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HESI Mental Health Practice Questions
1. A client on the psychiatric unit appears to imitate a certain nurse on the unit. The client seeks out this particular nurse and imitates her mannerisms. Which defense mechanism does the nurse recognize in this client?
- A. Sublimation.
- B. Identification.
- C. Introjection.
- D. Repression.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Identification is the correct answer. It is a defense mechanism where an individual unconsciously models themselves after someone they admire or feel close to. In this scenario, the client is imitating the nurse's mannerisms, indicating identification. Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Introjection is the internalization of external attitudes or voices, while repression involves suppressing unwanted thoughts or desires.
2. A client with bipolar disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit in a manic state. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?
- A. Allow the client to engage in any activity they choose.
- B. Provide a structured environment with reduced stimuli.
- C. Encourage the client to express their thoughts freely.
- D. Place the client in a room with another client for socialization.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a manic state, individuals with bipolar disorder may exhibit hyperactivity, impulsivity, and reduced need for sleep. Providing a structured environment with reduced stimuli is the most therapeutic nursing intervention as it can help manage the client's excessive energy and prevent overstimulation. Choice A is incorrect as allowing the client to engage in any activity they choose may exacerbate their symptoms or lead to risky behaviors. Choice C, encouraging the client to express their thoughts freely, may not be appropriate during a manic state as it can further escalate their racing thoughts. Choice D, placing the client in a room with another client for socialization, may not be beneficial during a manic episode as it could increase stimulation and potentially lead to agitation.
3. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations that command him to harm himself. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Ensure the client is not left alone.
- B. Document the content of the hallucinations.
- C. Administer PRN antipsychotic medication.
- D. Encourage the client to ignore the voices.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the client is not left alone. When a client with schizophrenia is having auditory hallucinations that command self-harm, the priority is to ensure the client's safety. Leaving the client alone may increase the risk of self-harm. Documenting the content of the hallucinations (choice B) is important but not the priority when immediate safety is a concern. Administering PRN antipsychotic medication (choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority over ensuring the client's immediate safety. Encouraging the client to ignore the voices (choice D) is not as effective as ensuring the client's safety by being present and providing support.
4. A male client with schizophrenia tells the nurse that the FBI is monitoring his phone calls. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Let's talk about your feelings of being monitored.
- B. There is no evidence that the FBI is monitoring your calls.
- C. Why do you think the FBI is interested in your phone calls?
- D. I can assure you that your phone calls are not being monitored.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to choose A: 'Let's talk about your feelings of being monitored.' This response shows empathy and encourages the client to express his feelings. Engaging the client in a discussion about his feelings can help address underlying fears without directly challenging the delusion. Choice B is incorrect because directly denying the delusion may lead to increased distrust or agitation in the client. Choice C may come across as confrontational, which can exacerbate the client's paranoia. Choice D offers a false sense of assurance and does not address the client's concerns effectively.
5. A 45-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for evaluation. Her husband states that she has been reluctant to leave home for the last six months. The client has not gone to work for a month and has been terminated from her job. She has not left the house since that time. This client is displaying symptoms of what condition?
- A. Claustrophobia
- B. Acrophobia
- C. Agoraphobia
- D. Post-traumatic stress disorder
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Agoraphobia. Agoraphobia is the fear of crowds or being in open places, often leading individuals to avoid situations where they feel trapped, insecure, or out of control. In the case described, the client's reluctance to leave home, avoidance of work, and isolation within the house are indicative of agoraphobia. Claustrophobia (A) is the fear of closed places, while acrophobia (B) is the fear of high places. Post-traumatic stress disorder (D) involves the development of anxiety symptoms following a traumatic event, characterized by terror, fear, and helplessness, and is different from a phobia.
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