Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving chemotherapy has severe neutropenia. Which snack is best for the nurse to recommend to the client?

• A. Plain yogurt sweetened with raw honey
• B. Peanuts in the shell, roasted or unroasted
• C. Aged farmer’s cheese with celery sticks
• D. Baked apples topped with dried raisins

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Plain yogurt sweetened with raw honey. This option is the best choice for a client with severe neutropenia undergoing chemotherapy because it is less likely to harbor harmful bacteria, which could cause infections due to the weakened immune system. Peanuts in the shell (choice B) may carry a risk of contamination, while aged farmer's cheese with celery sticks (choice C) and baked apples topped with dried raisins (choice D) may not be as safe as plain yogurt for a client with severe neutropenia.

2. A young adult male who is being seen at the employee health care clinic for an annual assessment tells the nurse that his mother was diagnosed with schizophrenia when she was his age and that life with a schizophrenic mother was difficult indeed. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Ask the client if he is worried about becoming schizophrenic at the age his mother was diagnosed.
• B. Encourage the client to seek genetic counseling to determine his risk for mental illness.
• C. Inform the client that his mother’s schizophrenia has affected his psychological development.
• D. Tell the client that mental illness has a familial predisposition so he should see a psychiatrist.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Genetic counseling can help assess risk and provide guidance for the client’s concerns about potential hereditary conditions.

3. To reduce the risk of symptoms exacerbation for a client with multiple sclerosis (MS), which instructions should the nurse include in the client’s discharge plan? (Select all that apply).

• A. Practice relaxation exercises
• B. Limit fluids to avoid bladder distention
• C. Space activities to allow for rest periods
• D. Avoid persons with infections

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the discharge plan for a client with MS to reduce symptom exacerbation is practicing relaxation exercises. Relaxation exercises can help manage MS symptoms by reducing stress. Limiting fluids to avoid bladder distention is not appropriate as adequate hydration is essential for overall health and helps prevent complications like urinary tract infections. While spacing activities to allow for rest periods can be beneficial for general well-being, it is not directly related to symptom exacerbation in MS. Avoiding persons with infections is important to prevent infections, but it is not specifically targeted at reducing MS symptom exacerbation.

4. Four clients arrive on the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A 38-week primigravida who reports contractions occurring every 10 minutes
• B. A 39-week primigravida with a biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8
• C. A 41-week multigravida who is scheduled for induction of labor today
• D. A 36-week multigravida with a prescription for serial blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8 indicates potential fetal distress, necessitating immediate assessment to ensure the well-being of the fetus. The other options, while important, do not suggest an immediate threat to the fetus' health. The 38-week primigravida with contractions every 10 minutes may be in early labor, the 41-week multigravida scheduled for induction can be assessed after addressing the immediate concern, and the 36-week multigravida with serial blood pressure can be assessed after ensuring the client with potential fetal distress is stabilized.

5. When a UAP reports to the charge nurse that a client has a weak pulse with a rate of 44 beats per minute, what action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Instruct the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds.
• B. Determine if the UAP also measured the client's capillary refill time.
• C. Assign a practical nurse (LPN) to determine if an apical radial pulse deficit is present.
• D. Notify the health care provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement is to notify the health care provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume. A weak pulse with bradycardia (pulse rate of 44 beats per minute) requires immediate follow-up to investigate potential underlying issues. In this situation, it is crucial to involve the healthcare provider for further assessment and intervention. Instructing the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds (Choice A) may delay necessary actions. Determining capillary refill time (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing a weak pulse, and assigning an LPN to assess an apical radial pulse deficit (Choice C) is not as urgent as involving the healthcare provider.

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