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1. A 14-year-old male client with a spinal cord injury (SCI) at T-10 is admitted for rehabilitation. During the morning assessment, the nurse determines that the adolescent's face is flushed, his forehead is sweating, his heart rate is 54 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 198/118. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Determine if the urinary bladder is distended
- B. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter
- C. Review the temperature graph for the last day
- D. Administer an antihypertensive agent
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a potentially life-threatening emergency that can be triggered by a distended bladder in clients with spinal cord injuries at T-6 or above. The priority action is to determine if the urinary bladder is distended as this could be the cause of the symptoms observed in the adolescent. Flushing, sweating, bradycardia, and severe hypertension are classic signs of autonomic dysreflexia. Irrigating the urinary catheter, reviewing temperature graphs, or administering an antihypertensive agent are not the initial actions to take when suspecting autonomic dysreflexia.
2. A client is admitted for an exacerbation of heart failure (HF) and is being treated with diuretics for fluid volume excess. In planning nursing care, which interventions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply)
- A. Encourage oral fluid intake of 3,000 ml/day
- B. Observe for evidence of hypokalemia
- C. Teach the client how to restrict dietary sodium
- D. Monitor PTT, PT, and INR lab values
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct interventions to include when a client with heart failure is being treated with diuretics for fluid volume excess are to observe for evidence of hypokalemia. Diuretics can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring for this electrolyte imbalance is crucial. Encouraging oral fluid intake of 3,000 ml/day may exacerbate fluid volume excess in a client with heart failure. Teaching the client how to restrict dietary sodium is important in managing heart failure, but it is not directly related to the use of diuretics for fluid volume excess. Monitoring PTT, PT, and INR lab values is not typically associated with diuretic therapy for heart failure but rather with anticoagulant therapy.
3. An adult male was diagnosed with stage IV lung cancer three weeks ago. His wife approaches the nurse and asks how she will know that her husband's death is imminent because their two adult children want to be there when he dies. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Explain that the client will start to lose consciousness and his body systems will slow down
- B. Reassure the spouse that the healthcare provider will let her know when to call the children
- C. Offer to discuss the client’s health status with each of the adult children
- D. Gather information on how long it will take for the children to arrive
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to explain that the client will start to lose consciousness and his body systems will slow down. Providing information on the signs of impending death helps the family prepare emotionally and allows them to be present at the appropriate time. Choice B is incorrect because it does not empower the family with the knowledge they seek. Choice C is incorrect as discussing the client’s health status individually with the adult children may not address the wife's immediate concern. Choice D is incorrect as the priority should be on preparing the family for the signs of imminent death rather than focusing on logistical details.
4. A client with a severe prostatic infection that caused a blocked urethra is 3 days post-surgical urinary diversion. The healthcare provider directs the nurse to remove the suprapubic catheter to allow the client to void normally. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Cleanse the site around the catheter
- B. Use a 20 ml syringe to deflate balloon
- C. Clamp catheter until the client voids naturally
- D. Empty urine from the urinary drainage bag
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to use a 20 ml syringe to deflate the balloon first when removing a suprapubic catheter. This step is essential to ensure the safe removal of the catheter without causing any harm or discomfort to the client. Deflating the balloon allows for the catheter to be easily removed. Option A, cleansing the site around the catheter, is not the initial step in this process and can be done after catheter removal. Option C, clamping the catheter until the client voids naturally, is incorrect as it can lead to complications like urinary retention. Option D, emptying urine from the urinary drainage bag, is not the first step in removing the suprapubic catheter and does not address the need to deflate the balloon for safe removal.
5. A male client approaches the nurse with an angry expression on his face and raises his voice, saying, “My roommate is the most selfish, self-centered, angry person I have ever met. If he loses his temper one more time with me, I am going to punch him out.” The nurse recognizes that the client is using which defense mechanism?
- A. Denial
- B. Splitting
- C. Projection
- D. Rationalization
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client is projecting his feelings of anger and frustration onto his roommate, attributing his own feelings to the other person. Projection is a defense mechanism where individuals attribute their thoughts, feelings, or motives onto another person. In this scenario, the client is displacing his anger onto his roommate, thereby using projection as a defense mechanism. Denial (choice A) is refusing to acknowledge an aspect of reality. Splitting (choice B) involves viewing people as all good or all bad. Rationalization (choice D) is creating logical explanations to justify unacceptable behavior.
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