an adult male client who was admitted to the mental health unit yesterday tells the nurse that microchips were planted in his head for military survei
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Mental Health 2023

1. An adult male client who was admitted to the mental health unit yesterday tells the nurse that microchips were planted in his head for military surveillance of his every move. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Delusions often generate fear and isolation, so the nurse should help the client participate in activities that avoid focusing on the false belief and encourage interaction with others.

2. A newly admitted client describes her mission in life as one of saving her son by eliminating the 'provocative sluts' of the world. There are several attractive young women on the unit. What should the LPN/LVN do first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the LPN/LVN to take first is to ask the client to inform the staff if she has negative thoughts about other clients. This approach is crucial as it helps in monitoring the client's thoughts and behaviors, potentially preventing any harmful actions towards others on the unit. Asking for the client's definition of 'provocative sluts' (Choice A) may not address the immediate concern of monitoring the client's harmful thoughts. Asking the young female clients to dress less provocatively (Choice B) is inappropriate and victim-blaming. Asking the client to discuss her concerns in the next group session (Choice C) may not be effective in addressing the potential harm the client's thoughts could pose to others on the unit.

3. A female client is brought to the emergency department after police officers found her disoriented, disorganized, and confused. The RN also determines that the client is homeless and is exhibiting suspiciousness. The client's plan of care should include what priority problem?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acute confusion is the priority problem as it directly affects the client's ability to process information and make safe decisions. In this scenario, the client's disorientation, disorganization, and confusion indicate an immediate cognitive issue that requires attention to ensure her safety and stability. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority problems in this case. Ineffective community coping, disturbed sensory perception, and self-care deficit, while important, are secondary to the client's acute confusion, which poses an immediate risk to her well-being.

4. A female client in an acute care facility has been on antipsychotic medications for the past three days. Her psychotic behaviors have decreased and she has had no adverse reactions. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. What action should the nurse initiate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to initiate is to take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately. These symptoms may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications, requiring immediate medical attention. Placing the client on seizure precautions and monitoring her frequently (Choice A) is not the most appropriate action in this situation. Describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them in the client's record (Choice C) delays prompt medical intervention. Choosing not to take any action (Choice D) is dangerous as the symptoms described suggest a serious condition that needs urgent evaluation and treatment.

5. A client who is being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness. What action should the LPN/LVN take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops symptoms like diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness, it could indicate lithium toxicity. The appropriate action for the LPN/LVN is to notify the healthcare provider immediately of these symptoms before the next administration of the drug. This prompt communication is crucial to ensure that the healthcare provider can assess the situation, adjust the treatment plan if necessary, and prevent potential complications associated with lithium toxicity. Option A is incorrect because administering an antidote should be based on the healthcare provider's assessment. Option C is incorrect as these symptoms are not normal side effects and could indicate a serious issue. Option D is incorrect because refusing to administer the drug without consulting the healthcare provider could delay necessary interventions.

Similar Questions

A client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit after a suicide attempt. The client frequently expresses feelings of emptiness and fears of abandonment. What is the most therapeutic nursing approach for this client?
A client with schizophrenia is experiencing distressful thoughts secondary to paranoia. Which intervention(s) should the LPN/LVN include in the plan of care? Select one intervention that does not apply.
A 20-year-old female client with schizophrenia is scheduled to receive risperidone (Risperdal) 2mg at bedtime. When the nurse attempts to administer the medication, the client states, 'I am not going to take that medicine, and you can't make me.' What action should the nurse take?
Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care for a severely depressed client with neurovegetative symptoms? (select one that does not apply.)
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