Nursing Elites

1. A 40-year-old male client diagnosed with schizophrenia and alcohol dependence has not had any visitors or phone calls since admission. He reports he has no family that cares about him and was living on the streets prior to this admission. According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, which stage is the client in at this time?

• A. Isolation.
• B. Stagnation.
• C. Despair.
• D. Role confusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is in Erikson's 'Generativity vs. Stagnation' stage (age 24 to 45). This stage involves maintaining intimate relationships and moving toward developing a family, which the client seems to be struggling with due to lack of visitors and family support. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are incorrect. Isolation typically occurs in young adulthood (age 18 to 25), Despair in maturity (age 45 to death), and Role confusion in adolescence (age 12 to 20). These stages reflect challenges individuals face if they do not successfully navigate their psychosocial developmental tasks.

2. At a support meeting of parents of a teenager with polysubstance dependency, a parent states, 'Each time my son tries to quit taking drugs, he gets so depressed that I'm afraid he will commit suicide.' The nurse's response should be based on which information?

• A. Addiction is a chronic, incurable disease
• B. Tolerance to the effects of drugs causes feelings of depression
• C. Feelings of depression frequently lead to drug abuse and addiction
• D. Careful monitoring should be provided during withdrawal from the drugs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority is to teach the parents that their son will need monitoring and support during withdrawal to ensure that he does not attempt suicide. Option A is incorrect because addiction can be managed and treated effectively with appropriate interventions. Option B is incorrect as tolerance to drugs causing depression is not the primary concern in this scenario. Option C is incorrect as while depression can be a risk factor for drug abuse, in this case, the focus is on the son's safety during withdrawal.

3. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is hospitalized for treatment. Which intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Allow the client to engage in compulsive behaviors as a way to reduce anxiety.
• B. Encourage the client to ignore the compulsive behaviors.
• C. Help the client to understand the purpose of compulsive behaviors.
• D. Work with the client to gradually reduce the frequency of compulsive behaviors.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with OCD is to work with them to gradually reduce the frequency of compulsive behaviors. This approach helps the client manage their condition effectively without causing undue distress. Allowing the client to engage in compulsive behaviors can reinforce the disorder rather than alleviate it. Encouraging the client to ignore compulsive behaviors does not address the core issue of OCD. While helping the client understand the purpose of compulsive behaviors can be beneficial, actively working to reduce these behaviors is more crucial in the treatment of OCD.

4. The parents of a 14-year-old boy bring their son to the hospital. He is lethargic but responsive. The mother states, 'I think he took some of my pain pills.' During the initial assessment of the teenager, what information is most important for the nurse to obtain from the parents?

• A. If he has seemed depressed recently.
• B. If a drug overdose has ever occurred before.
• C. If he might have taken any other drugs.
• D. If he has a desire to quit taking drugs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a situation where a teenager is brought to the hospital after possibly ingesting pills, the most crucial information for the nurse to obtain from the parents is whether the teenager might have taken any other drugs (C). This knowledge is vital for guiding further treatment, such as administering antagonists, making it the top priority. While information about depression (A) and previous drug overdoses (B) is valuable for treatment planning, it is not as critical as knowing all substances taken. Asking about the teenager's desire to quit taking drugs (D) is not appropriate during the acute management of a drug overdose and does not take precedence over determining what other substances might have been ingested.

5. A client is diagnosed with schizophrenia and exhibits apathy, lack of energy, and lack of interest in daily activities. The nurse should recognize that these symptoms are most likely due to which of the following?

• A. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
• B. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
• C. Side effects of antipsychotic medication.
• D. Symptoms of depression.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Apathy, lack of energy, and lack of interest in daily activities are negative symptoms of schizophrenia (A). Positive symptoms of schizophrenia include hallucinations and delusions (B). While antipsychotic medication side effects can sometimes cause lethargy or sedation (C), the scenario specifically describes negative symptoms. Depression can also cause similar symptoms (D), but in the context of schizophrenia, these are recognized as negative symptoms.

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