Nursing Elites

1. A 41-week gestation primigravida woman is admitted to labor and delivery for induction of labor. What finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before initiating the infusion of oxytocin?

• A. Fetal heart tones located in the upper right quadrant
• B. Biophysical profile results showing oligohydramnios
• C. Regular contractions occurring every 10 minutes
• D. Sterile vaginal exam revealing 3 cm dilation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oligohydramnios (low amniotic fluid) is a significant concern before starting oxytocin and should be reported to ensure safe labor induction. This finding can indicate potential fetal compromise and requires immediate evaluation. Fetal heart tones located in a specific quadrant, regular contractions, and cervical dilation are common assessments during labor but are not as critical as oligohydramnios in this scenario.

2. The nurse is assessing an older adult with type 2 diabetes. Which assessment finding indicates that the client understands long-term control of diabetes?

• A. The fasting blood sugar was 120 mg/dL this morning
• B. Urine ketones have been negative for the past 6 months
• C. The hemoglobin A1C was 6.5% last week
• D. No diabetic ketoacidosis has occurred in 6 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An A1C level of 6.5% indicates good long-term control of diabetes as it reflects the average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months. Monitoring fasting blood sugar provides immediate information about the current blood sugar level, while the absence of urine ketones indicates short-term control. Although the absence of diabetic ketoacidosis is positive, it doesn't specifically reflect long-term control like the A1C level does.

3. Before leaving the room of a confused client, the nurse notes that a half bow knot was used to attach the client's wrist restraints to the movable portion of the client's bed frame. What action should the nurse take before leaving the room?

• A. Ensure that the knot can be quickly released.
• B. Tie the knot with a double turn or square knot.
• C. Move the ties so the restraints are secured to the side rails.
• D. Ensure that the restraints are snug against the client's wrist.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take before leaving the room is to ensure that the knot can be quickly released. Using a half bow knot to attach the client's wrist restraints allows for quick release in case of an emergency. This is crucial for ensuring the safety of the client and complying with restraint policies. Tying the knot with a double turn or square knot (Choice B) would make it difficult to release quickly when needed. Moving the ties so the restraints are secured to the side rails (Choice C) does not address the immediate need for a quick release. Ensuring that the restraints are snug against the client's wrist (Choice D) may not be appropriate if the restraints need to be quickly removed for the client's safety.

4. The nurse assesses a 5-year-old child who has been experiencing frequent headaches and vomiting. The nurse notices that the child is lethargic and has a positive Brudzinski sign. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Perform a complete neurological examination
• B. Measure the child’s head circumference
• C. Check the child’s blood glucose level
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. The presence of lethargy and a positive Brudzinski sign in a child experiencing frequent headaches and vomiting may indicate a serious condition like meningitis. Prompt notification of the healthcare provider is crucial for timely evaluation and initiation of appropriate treatment. Choice A is incorrect because while a neurological examination may be necessary, it is not the priority when a potentially serious condition like meningitis is suspected. Choice B is incorrect as measuring the child's head circumference is not the most immediate action to take in this situation. Choice C is also incorrect as checking the child's blood glucose level, although important in some cases, is not the priority when a child presents with symptoms suggestive of meningitis.

5. A client with eczema is experiencing severe pruritus. Which PRN prescription should the nurse administer?

• A. Topical corticosteroid
• B. Topical scabicide
• C. Topical alcohol rub
• D. Transdermal analgesic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Topical corticosteroid. Topical corticosteroids are commonly used to manage itching in eczema by reducing inflammation and suppressing the immune response. In this case, for severe pruritus in eczema, a topical corticosteroid would be appropriate. Choice B, Topical scabicide, is used to treat scabies, not eczema. Choice C, Topical alcohol rub, is not typically used to manage pruritus in eczema. Choice D, Transdermal analgesic, is more for pain relief and not specifically targeted at managing itching associated with eczema.

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