a 40 year old male client diagnosed with schizophrenia and alcohol dependence has not had any visitors or phone calls since admission he reports he h
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HESI Mental Health Practice Questions

1. A 40-year-old male client diagnosed with schizophrenia and alcohol dependence has not had any visitors or phone calls since admission. He reports he has no family that cares about him and was living on the streets prior to this admission. According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, which stage is the client in at this time?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is in Erikson's 'Generativity vs. Stagnation' stage (age 24 to 45). This stage involves maintaining intimate relationships and moving toward developing a family, which the client seems to be struggling with due to lack of visitors and family support. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are incorrect. Isolation typically occurs in young adulthood (age 18 to 25), Despair in maturity (age 45 to death), and Role confusion in adolescence (age 12 to 20). These stages reflect challenges individuals face if they do not successfully navigate their psychosocial developmental tasks.

2. A male client is brought to the emergency department by a police officer, who reports the client was disturbing the peace by running naked in the street, striking out at others, and smashing car windows. Which behaviors should the client demonstrate to determine if he should be evaluated for involuntary commitment?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's dangerous and disruptive behaviors, along with auditory hallucinations of self-harm, suggest a need for involuntary commitment for his safety and that of others. Involuntary commitment may be warranted based on the client's poor hygiene and self-neglect, as it indicates an inability to care for himself, which can pose a risk to his well-being.

3. The community health nurse talks to a male client who has bipolar disorder. The client explains that he sleeps 4 to 5 hours a night and is working with his partner to start two new businesses and build an empire. The client stopped taking his medications several days ago. What nursing problem has the highest priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority is to manage the client's medication adherence to prevent escalation of manic behavior. Inflated self-esteem is the highest priority as it indicates the client's potential for harmful behaviors due to lack of medication compliance. While excessive work activity and decreased need for sleep are characteristics of mania, they are not as immediately concerning as the risk of harm related to inflated self-esteem.

4. The occupational health nurse is working with a female employee who was just notified that her child was involved in a MVA and taken to the hospital. The employee states, 'I can't believe this. What should I do?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide in this crisis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Providing immediate practical support, such as arranging transportation to the hospital, is the best response in this crisis situation. It helps the employee to take immediate action and supports her in a highly stressful moment. Choice A focuses on the employee's thoughts rather than providing immediate aid. Choice B is not a priority as the severity can be addressed later. Choice C puts the decision-making burden on the employee at a time of distress, which is not ideal. Therefore, choice D is the most appropriate response in this situation.

5. A client with panic disorder is prescribed sertraline (Zoloft). What is the most important information for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. SSRIs like sertraline may take several weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect, so it's important to inform the client to be patient with the treatment. Choice A is not the most crucial information regarding sertraline. Choice C is not a common side effect of sertraline. Choice D is important but not as crucial as informing about the delayed onset of action.

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