Free HESI LPN Community Health Nursing practice for Community Health HESI Study Guide (HESI LPN). Answer 57 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam m
The Healthy People initiative is a national agenda that aims to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Healthy People initiative is a national agenda that focuses on reducing health disparities and improving the health of all Americans. Choice A is incorrect because the initiative is more about improving health outcomes and access rather than providing healthcare to all citizens. Choice C is not the main goal of the initiative, which is more about public health goals than medical research. Choice D is also not the primary aim of the Healthy People initiative, as it is more focused on setting objectives to improve public health.
The Food Fortification Act of 2000 provides for the mandatory fortification of staple foods, which includes:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Flour with iron. The Food Fortification Act of 2000 mandates the fortification of flour with iron to address iron deficiency in the population. Refined sugar is not typically fortified with iron, making choice B incorrect. While cooking oil fortification with vitamin A is common in some regions, it is not specified under the Food Fortification Act of 2000, rendering choice C incorrect. Similarly, rice fortification with vitamin A is not included in the mandatory fortification list according to the act, making choice D incorrect.
The school RN is assessing a group of middle school students for signs of scoliosis and discovers a female student with noticeable unequal symmetry of the upper and lower back. Which intervention is most important for the RN to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Referring the student for further evaluation of scoliosis is crucial to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate management plan. Sending the student home (choice A) without proper assessment and intervention is not the best course of action. Withdrawing the student from all physical activities (choice C) is not necessary and may cause unnecessary distress. Instructing the student not to carry her backpack on her back (choice D) does not address the underlying issue of scoliosis and is not the most important intervention at this point.
A 67-year-old client is admitted with substernal chest pain with radiation to the jaw. His admitting diagnosis is Acute Myocardial Infarction (MI). The priority nursing diagnosis for this client during the immediate 24 hours is
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Impaired gas exchange. In a client with an acute myocardial infarction, impaired gas exchange is a priority nursing diagnosis due to compromised heart function, which affects oxygenated blood circulation. Close monitoring and interventions are crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A) Constipation related to immobility is not the priority in this acute situation; B) High risk for infection is not the immediate concern related to the client's primary diagnosis; D) Fluid volume deficit, while important, is not the priority compared to addressing impaired gas exchange in acute MI.
The nurse-manager is planning to transform safety ideas into prevention and protection strategies in the workplace. What committee should review and plan policies and education about safety in the workplace?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The quality assurance committee is responsible for reviewing and planning policies and education related to workplace safety. This committee focuses on ensuring the quality of care and services provided, which includes implementing safety measures. The policy and procedures committee primarily deals with developing and maintaining organizational policies and procedures. The education committee focuses on educational programs and initiatives, not specifically on safety policies. The ethics committee is concerned with ethical issues and dilemmas, not safety policies and education.
During the beginning shift assessment of a client with asthma who is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute, the nurse would be most concerned about which unreported finding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Rapid, shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes are concerning as they indicate a potential worsening of the client's asthma. This finding suggests airway narrowing, which can lead to respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is required to address this respiratory distress. A pulse oximetry reading of 89% is low and indicates hypoxemia, but the respiratory pattern described in option C takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status. Crackles at the base of the lungs suggest fluid accumulation, which is important but not as immediately critical as the respiratory distress in asthma. Excessive thirst and a dry cracked tongue may indicate dehydration, which is relevant but not as urgent as the respiratory compromise presented in option C.
As a community health nurse covering a cluster of Barangays, your population coverage includes the following:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Families in their homes, School population, Workers in factories.' As a community health nurse, you are responsible for providing healthcare services and promoting health within the community. This includes visiting families in their homes to assess their health needs, working with the school population to educate them on preventive health measures, and ensuring the health and safety of workers in factories. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not encompass the full scope of a community health nurse's responsibilities. Choice B does not include workers in factories, Choice C excludes an important population group, and Choice D excludes an essential setting where healthcare services are provided.
