Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) and notes that the output flow is 100ml less than the input flow. Which actions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Continue to monitor intake and output with the next exchange
• B. Check the client's blood pressure and serum bicarbonate levels
• C. Irrigate the dialysis catheter
• D. Change the client's position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this situation, the priority action for the nurse is to change the client's position. Altering the client's position can help facilitate better fluid drainage in peritoneal dialysis, potentially resolving the issue without the need for more invasive interventions. Continuing to monitor intake and output (Choice A) is important but addressing the immediate drainage issue takes precedence. Checking blood pressure and serum bicarbonate levels (Choice B) is not directly related to the observed output flow discrepancy. Irrigating the dialysis catheter (Choice C) should not be the initial action as it is more invasive and should be considered only if repositioning does not resolve the issue.

2. What nursing intervention is particularly indicated for the second stage of labor?

• A. Providing pain medication to increase the client’s tolerance of labor
• B. Assessing the fetal heart rate and pattern for signs of fetal distress
• C. Monitoring effects of oxytocin administration to help achieve cervical dilation
• D. Assisting the client to push effectively so that the expulsion of the fetus can be achieved

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the second stage of labor, assisting the client to push effectively is crucial for the delivery of the fetus. This action helps to facilitate the expulsion of the fetus from the uterus. Providing pain medication (Choice A) is not typically done during the second stage of labor as the focus shifts to pushing and delivery. Assessing the fetal heart rate (Choice B) is important but is more relevant throughout labor, not specifically for the second stage. Monitoring the effects of oxytocin administration (Choice C) is more associated with the first stage of labor to help with uterine contractions and cervical dilation.

3. When should the nurse conduct an Allen’s test?

• A. When obtaining pulmonary artery pressures
• B. To assess for the presence of a deep vein thrombus in the leg
• C. Just before arterial blood gases are drawn peripherally
• D. Prior to attempting a cardiac output calculation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct time to conduct an Allen’s test is just before arterial blood gases are drawn peripherally. This test is performed to assess the adequacy of collateral circulation in the hand before obtaining arterial blood gases. Choice A is incorrect because an Allen’s test is not specifically done when obtaining pulmonary artery pressures. Choice B is incorrect because an Allen’s test is not used to assess deep vein thrombosis. Choice D is incorrect because an Allen’s test is not done specifically before attempting a cardiac output calculation.

4. The nurse administers an oral antiviral to a client with shingles. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Decreased white blood cell count
• B. Pruritus and muscle aches
• C. Elevated liver function tests
• D. Vomiting and diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevated liver function tests. When administering antivirals, especially orally, monitoring liver function tests is crucial as it may indicate liver toxicity. This finding should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Choice A, decreased white blood cell count, may be expected with certain antivirals but is not the most critical finding in this scenario. Pruritus and muscle aches (choice B) are common side effects of antivirals and do not require immediate reporting. Vomiting and diarrhea (choice D) are also common side effects that may not be as concerning as elevated liver function tests.

5. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?

• A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
• B. To promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration
• C. To promote bronchodilation and effective airway clearance
• D. To decrease pressure on the medullary center which stimulates breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is done to reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm, aiding in lung expansion and oxygenation. This position helps improve respiratory mechanics by allowing the diaphragm to move more effectively. Choice B is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed does not directly promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration. Choice C is incorrect because although elevating the head of the bed can assist with airway clearance, its primary purpose in ARDS is to decrease pressure on the diaphragm. Choice D is incorrect because reducing pressure on the medullary center is not the main goal of elevating the head of the bed; the focus is on enhancing lung function and oxygen exchange.

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