in bed can compromise their effectiveness in preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is not a measure to reduce immobility-related complications. Having a partner help change positions every 4 hours may not be frequent enough to prevent immobility-related complications effectively; changing positions more frequently is usually recommended to prevent issues like pressure ulcers and muscle stiffness.
A healthcare professional is caring for a group of clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following clients is at increased risk for body-image disturbances?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients who have undergone significant visible body changes, like amputation, are at increased risk for body-image disturbances. Amputation can have a profound impact on self-image and body perception due to the visible structural alteration. While conditions like laparoscopic appendectomy, mastectomy, and cardiac catheterization may also affect body image, they are less likely to cause significant disturbances compared to visible changes like amputation.
An elderly male client who suffered a cerebral vascular accident is receiving tube feedings via a gastrostomy tube. The LPN knows that the best position for this client during administration of the feedings is
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Fowler's position is the optimal position for a client receiving tube feedings via a gastrostomy tube because it reduces the risk of aspiration. In Fowler's position, the client is sitting up at a 45- to 60-degree angle, which helps prevent the formula from flowing back into the esophagus and causing aspiration pneumonia. Choice A, prone position (lying face down), would not be suitable for administering tube feedings as it increases the risk of aspiration. Sims' position (lying on the left side with the right knee flexed) and supine position (lying flat on the back) are also not ideal for administering tube feedings as they do not provide the same level of protection against aspiration as Fowler's position does.
During an assessment, a healthcare professional observes significant tenting of the skin over an older adult client's forearm. What factor should the healthcare professional primarily consider as a cause for this finding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Dehydration is the primary factor to consider in this scenario. Dehydration leads to decreased skin turgor and tenting, where the skin does not return to its normal position when pinched. While thin, parchment-like skin, loss of adipose tissue, and diminished skin elasticity can contribute to skin changes, they are not the primary cause of the significant tenting observed.
A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a prescription for a stool specimen to be sent to the laboratory to be tested for ova and parasites. Which of the following instructions regarding specimen collection should the healthcare professional provide to the assistive personnel?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To ensure accurate testing, a minimum amount of stool is required for specimen collection, typically at least 2 inches of formed stool. This amount provides an adequate sample for testing. Wearing sterile gloves is important for infection control but is not specifically required for stool specimen collection. Using a culturette is not typically necessary for collecting stool specimens. Recording the date and time the stool was collected is essential to ensure timely processing but does not directly impact the collection of the specimen itself.
A client with chronic kidney disease is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed to lower the client's potassium level?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Kayexalate is commonly used to lower potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine, leading to the elimination of excess potassium from the body. Choice A, Furosemide (Lasix), is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not directly lower potassium levels. Choice C, Calcium gluconate, is used to treat calcium deficiencies and does not impact potassium levels. Choice D, Albuterol (Proventil), is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions and does not affect potassium levels. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should anticipate the prescription of Kayexalate to address the client's hyperkalemia.
Which of the following manifestations confirms the presence of pediculosis capitis in students?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Whitish oval specks sticking to the hair shaft are nits, which are a definitive sign of pediculosis capitis (head lice). A: Scratching the head more than usual is a common symptom but not confirmatory of head lice infestation. B: Flakes evident on a student's shoulders may indicate dandruff or dry scalp, not necessarily head lice. C: Oval pattern occipital hair loss is not a typical manifestation of pediculosis capitis.
The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy who is unable to clear secretions by coughing. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Suctioning the tracheostomy tube as needed is the most appropriate action in this scenario. When a client with a tracheostomy is unable to clear secretions by coughing, suctioning helps remove the excess secretions from the airway, ensuring proper breathing. Encouraging deep breaths (Choice A) may not effectively address the immediate need to clear secretions. Providing humidified oxygen (Choice B) can help with oxygenation but does not directly address the issue of clearing secretions. Changing the tracheostomy dressing daily (Choice D) is important for maintaining cleanliness but is not the priority when the client is unable to clear secretions.