A child is diagnosed with poison ivy. The mother tells the nurse that she does not know how her child contracted the rash since he had not been playing in wooded areas. As the nurse asks questions about possible contact, which of the following would the nurse recognize as highest risk for exposure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Poison ivy can be contracted through smoke from burning plants, which can carry the urushiol oil that causes the rash. Playing near burning leaves would be the highest risk for exposure in this scenario. Choices A, B, and D do not involve direct contact with burning plants or leaves, making them lower-risk activities for exposure to poison ivy.
Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.
What title should be given to this occupational health nurse job description?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct title for this occupational health nurse job description is 'nurse consultant.' A nurse consultant is a registered professional nurse with expertise in occupational and environmental health nursing, effective communication skills, and good administrative and consultative abilities. Choice A, 'manager,' is incorrect as the job description does not primarily focus on managerial duties. Choice B, 'case manager,' is incorrect as it does not fully cover the scope of the described role. Choice C, 'health educator,' is incorrect as it does not encompass the administrative and consultative skills mentioned in the job description.
Which one of the following statements, if made by the client, indicates teaching about Inderal (propranolol) has been effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Stopping Inderal (propranolol) abruptly can cause rebound hypertension, angina, and even a myocardial infarction (heart attack), so it is crucial to taper off the medication under medical supervision. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the serious consequences associated with abrupt discontinuation of propranolol.
This refers to trained community health workers or health auxiliary volunteers:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, 'All of the above.' Both village health workers and barangay health workers are trained community health workers or health auxiliary volunteers. Choice A, 'Village health workers,' is correct as they are trained community health workers. Choice B, 'Barangay health workers,' is also correct as they also refer to trained community health workers. Therefore, since both options A and B are accurate, the correct answer is C, 'All of the above.' Choice D, 'None of the above,' is incorrect as both village health workers and barangay health workers fit the description provided in the question.
The nurse is conducting a process evaluation of a prevention education program for older adults who are at risk for substance abuse. Which data source provides the information the nurse needs to conduct this process evaluation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct! Documentation of client education in the nursing record is the most appropriate data source for conducting a process evaluation of a prevention education program. This documentation provides insight into the educational process, its implementation, and the quality of education delivered. Choices A and B focus on assessing the clients directly for substance abuse, which is different from evaluating the educational process. Choice C, the most recent community census data, is not directly related to evaluating the specific prevention education program for older adults at risk for substance abuse.
A person with no known illness whose daily routine consists of walking and following a healthy diet would be best characterized as engaging in which kind of activities?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: health promotion. Health promotion activities involve maintaining a healthy lifestyle to prevent illness. In this scenario, the person is actively engaging in behaviors that promote their overall health and well-being, such as walking and following a healthy diet. Choice A, 'health balance,' is vague and does not specifically address the proactive nature of the person's actions. Choice B, 'disease prevention,' while related, focuses more on specific actions taken to prevent diseases rather than the broader concept of promoting overall health. Choice D, 'self-fulfillment,' does not directly relate to the activities described in the question.
You are teaching a client about the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) planned for post-operative care. Which statement indicates further teaching may be needed by the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
PCA allows patients to self-administer pain medication within prescribed limits, without the need to call the nurse before taking an additional dose. Choice B suggests a misunderstanding of how PCA works, as the patient should be educated that they can self-administer doses within the safety parameters set by the healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D demonstrate proper understanding of PCA, hence are not indicative of needing further teaching.
The nurse administers a booster dose of DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis) vaccine to an infant. Which level of prevention is the nurse implementing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Administering a booster dose of DTaP vaccine to an infant is an example of primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Tertiary prevention focuses on reducing the impact of a disease or injury that has already occurred, while secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice B, tertiary prevention, is incorrect as it deals with managing the consequences of a disease rather than preventing it. Choice C, secondary prevention, is also incorrect as it focuses on early detection and treatment rather than vaccination to prevent the disease. Choice D, primary nursing, is unrelated to the level of prevention being implemented in this scenario.
The healthcare provider is screening children at a local community health clinic for infectious diseases. Which child is at the highest risk for hepatitis B virus?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Newborns are at the highest risk for hepatitis B virus due to potential transmission from the mother. The hepatitis B virus can be transmitted from an infected mother to her baby during childbirth. Children born to mothers infected with hepatitis B are at the highest risk of acquiring the infection. Choices B, C, and D are at lower risk compared to a newborn as they are less likely to have been exposed to the virus during childbirth.
A community health RN believes that immunization rates in a lower socioeconomic section of the city are probably below the target set by the state health department. What action should the RN take FIRST to intervene with this health problem?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct first action for the community health RN to take in this situation is to review current epidemiological population data that might document a low immunization rate. By doing so, the RN can gather evidence to support further intervention strategies. Option A is incorrect because taking a health history would not provide immediate data on immunization rates in the community. Option B is incorrect as initiating an immunization program without confirming the actual immunization rates may not address the specific needs of the community. Option D is incorrect as a blanket referral without assessing the situation may not be the most effective first step.
Community health nurses help influence the health of communities through which of the following actions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Community health nurses play a crucial role in influencing the health of communities by engaging in health promotion activities and influencing health behaviors. Choice A is incorrect as community health nurses do not legislate health behavior but rather educate and promote healthy behaviors. Choice B is incorrect as while community health nurses may record health data, their main focus is on proactive health promotion and intervention, not just documenting health status. Choice D is incorrect because community health nurses actively work to influence health status and behaviors.
The client with acute hypocalcemia is admitted to the unit. Nursing action should include:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for a client with acute hypocalcemia is to implement seizure precautions. Hypocalcemia can lead to tetany and seizures due to neuromuscular irritability. Assessing for hypoglycemia (choice B) is not directly related to hypocalcemia. Monitoring for visual changes (choice C) is more indicative of conditions like hyperglycemia or retinal disorders. Observing for muscle weakness (choice D) is a common symptom of hypocalcemia but does not address the immediate risk of seizures, which is why implementing seizure precautions is the priority nursing action.
Tertiary prevention would best be described as:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Tertiary prevention is the stage of prevention that aims at preventing disability and maximizing the use of remaining capacity. Choice A is more aligned with rehabilitation rather than tertiary prevention. Choice B refers to primary prevention by promoting health and preventing diseases. Choice C focuses on rehabilitation specific to alcohol and drug dependence, which is a form of secondary prevention, not tertiary prevention.
A client was re-admitted to the hospital following a recent skull fracture. Which finding requires the nurse's immediate attention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Lethargy is a critical finding that requires the nurse's immediate attention when a client with a recent skull fracture is readmitted to the hospital. It can indicate increased intracranial pressure or other serious complications such as hemorrhage or infection. Addressing lethargy promptly is crucial to prevent further deterioration. Agitation, ataxia, and hearing loss are important to assess but do not signify the same level of urgency as lethargy in this context.
When assessing a newborn infant with low set ears, short palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge, and an indistinct philtrum, a priority maternal assessment by the nurse should be to ask about
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Alcohol use during pregnancy. The physical features mentioned are indicative of fetal alcohol syndrome, a condition caused by maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy. It is crucial for the nurse to inquire about alcohol use as it can help in diagnosing and managing the infant's condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with the physical findings described in the newborn, which specifically point towards a potential history of alcohol exposure during pregnancy.
The community health nurse is planning a series of educational courses about the healthcare system and meeting healthcare needs for the community center. Which adjunct issue should the nurse address for a group of older adults?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When planning educational courses for older adults, addressing adult daycare is crucial as it is a relevant issue that can impact their daily lives and access to healthcare services. Peer concerns may not be directly related to healthcare needs, retirement issues are important but not as immediate in terms of healthcare access, and vocational concerns are more pertinent to working-age individuals.
To prevent keratitis in an unconscious client, where should the nurse apply moisturizing ointment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Eyes. Applying moisturizing ointment to the eyes helps prevent keratitis, a condition that can occur due to inadequate blinking in unconscious clients, leading to corneal dryness and potential damage. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as moisturizing ointment should not be applied to finger and toenail quicks, perianal area, or external ear canals to prevent keratitis.
