Nursing Elites

1. An adolescent male client is admitted to the hospital. Based on Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development, which nursing intervention best assists this adolescent’s adjustment to his hospital stay?

• A. Invite him to participate in the evening group activity
• B. Schedule frequent private phone calls to his parents
• C. Provide access to a variety of video games in his room
• D. Encourage him to learn his way around the hospital

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Inviting the adolescent to participate in group activities aligns with Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, specifically the stage of developing social relationships. By engaging in group activities, the adolescent can interact with peers, fostering social skills and aiding in adjustment to the hospital environment. Choice B is incorrect as excessive reliance on phone calls to parents may hinder the adolescent's autonomy and independence, which are crucial aspects of Erikson's theory for this age group. Choice C, providing access to video games, while potentially offering entertainment, does not directly address the need for social interaction and relationship-building. Choice D, encouraging the adolescent to learn his way around the hospital, is important for familiarity but may not directly address the need for social interaction and adjustment in the hospital setting.

2. A premature infant weighing 1,200 grams at birth receives a prescription for beractant (Survanta) 120 mg endotracheal now and q6 hr for 24 hr. The recommended dose for beractant is 100 mg/kg birth weight per dose. Single-use vials of Survanta are labeled 100 mg/4 ml. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Give 4.8 ml q6 hr
• B. Notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too high
• C. Notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too low
• D. Give 1.2 ml q6 hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to give 4.8 ml q6 hr. To calculate the dose, you divide the prescribed dose of 120 mg by the concentration of Survanta, which is 100 mg per 4 ml. This results in 4.8 ml per dose, as 120 mg ÷ 100 mg/4 ml = 4.8 ml. Option B suggesting to notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too high is incorrect because the calculated dose of 4.8 ml is based on the recommended dose of 100 mg/kg birth weight. Option C suggesting to notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too low is incorrect as the calculated dose is based on the correct dosage calculation. Option D suggesting to give 1.2 ml q6 hr is incorrect because it doesn't align with the correct calculation.

3. A male client approaches the nurse with an angry expression on his face and raises his voice, saying, “My roommate is the most selfish, self-centered, angry person I have ever met. If he loses his temper one more time with me, I am going to punch him out.” The nurse recognizes that the client is using which defense mechanism?

• A. Denial
• B. Splitting
• C. Projection
• D. Rationalization

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is projecting his feelings of anger and frustration onto his roommate, attributing his own feelings to the other person. Projection is a defense mechanism where individuals attribute their thoughts, feelings, or motives onto another person. In this scenario, the client is displacing his anger onto his roommate, thereby using projection as a defense mechanism. Denial (choice A) is refusing to acknowledge an aspect of reality. Splitting (choice B) involves viewing people as all good or all bad. Rationalization (choice D) is creating logical explanations to justify unacceptable behavior.

4. A client is admitted to a medical unit with the diagnosis of gastritis and chronic heavy alcohol abuse. What should the nurse administer to prevent the development of Wernicke's syndrome?

• A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• B. Famotidine (Pepcid)
• C. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
• D. Atenolol (Tenormin)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thiamine supplementation is critical in preventing Wernicke's syndrome, especially in clients with chronic alcohol use. Wernicke's syndrome is a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome. Famotidine is an H2 blocker used to reduce stomach acid production but does not prevent Wernicke's syndrome. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used for hypertension and angina, not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome.

5. The nurse is assessing an older adult with type 2 diabetes. Which assessment finding indicates that the client understands long-term control of diabetes?

• A. The fasting blood sugar was 120 mg/dL this morning
• B. Urine ketones have been negative for the past 6 months
• C. The hemoglobin A1C was 6.5% last week
• D. No diabetic ketoacidosis has occurred in 6 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An A1C level of 6.5% indicates good long-term control of diabetes as it reflects the average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months. Monitoring fasting blood sugar provides immediate information about the current blood sugar level, while the absence of urine ketones indicates short-term control. Although the absence of diabetic ketoacidosis is positive, it doesn't specifically reflect long-term control like the A1C level does.

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