Nursing Elites

1. A 40-year-old male client diagnosed with schizophrenia and alcohol dependence has not had any visitors or phone calls since admission. He reports he has no family that cares about him and was living on the streets prior to this admission. According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, which stage is the client in at this time?

• A. Isolation.
• B. Stagnation.
• C. Despair.
• D. Role confusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is in Erikson's 'Generativity vs. Stagnation' stage (age 24 to 45). This stage involves maintaining intimate relationships and moving toward developing a family, which the client seems to be struggling with due to lack of visitors and family support. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are incorrect. Isolation typically occurs in young adulthood (age 18 to 25), Despair in maturity (age 45 to death), and Role confusion in adolescence (age 12 to 20). These stages reflect challenges individuals face if they do not successfully navigate their psychosocial developmental tasks.

2. When planning care for a client with anorexia nervosa, which goal should be prioritized?

• A. The client will establish normal eating patterns.
• B. The client will verbalize feelings about food and weight.
• C. The client will gain a minimum of 2 pounds per week.
• D. The client will achieve normal electrolyte balance.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because achieving normal electrolyte balance is critical in clients with anorexia nervosa. Electrolyte imbalances can lead to serious, life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and organ failure. While establishing normal eating patterns (choice A) and verbalizing feelings about food and weight (choice B) are important aspects of treatment, addressing electrolyte balance takes precedence due to the immediate risks associated with imbalances. Additionally, setting a weight gain goal of 2 pounds per week (choice C) may not be appropriate initially as rapid refeeding can also lead to electrolyte imbalances and other complications.

3. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Ask the client to describe the voices and what they are saying.
• B. Tell the client that the voices are not real.
• C. Encourage the client to engage in reality-based activities.
• D. Ask the client to focus on positive thoughts instead of the voices.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with schizophrenia experiencing auditory hallucinations is to encourage them to engage in reality-based activities. This intervention helps manage auditory hallucinations by redirecting the client's focus away from the hallucinations. Choice A is not recommended as it may exacerbate the hallucinations or distress the client. Choice B is incorrect because denying the reality of the voices can invalidate the client's experiences. Choice D, asking the client to focus on positive thoughts, may not be effective in addressing the auditory hallucinations directly.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing severe anxiety. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to implement?

• A. Instruct the client to take deep breaths and focus on the present.
• B. Encourage the client to discuss their fears in detail.
• C. Distract the client with a humorous story or anecdote.
• D. Leave the client alone to process their emotions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client experiencing severe anxiety is to instruct the client to take deep breaths and focus on the present. Deep breathing can help reduce the physiological symptoms of anxiety and provide the client with a way to regain control over their emotions. Choice B is incorrect as discussing fears in detail may escalate anxiety levels. Choice C is inappropriate as distracting the client may not address the root cause of anxiety. Choice D is not recommended as leaving the client alone can increase feelings of isolation and distress.

5. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). The LPN/LVN observes the client pacing in the hallway and appearing anxious. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Ask the client to sit down and relax.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication.
• C. Encourage the client to talk about what is making him anxious.
• D. Monitor the client for adverse reactions to the medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication is the first action the nurse should take to manage symptoms of anxiety in a client being treated with haloperidol. The priority is to address the client's escalating anxiety and pacing behavior, which can be managed effectively by providing additional antipsychotic medication. Asking the client to sit down and relax (Choice A) may not be effective if the anxiety is due to inadequate medication levels. Encouraging the client to talk about what is making him anxious (Choice C) may not be beneficial in this acute situation and can be considered after addressing the immediate need for symptom management. Monitoring for adverse reactions (Choice D) is important but is not the first action to take when the client is showing signs of increasing anxiety and agitation.

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