When providing nursing care to a client receiving oxygen therapy via a nasal cannula, which of the following interventions would be appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to inspect the nares and ears for skin breakdown. This is important because the nasal cannula can cause skin breakdown due to prolonged use and friction. Ensuring that the skin is intact helps prevent complications. Choice A is incorrect as oxygen therapy via a nasal cannula does not involve mist. Choice C is incorrect as lubricating the tips of the cannula is not a standard practice and may lead to complications. Choice D is incorrect because while cleanliness is important, maintaining sterile technique is not necessary for handling a nasal cannula in this context.
The nurse uses the DRG (Diagnosis Related Group) manual to
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The DRG manual is used to determine the reimbursement rate for medical diagnoses and treatments under the prospective payment system used by healthcare facilities. Choice A is incorrect because the DRG manual is not used to classify nursing diagnoses, but rather to group medical diagnoses for billing purposes. Choice B is incorrect as the DRG manual is not used to identify findings related to medical diagnoses, but rather to standardize payments for medical services. Choice D is incorrect as the DRG manual is not used to implement nursing care based on case management protocol, but rather to set reimbursement rates.
The nurse is assigned to a client with Parkinson's disease. Which findings would the nurse anticipate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Echolalia (repeating others' words) and a shuffling gait are common symptoms of Parkinson's disease. These symptoms result from the degeneration of the basal ganglia in the brain that controls movement and speech. Choice A is incorrect because non-intention tremors are not typically associated with Parkinson's disease. Choice C is incorrect as muscle spasm and a bent-over posture are not classic manifestations of Parkinson's disease. Choice D is incorrect since intention tremors and jerky movement of the elbows are not characteristic of Parkinson's disease.
When a nurse from the surgical department is reassigned to the pediatric unit, the charge nurse should recognize that the child at highest risk for cardiac arrest and is the least likely to be assigned to this nurse is which child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, 'Prolonged hypoxemia.' Prolonged hypoxemia is a critical condition that requires specialized pediatric care due to the high risk of cardiac arrest. The other choices, such as congenital cardiac defects, acute febrile illness, and severe multiple trauma, may also require attention, but prolonged hypoxemia poses the highest risk for cardiac arrest and demands specialized expertise in managing pediatric patients with this condition.
A community health action that focuses on reducing the frequency and severity of asthma in inner-city children by requiring a local incinerator to install particulate filters is an example of:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: upstream intervention. Upstream thinking addresses the root causes of health problems to create long-term solutions. In this scenario, requiring the incinerator to install particulate filters tackles the root cause of asthma triggers, which is pollution, rather than just managing the symptoms or risks associated with asthma. Choice A, downstream intervention, would focus more on treating asthma symptoms after they have already occurred rather than preventing them. Choice B, risk management, typically involves strategies to assess, control, or mitigate risks, which may not directly address the root cause. Choice C, primary prevention, usually refers to actions taken to prevent a disease or condition before it occurs, but in this case, the action is targeting the underlying cause rather than preventing asthma itself.
What does the acronym ICD stand for in medical terminology?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: International Classification of Diseases. The ICD is a system used worldwide to classify and code various health conditions and diseases. This system helps in standardizing the documentation and coding of diseases, which is essential for epidemiology, research, and healthcare management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the widely recognized meaning of the acronym ICD in medical terminology.
Which individual has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is the 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes. This individual has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia due to factors such as homelessness, alcoholism, and smoking, which weaken the immune system and make them more susceptible to respiratory infections. Choice A is incorrect as working with underprivileged children, while potentially exposing the individual to various illnesses, does not directly increase the risk of pneumonia. Choice B is less likely as exercise-induced wheezing may suggest asthma but does not directly correlate with pneumonia risk. Choice D, an aerobics instructor who eats only vegetables and skips meals, does not have the same level of risk factors for pneumonia as the homeless person in choice C.
The client with Parkinson's disease spends over 1 hour to dress for scheduled therapies. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate action for the nurse is to allow the client the time needed to dress. Patients with Parkinson's disease may experience difficulties with activities of daily living due to their condition. Allowing the client sufficient time to dress promotes independence and dignity, which are essential aspects of patient-centered care. Asking family members to dress the client may undermine the client's autonomy and self-esteem. Encouraging the client to dress more quickly may lead to frustration and feelings of inadequacy. Demonstrating methods on how to dress more quickly may not address the underlying challenges the client faces and could be perceived as insensitive or dismissive of the client's needs.
