HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Questions
1. A 40-year-old male client diagnosed with schizophrenia and alcohol dependence has not had any visitors or phone calls since admission. He reports he has no family that cares about him and was living on the streets prior to this admission. According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, which stage is the client in at this time?
- A. Isolation.
- B. Stagnation.
- C. Despair.
- D. Role confusion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client is in Erikson's 'Generativity vs. Stagnation' stage (age 24 to 45). This stage involves maintaining intimate relationships and moving toward developing a family, which the client seems to be struggling with due to lack of visitors and family support. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are incorrect. Isolation typically occurs in young adulthood (age 18 to 25), Despair in maturity (age 45 to death), and Role confusion in adolescence (age 12 to 20). These stages reflect challenges individuals face if they do not successfully navigate their psychosocial developmental tasks.
2. A teenaged male client is admitted to the postoperative unit following open reduction of a fractured femur which occurred when he fell down the stairs at a party. The nurse notices needle marks on the client's arms and plans to observe for narcotic withdrawal. Early signs of narcotic withdrawal include which assessment findings?
- A. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness.
- B. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness.
- C. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils.
- D. Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps are early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness (Option A) are more indicative of severe withdrawal or overdose symptoms. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness (Option B) are not typically early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils (Option C) are more associated with opioid overdose rather than withdrawal. Monitoring for agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps is crucial for managing narcotic withdrawal symptoms effectively.
3. A young adult male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit because of a recent suicide attempt. His wife filed for divorce six months ago, he lost his job three months ago, and his best friend moved to another city two weeks ago. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to interact with individuals who are recovering from depression.
- B. Allow the client time alone to sort out his feelings.
- C. Avoid discussing topics that upset the client.
- D. Encourage activities that allow the client to exert control over his environment.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Encouraging activities that allow the client to exert control over his environment can be therapeutic in cases of depression and stress. It helps improve the client's sense of agency, which is essential for promoting feelings of empowerment and self-worth. Choice A could potentially be overwhelming for the client, especially considering his recent suicide attempt and ongoing stressors. Choice B might not be the most beneficial intervention as isolation could further exacerbate feelings of loneliness and hopelessness. Choice C, avoiding discussing upsetting subjects, may prevent the client from addressing and processing his emotions, hindering therapeutic progress.
4. What is the best initial action for the nurse to take with a manic depressive male client who becomes loud and verbally aggressive towards a nurse?
- A. Have the staff escort the client to his room.
- B. Tell the client that his behavior will be recorded in his record.
- C. Redirect the client by asking him to engage in a game with peers.
- D. Review the medication record for an antipsychotic drug.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In dealing with a manic depressive client who is being verbally aggressive, the best initial action for the nurse is to redirect the client by engaging him in a more constructive activity, such as playing card games with peers. This approach can help de-escalate the situation, shift the client's focus positively, and provide a distraction from the current behavior. Having the staff escort the client to his room may escalate the situation further. Threatening to record the behavior in his record is not likely to be effective in managing the immediate situation. Reviewing the medication record for an antipsychotic drug is important but would not be the best initial action in this scenario when the client is being verbally aggressive.
5. At the first meeting of a group of older adults at a daycare center for the elderly, the LPN/LVN asks one of the members what kinds of things she would like to do with the group. The older woman shrugs her shoulders and says, 'You tell me, you're the leader.' What is the best response for the nurse to make?
- A. Yes, I am the leader today. Would you like to be the leader tomorrow?
- B. Yes, I will be leading this group. What would you like to accomplish during this time?
- C. Yes, I have been assigned to be the leader of this group. I will be here for the next six weeks.
- D. Yes, I am the leader. You seem angry about not being the leader yourself.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the nurse is choice B: 'Yes, I will be leading this group. What would you like to accomplish during this time?' This response acknowledges the member's comment and encourages her to share her interests, promoting engagement and active participation in group activities. Choice A is not as inclusive and may not foster collaboration within the group. Choice C focuses more on the nurse's assignment rather than addressing the member's input. Choice D assumes emotions that were not expressed by the group member and does not encourage open communication.
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