HESI LPN
HESI CAT
1. The client is assessing a client who was recently diagnosed with heart failure and is on a low-sodium diet. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. “I will use lemon juice and herbs for flavoring.”
- B. “I will not eat canned soups or frozen dinners.”
- C. “I can have salt substitutes to enhance the taste of my food.”
- D. “I will check the food labels for sodium content before buying.”
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Some salt substitutes can be high in potassium, which may not be suitable for clients with heart failure. Option A is correct as using lemon juice and herbs for flavoring is a good low-sodium alternative. Option B is also correct as canned soups and frozen dinners are typically high in sodium content. Option D is correct as checking food labels for sodium content is an essential part of managing a low-sodium diet. Therefore, the client's statement about using salt substitutes needs correction as it can introduce high levels of potassium, which may not be recommended for individuals with heart failure.
2. A female client reports she has not had a bowel movement for 3 days, but now is defecating frequent small amounts of liquid stool. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Digitally check the client for a fecal impaction
- B. Increase fluid intake to promote bowel regularity
- C. Provide a high-fiber diet to facilitate bowel movements
- D. Administer a stool softener
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Digitally check the client for a fecal impaction. Small, frequent liquid stools following constipation may indicate a fecal impaction. This intervention is crucial to assess and address a potential impaction promptly. Choices B, increasing fluid intake, and C, providing a high-fiber diet, may help with bowel regularity in general cases, but they don't directly address the urgent concern of a possible impaction. Choice D, administering a stool softener, is not appropriate as the first action when a fecal impaction is suspected; it could worsen the condition by causing further liquid stool output without addressing the impaction.
3. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned, and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
- B. Turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion
- C. Notify the anesthesiologist that the epidural infusion needs to be disconnected
- D. Apply an internal fetal monitoring device and continue to monitor carefully
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario described, the nurse notes late decelerations during contractions despite repositioning and oxygen administration. Late decelerations are often associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, which can be exacerbated by increased uterine activity stimulated by oxytocin. The initial action to manage late decelerations is to turn off the oxytocin infusion to reduce uterine stimulation. This step aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth may be necessary if the late decelerations persist or worsen despite discontinuing the oxytocin infusion. Notifying the anesthesiologist to disconnect the epidural infusion or applying an internal fetal monitoring device are not the first-line interventions for managing late decelerations.
4. Four clients arrive on the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. A 38-week primigravida who reports contractions occurring every 10 minutes
- B. A 39-week primigravida with a biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8
- C. A 41-week multigravida who is scheduled for induction of labor today
- D. A 36-week multigravida with a prescription for serial blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8 indicates potential fetal distress, necessitating immediate assessment to ensure the well-being of the fetus. The other options, while important, do not suggest an immediate threat to the fetus' health. The 38-week primigravida with contractions every 10 minutes may be in early labor, the 41-week multigravida scheduled for induction can be assessed after addressing the immediate concern, and the 36-week multigravida with serial blood pressure can be assessed after ensuring the client with potential fetal distress is stabilized.
5. After the diagnosis and initial treatment of a 3-year-old with Cystic fibrosis, the nurse provides home care instructions to the mother. Which statement by the child's mother indicates that she understands home care treatment to promote pulmonary functions?
- A. Chest physiotherapy should be performed twice a day before a meal
- B. Energy should be conserved by scheduling minimally strenuous activities
- C. Administer a cough suppressant every 8 hours
- D. Maintain supplemental oxygen at 4 to 6 L/minute
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chest physiotherapy is essential for maintaining pulmonary function in cystic fibrosis. It should be performed regularly, often twice daily, to clear mucus from the lungs. Choice B is incorrect because conserving energy does not directly promote pulmonary function. Choice C is incorrect as cough suppressants are not typically used to promote pulmonary function in cystic fibrosis. Choice D is incorrect as maintaining supplemental oxygen at 4 to 6 L/minute is not a standard home care treatment for promoting pulmonary functions in cystic fibrosis.
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