A client with acute pancreatitis is experiencing severe abdominal pain. The nurse should implement which of the following interventions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for a client with acute pancreatitis experiencing severe abdominal pain is to administer opioid analgesics. Opioids are effective in managing the severe pain associated with acute pancreatitis. Encouraging oral intake may exacerbate the symptoms and is contraindicated due to the need for bowel rest. Applying a heating pad to the abdomen can worsen inflammation and should be avoided. Placing the client in a supine position may not provide relief and could potentially lead to increased discomfort.
As a client who is terminally ill has been receiving high doses of an opioid analgesic for the past month and becomes unresponsive to verbal stimuli as death approaches, what orders would the nurse expect from the healthcare provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Continuing the same dosage of analgesic is appropriate to manage pain effectively as death nears and the client becomes unresponsive. The primary goal of palliative care in end-of-life situations is to ensure comfort, regardless of the client's level of consciousness. Decreasing the analgesic dosage or discontinuing it could lead to inadequate pain relief, which goes against the principles of palliative care. Prescribing a less potent drug may also compromise pain management in this critical stage. Therefore, maintaining the same analgesic dosage is the most appropriate action to provide comfort and alleviate suffering.
Which of the following is designed to help clients reduce the risk of illness and maintain the maximum level of function?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'D: health promotion.' Health promotion strategies are aimed at helping individuals reduce the risk of illness and maintain their maximum level of function by emphasizing preventive measures, healthy behaviors, and lifestyle choices. Illness prevention (choice A) focuses on specific actions to avoid illness but may not necessarily address overall function. Crisis intervention (choice B) refers to immediate assistance during emergencies rather than long-term prevention. Rehabilitation (choice C) involves restoring function after illness or injury rather than primarily focusing on preventive measures and maintaining maximum function.
Which of the following is a major focus of tertiary prevention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, 'Reducing the impact of an ongoing illness.' Tertiary prevention aims to minimize the effects of a disease or condition that is already established. Choices A, 'Preventing the onset of disease,' and B, 'Early detection and treatment,' are aspects of primary and secondary prevention, respectively. Choice D, 'Health education,' is more related to promoting awareness and knowledge rather than specifically focusing on reducing the impact of an ongoing illness.
A client with schizophrenia is receiving haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Extrapyramidal symptoms. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms such as tardive dyskinesia and akathisia. These side effects are common with the use of typical antipsychotics. Choice A, Tachycardia, is not a common side effect of haloperidol. Choice B, Hypotension, is also not a typical side effect associated with haloperidol use. Choice D, Hyperglycemia, is not directly linked to haloperidol administration, as it is more commonly associated with other medications like atypical antipsychotics or certain medical conditions.
To succeed in her health education program, the PHN needs to be adept in:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To excel in a health education program, a Public Health Nurse (PHN) must possess a combination of teaching-learning strategies to effectively impart knowledge, provide accurate information to ensure credibility, and communicate ideas effectively to engage and interact with the audience. Therefore, all of these skills are essential for a PHN to succeed in her health education program. Choices A, B, and C are integral components of a successful health education program, making option D the correct answer.
A client with bipolar disorder is receiving lithium (Lithobid). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. Lithium can lead to hyponatremia by affecting sodium balance in the body. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is unlikely with lithium use. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) and hypercalcemia (Choice D) are not typically associated with lithium therapy for bipolar disorder.
An example of secondary prevention strategy would be:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Screening for breast cancer is a secondary prevention strategy aimed at early detection, which falls under secondary prevention as it focuses on early identification and intervention before the disease progresses. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to palliative care for symptom management in terminal cancer patients, which is not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice C is incorrect as educating teenagers about condom use is a primary prevention strategy to prevent the initial occurrence of STDs rather than intervening after exposure, making it a primary, not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice D is incorrect as there is a valid example of a secondary prevention strategy provided in choice A.
