HESI LPN
Leadership and Management HESI Quizlet
1. During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?
- A. Stage I
- B. Stage II
- C. Stage III
- D. Stage VI
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.
2. Which nonpharmacological technique involves the use of electronic monitoring equipment while the patient controls basic bodily mechanisms?
- A. Meditation
- B. Visualization
- C. Biofeedback
- D. Chiropractic
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Biofeedback. Biofeedback is a nonpharmacological technique that uses electronic monitoring equipment to provide real-time data on physiological processes such as heart rate, muscle tension, and skin temperature. Through this feedback, patients learn to control and regulate these bodily functions voluntarily. Choice A, Meditation, involves focusing the mind and reducing stress through techniques like mindfulness or deep breathing, but it does not specifically rely on electronic monitoring equipment. Choice B, Visualization, is a technique where individuals imagine peaceful scenes to promote relaxation and reduce anxiety, and it also does not involve electronic monitoring. Choice D, Chiropractic, is a healthcare profession that focuses on the diagnosis and treatment of musculoskeletal disorders through manual adjustments and manipulation, which is unrelated to the use of electronic monitoring equipment for controlling bodily functions.
3. A client diagnosed with type 1 diabetes receives insulin. He asks the nurse why he can't just take pills instead. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Insulin must be injected because it needs to work quickly.
- B. Insulin can't be in a pill because it is destroyed in stomach acid.
- C. Have you talked to your doctor about taking pills instead?
- D. I know it is tough, but you will get used to the shots soon.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because insulin cannot be taken orally as it gets destroyed by stomach acid. Choice A is incorrect as the speed of action is not the reason why insulin can't be in pill form. Choice C is incorrect as it doesn't address the nature of insulin. Choice D is incorrect as it doesn't provide a factual reason why insulin can't be in pill form.
4. Which technique or method is used to determine whether or not the patient has an irregular pulse?
- A. Apical pulse
- B. Inspection
- C. Auscultation
- D. Percussion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An apical pulse check is used to determine if the patient has an irregular pulse. The apical pulse is located at the point of maximal impulse (PMI) and is assessed using a stethoscope. Choice B, inspection, involves visual examination and is not used to assess pulse irregularities. Choice C, auscultation, involves listening to internal sounds using a stethoscope, which can be used to assess heart sounds but not specifically for pulse irregularities. Choice D, percussion, is a technique used to assess the density of body tissues or detect abnormal masses and is not used to determine pulse irregularities.
5. A nurse working in the emergency department is assessing several clients. Which of the following clients is the highest priority?
- A. A client who reports right-sided flank pain and is diaphoretic
- B. A client who has active bleeding from a puncture wound of the left groin area
- C. A client who has a raised red skin rash on his arms, neck, and face
- D. A client who reports shortness of breath and left neck and shoulder pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because shortness of breath with referred pain may indicate a serious condition, such as a cardiac event or pulmonary embolism, making this the highest priority. Option A, flank pain with diaphoresis, could suggest kidney-related issues but is not as immediately life-threatening as compromised breathing. Option B, active bleeding, though serious, can usually be controlled with proper interventions. Option C, a raised red skin rash, may indicate an allergic reaction but is not as urgent as respiratory distress with neck and shoulder pain.
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