leadership and management hesi quizlet Leadership and Management HESI Quizlet - Nursing Elites
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Leadership and Management HESI Quizlet

1. A nurse in a long-term care facility is caring for a client who reports the AP repositioned him in bed using excessive force. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to contact the nurse manager. By doing so, the nurse can escalate the issue appropriately, ensuring that the incident is addressed and necessary actions are taken. Documenting in the client's chart that an incident report has been filed (Choice A) may be necessary but should not be the first step. Reassuring the client that the staff is well trained (Choice C) does not address the client's concern and the need for intervention. Calling risk management to interview the client (Choice D) may be premature at this stage and should be handled by the nurse manager first.

2. Multifetal pregnancies with triplets occur at a rate of 1 in 8,100 births, but twins occur much more frequently with a rate of:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 1 in 85 births. The rate of twin pregnancies is approximately 1 in 85 births. This means that twins are more common compared to triplets, which occur at a rate of 1 in 8,100 births. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct frequency of twin pregnancies as stated in the question.

3. Your patient has a blood potassium level of 9.2 mEq/L. What intervention should you anticipate for this patient?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Kidney dialysis. A blood potassium level of 9.2 mEq/L indicates severe hyperkalemia, which can be life-threatening. Kidney dialysis is the most appropriate intervention to rapidly lower potassium levels in this situation. Choice A, intravenous potassium supplementation, would worsen the hyperkalemia. Choice B, intravenous calcium supplementation, is not the primary intervention for hyperkalemia. Choice D, parenteral nutrition, is unrelated to treating hyperkalemia and would not address the immediate concern.

4. During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.

5. Which statement about appendicitis is accurate and true?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: McBurney's point tenderness is suggestive of appendicitis. McBurney's point is located in the right lower abdomen and tenderness at this point is a classic sign of appendicitis. Choice A is incorrect as appendicitis is slightly more common in males than females. Choice B is incorrect as a high fiber diet is actually considered to be protective against appendicitis. Choice C is incorrect as appendicitis typically presents with pain in the right lower quadrant, not the left.

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ATI TEAS 7 Exam Overview

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