Several employees who have a 10-year or longer history of smoking ask the occupational nurse for assistance with smoking cessation. The RN develops a 2-month program that includes weekly group sessions on lifestyle changes and use of OTC products. Which measurement provides the best indication of the program's effectiveness?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Surveying the employees about their smoking habits provides measurable data on program effectiveness. By collecting data directly from the employees through surveys, the occupational nurse can track changes in smoking habits, frequency, and quantity of cigarettes smoked. This direct feedback allows for a more accurate assessment of the program's impact on smoking cessation. Choices A and B rely on self-disclosure and may not provide reliable or objective data. Choice D does not directly measure changes in smoking habits but rather observes behavior in designated areas, which may not reflect overall smoking cessation progress.
During a visit to the community health clinic, a 45-year-old Native American female, who has a BMI of 35, complains of changes in her vision. Which condition is most important for the RN to be aware of in the client's family history?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Diabetes. Given the client's Native American ethnicity, high BMI, and vision changes, diabetes is the most crucial condition for the nurse to be aware of in the client's family history. Diabetes is strongly associated with vision problems, especially diabetic retinopathy. Glaucoma (choice B) is a condition that affects the optic nerve and can lead to vision loss but is not as directly linked to the client's BMI and ethnic background. Hypertension (choice C) can also impact vision, but in this case, diabetes takes precedence based on the client's profile. Brain tumor (choice D) is less likely to be related to the client's BMI, ethnicity, and vision changes compared to diabetes.
The increasing number of people who must learn to live with chronic illness in the community implies the need for the PHN to plan and implement a program on:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: health education. Health education is crucial for individuals dealing with chronic illnesses as it helps them learn how to manage their conditions effectively. Communicable disease control (choice A) focuses on preventing the spread of infectious diseases, which is not directly related to managing chronic conditions. Child survival (choice C) pertains to initiatives aimed at reducing child mortality rates, which is not directly related to addressing chronic illnesses. Environmental education (choice D) involves raising awareness about environmental issues, which is also not directly related to helping individuals live with chronic illnesses.
You assisted the midwife in formulating the objectives of the plan of care for Barangay Mabulaklak. Which of the following is a well-stated objective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A specific, measurable objective like reducing the number of underweight children by 10% is well-stated. This objective is clear, quantifiable, and time-bound, making it easier to track progress and evaluate the effectiveness of the plan. Choices A, B, and C are not as well-stated as they lack specificity, measurability, and a quantifiable target.
A client with a history of hypertension is receiving enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia as a side effect. ACE inhibitors can cause potassium retention by inhibiting aldosterone secretion, which may result in elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not typically associated with enalapril use. Hypercalcemia (choice C) is also not a common side effect of enalapril. Hypokalemia (choice D) is the opposite of what is expected with enalapril, as it tends to cause potassium retention.
The nurse is planning a nutrition class for a group of high school students emphasizing the goals for nutrition from Healthy People 2020. Which meal selection provides the best choices in meeting these goals?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because vegetable lasagna, lettuce salad, and a whole wheat roll with 2% milk align with the nutrition goals of Healthy People 2020. These choices provide a balanced meal with vegetables, whole grains, and dairy, promoting a healthier dietary pattern. Choices A, B, and D do not offer as comprehensive a selection of food groups or as healthy options as choice C, making them less aligned with the nutrition goals of Healthy People 2020.
A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Pyridostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Choice A, constipation, is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. Choice B, hypertension, is unlikely as pyridostigmine is more likely to cause hypotension. Choice C, muscle weakness, is actually a symptom of myasthenia gravis itself and not a side effect of pyridostigmine.
