HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice Test
1. Which client is at the greatest risk for developing delirium?
- A. An adult client who cannot sleep due to constant pain
- B. An older client who attempted suicide 1 month ago
- C. A young adult who takes antipsychotic medications twice a day
- D. A middle-aged woman who uses a tank for supplemental oxygen
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because older adults are at higher risk for delirium, especially following a recent suicide attempt, which can be a significant stressor. Choice A is less likely to develop delirium solely due to difficulty sleeping; delirium is more complex and multifactorial. Choice C, a young adult taking antipsychotic medications, may be at risk for other conditions but not necessarily delirium. Choice D, a middle-aged woman using supplemental oxygen, is not directly linked to an increased risk of delirium compared to the older client who recently attempted suicide.
2. A client with osteoporosis related to long-term corticosteroid therapy receives a prescription for calcium carbonate. Which client’s serum laboratory value requires intervention by the nurse?
- A. Total calcium 9 mg/dl (2.25 mmol/L SI)
- B. Creatinine 4 mg/dl (354 micromol/L SI)
- C. Phosphate 4 mg/dl (1.293 mmol/L SI)
- D. Fasting glucose 95 mg/dl (5.3 mmol/L SI)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates possible renal impairment, which requires intervention. High creatinine levels are associated with decreased kidney function, and in this case, it suggests potential renal issues due to long-term corticosteroid therapy. Monitoring renal function is crucial in clients with osteoporosis on corticosteroid therapy to prevent further complications. Total calcium levels within the normal range are suitable for a client with osteoporosis receiving calcium carbonate. Phosphate and fasting glucose levels do not directly indicate renal impairment in this scenario.
3. When implementing a disaster intervention plan, which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Initiate the discharge of stable clients from hospital units
- B. Identify a command center where activities are coordinated
- C. Assess community safety needs impacted by the disaster
- D. Instruct all essential off-duty personnel to report to the facility
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When implementing a disaster intervention plan, the first step the nurse should take is to identify a command center where activities are coordinated. This step is crucial for ensuring an organized and effective disaster response. Option A, initiating the discharge of stable clients, is not a priority during the initial phase of disaster response. Option C, assessing community safety needs, usually follows setting up a command center. Option D, instructing off-duty personnel to report, may be necessary but is not the primary intervention at the beginning of a disaster situation.
4. What actions should the nurse take regarding an older adult male who had an abdominal cholecystectomy and has become increasingly confused and disoriented over the past 24 hours, found wandering into another client’s room and returned to his own room by the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply)
- A. Apply soft upper limb restraints and raise all four bed rails
- B. Report mental status change to the healthcare provider
- C. Assess the client’s breath sounds and oxygen saturation
- D. Assign the UAP to re-assess the client’s risk for falls
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this situation, the appropriate action for the nurse to take is to report the mental status change to the healthcare provider. Confusion and disorientation post-surgery can be indicative of various factors, such as electrolyte imbalances or respiratory issues, necessitating comprehensive assessment by the healthcare team. Applying restraints and raising bed rails may not address the underlying cause of the confusion, and assigning the UAP to reassess the client's risk for falls does not directly address the cognitive changes observed.
5. The parents of a child who had surgical repair of a myelomeningocele are being taught how to change an occlusive dressing on the child’s back. Which statement by the parents indicates that they understand this procedure?
- A. When changing the dressing, the tape should be removed slowly to prevent trauma to the skin
- B. To prevent infection, the dressing should be kept dry to avoid excess moisture
- C. The skin incision should be kept moist to promote healing and prevent dryness
- D. The incision should be protected from fecal contamination by an intact dressing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because protecting the incision from fecal contamination is essential to prevent infection and promote healing in a child with a myelomeningocele. This is crucial as fecal matter can introduce harmful bacteria to the wound. Choice A is incorrect as removing the tape slowly to prevent trauma to the skin is a general guideline but not specific to preventing infection. Choice B is incorrect because keeping the dressing dry can lead to complications as the wound needs a moist environment to heal properly. Choice C is incorrect as keeping the skin incision moist may promote infection and delay healing, making it an incorrect statement for postoperative care.
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