A nurse is reviewing nutritional guidelines with the parents of a 2-year-old toddler. Which of the following parent statements should indicate to the nurse an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Offering a variety of foods in small portions is appropriate for a 2-year-old toddler as it helps provide balanced nutrition and allows the child to explore different tastes and textures. Choice A is incorrect because whole milk is recommended up to 2 years old, not until 3 years old. Choice B is incorrect as excessive juice intake can lead to excessive sugar consumption and is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect as popcorn may pose a choking hazard for toddlers and is not a suitable alternative to sweets.
A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's medications. They include cimetidine and imipramine. Knowing that cimetidine decreases the metabolism of imipramine, the healthcare professional should identify that this combination is likely to result in which of the following effects?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When cimetidine decreases the metabolism of imipramine, it leads to an increased concentration of imipramine in the body, which can result in imipramine toxicity. This increased risk of toxicity is the likely effect of this drug interaction. Choice A is incorrect because cimetidine's effect on imipramine metabolism does not impact the therapeutic effects of cimetidine. Choice C is incorrect because the interaction does not decrease the risk of adverse effects of cimetidine. Choice D is incorrect as the increased concentration of imipramine can lead to toxicity, not increased therapeutic effects.
A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about the care of a client who has MRSA. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'I will place the client in a private room.' Placing the client in a private room helps prevent the spread of MRSA, a contact precaution. Choice B is incorrect because visitors should be following standard precautions for MRSA, not just wearing a mask within a specific distance. Choice C is incorrect as the gown should be removed before exiting the client's room to prevent the spread of MRSA. Choice D is incorrect as an N95 respirator mask is not typically required for the care of a client with MRSA; standard precautions are usually sufficient.
A nurse is preparing to administer methylprednisolone 10 mg by IV bolus. The amount available is methylprednisolone injection 40-mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the mL to administer, use the formula: Dose required (mg) ÷ Stock concentration (mg/mL) = Volume to administer (mL). In this case, 10 mg ÷ 40 mg/mL = 0.25 mL. However, when rounding to the nearest tenth, the answer should be 0.3 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.3 mL. Choice A is the correct answer. Choice B (0.25 mL) is the result obtained before rounding. Choice C (0.4 mL) and Choice D (0.5 mL) are incorrect calculations.
A client is being admitted to a same-day surgery center for an exploratory laparotomy procedure. The surgeon asks the nurse to witness the signing of the preoperative consent form. In signing the form as a witness, the nurse affirms that:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because as a witness, the nurse's primary responsibility is to confirm that the signature on the preoperative consent form belongs to the client. The nurse is not confirming the client's understanding of the procedure (Choice A), but rather the authenticity of the signature. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse is not responsible for verifying that the procedure has been explained, but rather confirming the client's signature. Similarly, Choice D is incorrect because the nurse's role as a witness is not to ensure the client is aware of potential complications, but to verify the signature.
A client is being taught how to self-administer daily low-dose heparin injections. Which of the following factors is most likely to increase the client's motivation to learn?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client's belief that his needs will be met through education is the most likely factor to increase motivation to learn. When individuals perceive that their educational efforts will directly benefit them, they are more motivated to engage in the learning process. Empathy from the nurse, seeking family approval, or the nurse explaining the need for education may not be as directly tied to the client's personal benefit and may not necessarily increase motivation to learn.
A healthcare provider in an office is preparing to auscultate and percuss a client's thorax as part of a comprehensive physical examination. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a thoracic examination, normal findings should include resonance, which is the expected sound when percussing the thorax. Resonance indicates healthy lung tissue and air-filled spaces. Abnormal findings such as rhonchi and crackles suggest issues like lung congestion or inflammation. Tactile fremitus refers to vibrations felt on the chest wall during palpation and is not typically assessed during percussion and auscultation of the thorax.