During an initial clinic visit, the nurse is taking the history for a client who wants to confirm her pregnancy. The client's last child has a history of low-birth-weight (LBW). Which additional finding is most important for the nurse to consider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Cigarette smoking. Cigarette smoking is a significant risk factor for low birth weight. Smoking during pregnancy reduces the amount of oxygen available to the baby, leading to LBW. Choice B, African American ethnicity, while it may be a risk factor, is not as directly linked to LBW as cigarette smoking. Choice C, poor nutritional status, can contribute to LBW but is not as significant as cigarette smoking in this case. Choice D, limited maternal education, is an important social determinant of health but is not as directly related to LBW as cigarette smoking.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding community health nursing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement is that evaluation of the health status of individuals and families should be done in consultation with them. This approach ensures that the assessment is accurate and takes into account the perspectives and concerns of the individuals and families involved. Choice B is incorrect because determining the needs of the community should involve input from various stakeholders, not solely the PHN. Choice C is incorrect as the provision of PHN care can be influenced by the policies of the agency or organization where the nurse works. Choice D is also incorrect as while the DOH may play a role in setting standards, the professional growth and development of a PHN is typically a personal and professional responsibility.
What is a key component of a successful smoking cessation program?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Providing nicotine replacement therapy is a key component of smoking cessation programs as it helps individuals manage nicotine withdrawal symptoms. Nicotine replacement therapy includes options like nicotine gum, patches, lozenges, or inhalers. Choice B, offering surgical interventions, is incorrect as smoking cessation programs primarily focus on behavioral and pharmacological interventions rather than surgical procedures. Choice C, conducting regular health screenings, is also incorrect as it is not a direct key component of smoking cessation programs. Choice D, promoting alcohol consumption, is not only incorrect but counterproductive, as it can be detrimental to overall health and hinder smoking cessation efforts.
When admitting a client with Parkinson's disease to the home healthcare service, which nursing diagnosis should have priority in planning care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Impaired physical mobility related to muscle rigidity and weakness.' For a client with Parkinson's disease, impaired physical mobility is a priority nursing diagnosis because of the characteristic motor symptoms such as muscle rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability. Addressing impaired physical mobility is crucial to enhance the client's quality of life. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority nursing diagnoses for a client with Parkinson's disease. Ineffective coping (Choice B) and fear of seizures (Choice D) may be concerns but are not the priority. Ineffective breathing pattern (Choice C) is not typically associated with Parkinson's disease.
The hospital is planning to downsize and eliminate a number of staff positions as a cost-saving measure. To assist staff in this change process, the nurse manager is preparing for the "unfreezing" phase of change. With this approach and phase the nurse manager should
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The "unfreezing" phase involves preparing staff for change by explaining the necessity and benefits of the change, helping them to understand and accept it.
The family health care plan includes the following listed in sequence:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a family health care plan, the correct sequence should start with identifying the problems (statement of the problems), setting objectives, planning interventions, and then evaluating the outcomes. This sequence ensures a logical and structured approach to healthcare planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not follow the logical order of healthcare planning steps.
As a supervisor, you plan to conduct a seminar in response to the midwife's training need for skills in community diagnosis. Which is an appropriate method to use to enable midwives to apply the knowledge they will gain in actual practice?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Problem-solving is an effective method to enable midwives to apply the knowledge gained in actual practice. By engaging in problem-solving activities during the seminar, midwives can enhance their critical thinking skills and directly apply the information to real-life scenarios they may encounter in community diagnosis. Choice A (lecture) is less effective as it primarily involves passive listening and may not provide the hands-on experience needed for practical application. Choice C (group discussion) can be helpful for sharing perspectives but may not directly translate to practical application as problem-solving would. Choice D (nominal group technique) focuses more on generating ideas and reaching consensus rather than hands-on application of knowledge.
Which playroom activities should the nurse organize for a small group of 7-year-old hospitalized children?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Sports and games with rules are appropriate for the cognitive development stage of 7-year-olds.
What title should be given to this occupational health nurse job description? A registered nurse who functions in a comprehensive executive role to set goals, formulate policy, and direct and evaluate the health service.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'manager.' In the job description provided, the role involves setting goals, formulating policy, and directing and evaluating health services, which aligns with the responsibilities of a manager. A 'researcher' primarily focuses on conducting research, a 'health educator' specializes in educating individuals about health-related topics, and a 'health promotion specialist' concentrates on promoting health and wellness initiatives. Therefore, 'manager' is the most suitable title for the described role.
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