HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Questions
1. A 40-year-old male client diagnosed with schizophrenia and alcohol dependence has not had any visitors or phone calls since admission. He reports he has no family that cares about him and was living on the streets prior to this admission. According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, which stage is the client in at this time?
- A. Isolation.
- B. Stagnation.
- C. Despair.
- D. Role confusion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client is in Erikson's 'Generativity vs. Stagnation' stage (age 24 to 45). This stage involves maintaining intimate relationships and moving toward developing a family, which the client seems to be struggling with due to lack of visitors and family support. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are incorrect. Isolation typically occurs in young adulthood (age 18 to 25), Despair in maturity (age 45 to death), and Role confusion in adolescence (age 12 to 20). These stages reflect challenges individuals face if they do not successfully navigate their psychosocial developmental tasks.
2. An LPN/LVN is conducting an initial assessment on a client in crisis. When assessing the client's perception of the precipitating event that led to the crisis, the appropriate question to ask is:
- A. With whom do you live?
- B. Who is available to help you?
- C. What leads you to seek help now?
- D. What do you usually do to feel better?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct question to ask when assessing a client's perception of the precipitating event that led to a crisis is 'What leads you to seek help now?' This question directly addresses the client's current situation and triggers that brought them to seek assistance. Choices A and B are more focused on the client's social support system rather than the root cause of the crisis. Choice D addresses coping mechanisms rather than the actual trigger for seeking help.
3. A client with major depressive disorder is being treated with cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which client statement indicates that CBT is having a positive effect?
- A. "I understand now that my negative thoughts are not always true."
- B. "I still feel down, but I am able to go to work."
- C. "I have stopped taking my antidepressant medication."
- D. "I avoid situations that make me feel anxious."
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Recognizing and challenging negative thoughts is a fundamental aspect of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). In this statement, the client demonstrates insight into the fact that their negative thoughts may not always be accurate, showing progress in reframing their thoughts. Choice B indicates some improvement in functioning but does not directly relate to the core principles of CBT. Choice C is concerning as abruptly stopping antidepressant medication can be detrimental to the client's well-being. Choice D reflects avoidance behavior, which is typically a target for intervention in CBT rather than a sign of positive progress.
4. During discharge planning for a male client with schizophrenia who insists on returning to his apartment despite being informed to move to a boarding home, what is the most important nursing diagnosis?
- A. Ineffective denial related to situational anxiety.
- B. Ineffective coping related to inadequate support.
- C. Social isolation related to difficult interactions.
- D. Self-care deficit related to cognitive impairment.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important nursing diagnosis for discharge planning in this scenario is 'Ineffective denial related to situational anxiety.' The client's insistence on returning to his apartment despite being informed otherwise indicates a form of denial, possibly due to anxiety about the situational change. Focused discharge planning should address this denial and the underlying anxiety to ensure a smooth transition. Choices B, C, and D are not as relevant in this context as the primary issue lies in the client's denial and anxiety regarding the change in living arrangements, rather than coping, social interactions, or self-care deficits.
5. A client diagnosed with undifferentiated schizophrenia is being discharged on aripiprazole (Abilify) 5 mg every night. When developing the teaching plan about the most common adverse effects, which of the following should the nurse include? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Headaches that will subside in a few weeks
- B. Transient mild anxiety
- C. Insomnia
- D. Torticollis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Torticollis. Common side effects of aripiprazole include headaches, mild anxiety, and insomnia. These side effects are manageable during treatment. Torticollis is not a common adverse effect associated with aripiprazole and is more commonly seen with other medications or conditions. Therefore, the nurse should not include torticollis in the teaching plan about the most common adverse effects of aripiprazole.
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