Which assessment data reflects the need for nurses to include the problem, "Risk for falls," in a client's plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. The recent administration of opioid analgesics increases the risk for falls due to potential side effects such as sedation and dizziness. Choice A, a recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL, is not directly related to the risk for falls. Choice C, stooped posture with an unsteady gait, may indicate an existing risk but does not directly reflect the need to include 'Risk for falls' in the care plan. Choice D, expressed feelings of depression, is important to address but is not directly associated with the risk for falls.
Nurse talking with a client's partner. She is having frustrations about managing responsibilities and care. What type of role performance stress is this?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Role overload occurs when a person feels overwhelmed by the demands placed upon them.
A nurse in an outpatient surgical center is admitting a client for a laparoscopic procedure. The client has a prescription for preoperative diazepam. Prior to administering the medication, which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Identifying the client's medication allergies. This is the priority action before administering any medication to prevent allergic reactions or adverse effects. Teaching the client about the medication's purpose is important for client understanding but not as critical as ensuring the absence of allergies. While giving medication at the prescribed time is crucial, verifying allergies takes precedence to ensure patient safety. Documenting the client's anxiety level is relevant for holistic care but is not the priority compared to ensuring safe medication administration.
During a follow-up visit, a home health nurse notices that a client with a gastrostomy tube, who receives intermittent feedings and medications, has developed diarrhea. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a possible cause of the diarrhea?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Washing out the feeding bag once every 24 hours with warm water can lead to bacterial growth due to inadequate cleaning, potentially causing diarrhea. Hot water, as in choice B, can also promote bacterial growth, which is not desirable. Changing the feeding bag every 48 hours, like in choice C, is within an acceptable timeframe and is unlikely to be a cause of diarrhea. Adding water to the formula before administration, as in choice D, is a common practice to dilute the formula but is not typically associated with causing diarrhea in this scenario.
A client who is confused and pulling at the tubing of her IV is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take before requesting a prescription for restraints from the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Providing the client with washcloths to fold is a non-restrictive intervention that can help distract and engage the client, potentially reducing the need for restraints. This action promotes a therapeutic and calming environment for the confused client. Placing the client in a room away from the nurses' station (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of confusion and agitation. Limiting the client's visitors (Choice B) may not directly assist in managing the client's behavior. Closing the door of the client's room (Choice D) does not actively engage the client in a therapeutic intervention to address the behavior.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a prescription for knee-length anti-embolic stockings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take is to remove the client's stockings at least once during each shift. This is important to inspect the skin and prevent complications such as pressure injuries or impaired circulation. Rolling the top of the stockings down can compromise their effectiveness in preventing blood clots. Seating the client in a chair prior to applying stockings is not directly related to the care of anti-embolic stockings. Measuring the length of the client's leg from the heel to the gluteal fold is not necessary for the application or care of knee-length anti-embolic stockings.
A healthcare professional is preparing to insert an NG tube for a client admitted with bowel obstruction. Which of the following should the healthcare professional do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Explaining the procedure to the client is the initial and most important step that the healthcare professional should take before inserting an NG tube. By explaining the procedure, the healthcare professional ensures the client's understanding, obtains informed consent, and fosters cooperation. Measuring the length of the NG tube, lubricating the tube, and positioning the client in a high Fowler's position are essential steps in the NG tube insertion process but should come after the client has been informed and consented to the procedure.
A client newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus is resistant to learning self-injection of insulin and asks the nurse to administer all the injections. The nurse explains the importance of learning self-care and appropriately adds which of the following statement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice B is the correct answer because it addresses the client's fear and offers support to help them overcome the resistance to self-care. By expressing willingness to assist and asking for ways to help the client, the nurse encourages open communication and collaboration in finding solutions to the client's concerns. Choices A, C, and D, while valid statements, do not directly address the client's fear or resistance, which is crucial in promoting self-care adherence in this situation.
