Nursing Elites

1. An adult suffered burns to the face and chest resulting from a grease fire. On admission, the client was intubated, and a 2-liter bolus of normal saline was administered IV. Currently, the normal saline is infusing at 250 ml/hour. The client’s heart rate is 120 beats/minute, blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg, respirations are 12 breaths/minute over the ventilated 12 breaths for a total of 24 breaths/minute, and the central venous pressure (CVP) is 4 mm H2O. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Increase the rate of normal saline infusion
• B. Infuse an additional bolus of normal saline
• C. Lower the head of the bed to a recumbent position
• D. Bring a tracheostomy tray to the bedside

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to infuse an additional bolus of normal saline. The client's presentation with a heart rate of 120 beats/minute, hypotensive blood pressure of 90/50 mmHg, and low CVP of 4 mm H2O indicates hypovolemic shock. Administering more normal saline can help in restoring intravascular volume and improving perfusion. Increasing the rate of normal saline infusion (Choice A) is not the best choice as it may lead to fluid overload. Lowering the head of the bed to a recumbent position (Choice C) could worsen hypotension by reducing venous return. Bringing a tracheostomy tray to the bedside (Choice D) is not a priority at this time as the client is already intubated, and the immediate concern is addressing the hypovolemia.

2. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left leg is on a heparin protocol. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Observe for bleeding side effects related to heparin therapy.
• B. Assess blood pressure and heart rate at least every 4 hours.
• C. Measure calf girth to evaluate edema in the affected leg.
• D. Encourage mobilization to prevent pulmonary embolism.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Observe for bleeding side effects related to heparin therapy.' This is the most crucial intervention for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) on a heparin protocol. Heparin, being an anticoagulant, increases the risk of bleeding as a side effect. Therefore, close monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, petechiae, or blood in stool or urine, is essential to prevent severe complications. While assessing blood pressure and heart rate (Choice B) is important, it is not as critical as monitoring for bleeding. Measuring calf girth (Choice C) may help evaluate edema but is not as vital as observing for bleeding complications. Encouraging mobilization (Choice D) is beneficial for preventing complications like pulmonary embolism, but in this scenario, monitoring for bleeding takes precedence due to the immediate risk associated with anticoagulant therapy.

3. A 17-year-old adolescent is brought to the emergency department by both parents because the adolescent has been coughing and running a fever with flu-like symptoms for the past 24 hours. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain a chest X-ray per protocol.
• B. Place a mask on the client’s face.
• C. Assess the client’s temperature.
• D. Determine the client’s blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to implement first is to place a mask on the client's face. This is crucial to prevent the potential spread of infectious agents to others in the emergency department, considering the presenting symptoms of coughing and fever. Placing a mask helps in containing respiratory secretions and reducing the risk of airborne transmission. Assessing the client’s temperature or blood pressure can be done after ensuring infection control measures. Obtaining a chest X-ray would be a secondary intervention once immediate infection control is addressed.

4. While assessing a client four hours post-thoracentesis, the nurse is unable to auscultate breath sounds on the right side of the chest. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Instruct the client to perform cough and deep breathing exercises
• B. Assess the client’s vital signs and respiratory effort
• C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula according to the PNR protocol
• D. Document assessment findings in the client’s medical record

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to assess the client’s vital signs and respiratory effort. It is crucial to promptly detect any immediate complications or changes in the client's condition. Instructing cough and deep breathing exercises (choice A) can be considered after further assessment. Administering oxygen (choice C) should be based on assessment findings and healthcare provider's orders. While documenting the findings (choice D) is essential, it should not be the first action when a potential issue with breath sounds is detected.

5. A client is admitted with pyelonephritis, and cultures reveal an Escherichia coli infection. The client is allergic to penicillins, and the healthcare provider prescribed vancomycin IV. The nurse should plan to carefully monitor the client for which finding during IV administration?

• A. Tissue sloughing upon extravasation
• B. Elevated blood pressure and heart rate
• C. Tinnitus and vertigo
• D. Erythema of the face, neck, and chest

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tinnitus and vertigo. Vancomycin can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity, leading to symptoms like tinnitus and vertigo. Monitoring for these adverse effects is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tissue sloughing, elevated blood pressure and heart rate, and erythema of the face, neck, and chest are not typically associated with vancomycin administration. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for signs of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity such as tinnitus and vertigo.

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