Nursing Elites

1. Which action should the nurse implement during the termination phase of the nurse-client relationship?

• A. Identify new problem areas.
• B. Confront changes not completed.
• C. Explore the client's past in depth.
• D. Help summarize accomplishments.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the termination phase of the nurse-client relationship, it is essential for the nurse to help summarize accomplishments. This action provides closure by reflecting on the progress and goals achieved during treatment. It reinforces the positive aspects of the therapeutic relationship and helps the client acknowledge their growth and achievements. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Identifying new problem areas is not appropriate during termination, as the focus should be on closure. Confronting changes not completed may create tension and disrupt the positive closure process. Exploring the client's past in depth is more suitable for earlier stages of the therapeutic relationship, not during termination.

2. Which statement about contemporary mental health nursing practice is accurate?

• A. There is one approved theoretical framework for psychiatric nursing practice.
• B. Psychiatric nursing has yet to be recognized as a core mental health discipline.
• C. Contemporary practice of psychiatric nursing is primarily focused on inpatient care.
• D. The psychiatric nursing client may be an individual, family, group, organization, or community.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The accurate statement about contemporary mental health nursing practice is that the psychiatric nursing client may be an individual, family, group, organization, or community. Mental health nursing extends beyond individual care to address the impact of psychiatric stressors on families, groups, and entire communities. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: A is false as there are various theoretical frameworks used in psychiatric nursing, B is inaccurate as psychiatric nursing is a core discipline in mental health, and C is wrong as contemporary psychiatric nursing involves various settings beyond just inpatient care.

3. An outpatient clinic that has been receiving haloperidol (Haldol) for 2 days develops muscular rigidity, altered consciousness, a temperature of 103, and trouble breathing on day 3. The LPN/LVN interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?

• A. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Extrapyramidal adverse effects
• D. Drug-induced parkinsonism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening condition characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysregulation. It is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol (Haldol). NMS requires immediate intervention, including discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements of the face and extremities that can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Extrapyramidal adverse effects (Choice C) encompass a range of movement disorders like dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism that can result from antipsychotic medications, but they do not present with hyperthermia and altered consciousness as in NMS. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice D) is a form of parkinsonism caused by certain medications, but it typically presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity, without the severe hyperthermia and autonomic dysregulation seen in NMS.

4. A client who has just been sexually assaulted is calm and quiet. The nurse analyzes this behavior as indicating which defense mechanism?

• A. Denial
• B. Projection
• C. Rationalization
• D. Intellectualization

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Denial. In this situation, the client's calm and quiet demeanor after a traumatic event like sexual assault may indicate denial, a defense mechanism where the individual refuses to acknowledge the reality of the distressing event. Choice B, Projection, involves attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others. Choice C, Rationalization, is a defense mechanism where logical reasoning is used to justify behaviors or feelings. Choice D, Intellectualization, is a defense mechanism where excessive reasoning or logic is used to avoid uncomfortable emotions.

5. A client with generalized anxiety disorder is being treated with lorazepam (Ativan). What is the most important teaching point for the LPN/LVN to reinforce?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. This medication may cause drowsiness, so avoid driving.
• D. You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important teaching point for the LPN/LVN to reinforce is to avoid drinking alcohol while taking lorazepam (Ativan). Alcohol can enhance the sedative effects of lorazepam, increasing the risk of severe side effects and complications. Choice A is incorrect because lorazepam can be taken with or without food. Choice C is not the most critical teaching point, although it is essential to avoid activities that require mental alertness until the effects of the medication are known. Choice D is incorrect because abruptly stopping lorazepam can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision.

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