A patient's neighbor is scheduled for elective surgery. The neighbor's provider indicated that a moderate amount of blood loss is expected during the surgery, and the neighbor is anxious about acquiring an infection from a blood transfusion. Which of the following is appropriate for the nurse to suggest?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Donating autologous blood before surgery is an appropriate suggestion by the nurse. This process involves the patient donating their own blood before the surgery, which reduces the risk of infection from transfusions as the patient is receiving their own blood. Choice A is incorrect as avoiding the blood transfusion may not be feasible or safe in the context of expected blood loss during surgery. Choice C is not a common practice and may carry its own risks. Choice D is not directly related to reducing the risk of infection from a blood transfusion.
A nurse is caring for a client who has terminal lung cancer. The nurse observes the client's family assisting with all ADLs. Which of the following rationales for self-care should the nurse communicate to the family?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. In situations like terminal illness, allowing clients to perform activities of daily living (ADLs) can help maintain their sense of control and dignity, providing comfort and a sense of normalcy amidst their health challenges. Choice A is incorrect because in a terminal stage, the focus is not on muscle strength or promoting physical healing but rather on enhancing the client's emotional well-being. Choice B, while highlighting the importance of privacy, is not directly addressing the client's need for control and autonomy. Choice D is incorrect as the priority in this scenario is not related to discharge requirements but rather the client's emotional and psychological needs during their terminal illness.
A client with prostate cancer declines to discuss concerns after the provider discusses treatment options. What statement should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Offering to talk later if the client changes their mind respects their current choice and keeps the dialogue open. Choice B is not the best response as it may pressure the client to share concerns. Choice C is incorrect as it imposes a decision on the client. Choice D does not acknowledge the client's feelings in the moment and postpones addressing concerns.
A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a prescription for morphine 5mg IM but accidentally administers the entire 10mg from the single-dose vial. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing the client's respiratory rate is the priority in this situation as overdosing on morphine can lead to respiratory depression, making it crucial to monitor the client's breathing. Completing an incident report (choice A) is important but should not be the first action. Reporting the incident to the pharmacy (choice C) and notifying the client's provider (choice D) are necessary steps but assessing the client's respiratory status takes precedence to ensure immediate safety and intervention.
A client postoperative expresses pain during dressing changes. What should the nurse prioritize?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering pain medication before changing the dressing is the priority action as it will help alleviate the client's pain and improve comfort. Choice B, changing the dressing less frequently, may hinder proper wound care and healing. Applying a topical anesthetic (choice C) might offer some relief but systemic pain medication is more effective. Using a non-adherent dressing (choice D) can reduce pain during dressing changes, but addressing immediate pain with medication is the most appropriate intervention in this case.
The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The LPN/LVN plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), the formula is Total volume (mL) ÷ Time (min) ÷ Drop factor (gtt/mL). In this case, 1000 mL ÷ 240 min ÷ 20 gtt/mL = 83 gtt/min. Therefore, setting the flow rate to 83 gtt/min ensures the correct administration of the IV fluids and medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided information.
During preoperative education, a nurse should assess a client's readiness to learn before a mastectomy. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to learn?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Asking about the duration of the surgery indicates readiness to learn about the procedure. This question shows that the client is actively seeking information about the surgical process, demonstrating readiness to learn. Choices A, B, and D reflect concerns, specific requests, or statements unrelated to the learning process. They do not directly indicate readiness to absorb information about the upcoming mastectomy.
A client is immobile due to a cast, and a nurse is assisting in the use of a fracture bedpan. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action when using a fracture bedpan for an immobile client is to place the shallow end of the pan under the client's buttocks. This positioning helps in proper collection of feces without causing discomfort or injury. Encouraging the client to try to defecate for 20 minutes (Choice B) is inappropriate and unrealistic, as defecation should not be forced or timed. Keeping the bed flat (Choice C) is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed can help promote proper positioning for bedpan use. Hyperextending the client's back (Choice D) is contraindicated and can lead to discomfort and potential injury to the client.
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