which client is at the greatest risk for developing delirium
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

CAT Exam Practice Test

1. Which client is at the greatest risk for developing delirium?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because older adults are at higher risk for delirium, especially following a recent suicide attempt, which can be a significant stressor. Choice A is less likely to develop delirium solely due to difficulty sleeping; delirium is more complex and multifactorial. Choice C, a young adult taking antipsychotic medications, may be at risk for other conditions but not necessarily delirium. Choice D, a middle-aged woman using supplemental oxygen, is not directly linked to an increased risk of delirium compared to the older client who recently attempted suicide.

2. A client who is bleeding after a vaginal delivery receives a prescription for methylergonovine (Methergine) 0.4 mg IM every 2 hours, not to exceed 5 doses. The medication is available in ampules containing 0.2 mg/ml. What is the maximum dosage in mg that the nurse should administer to this client? (Enter numeric value only)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the maximum dosage in mg that the nurse should administer, multiply the dose per administration (0.4 mg) by the maximum number of doses allowed (5 doses): 0.4 mg/dose * 5 doses = 2 mg. Therefore, the nurse should administer a maximum dosage of 2 mg to the client. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

3. A male client reports the onset of numbness and tingling in his fingers and around his mouth. Which lab value is important for the nurse to review before contacting the health care provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum calcium. Numbness and tingling can be indicative of hypocalcemia, which can affect the nervous system. Reviewing serum calcium levels is crucial to address this potential issue. Options A, B, and D are not directly related to the symptoms described by the client and are not typically associated with numbness and tingling around the mouth and fingers. Capillary glucose levels are more relevant in assessing for diabetes or monitoring glucose control. Urine specific gravity is useful in evaluating hydration status. White blood cell count is typically checked to assess infection or immune response, which are not indicated by the client's symptoms of numbness and tingling.

4. After assessing an older adult with a suspected cerebrovascular accident (CVA), the nurse documents the client's right upper arm weakness and slurred speech. When the client complains of a severe headache and nausea, and the neurological assessment remains unchanged, which action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to send the client for a computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain. A CT scan is crucial in assessing acute changes or bleeding that could influence treatment decisions in a suspected cerebrovascular accident (CVA). While addressing symptoms like headache and nausea is important, ruling out acute changes in the brain with a CT scan takes precedence in this situation. Collecting blood for coagulation times may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Obtaining a history of medication use, recent surgery, or injury is also important but not the first action to take when a CVA is suspected.

5. When designing a plan of care for a client diagnosed with pheochromocytoma, a goal statement should be prepared that relates to which topic?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Preoperative and postoperative teaching for adrenalectomy. Pheochromocytoma often requires adrenalectomy as part of the treatment plan. Therefore, educating the client about what to expect before and after the surgery is crucial for optimal care and outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A focuses on emotional well-being rather than the specific surgical intervention needed for pheochromocytoma. Choice B is unrelated as the primary treatment for pheochromocytoma is surgical rather than medication-based. Choice D, though related to managing hypertension, does not address the surgical aspect of treating pheochromocytoma.

Similar Questions

The client has silvery scaling plaques bilaterally on elbows, forearms, and palms. When scratched, the skin bleeds over these plaques. What is most important to include in this client’s plan of care?
When taking a health history of a client admitted with acute pancreatitis, which client complaint should be expected?
A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left leg is on a heparin protocol. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?
Which assessment finding is most indicative of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client’s right leg?
A client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line has a fever. What client assessment is most important for the nurse to perform?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses