Nursing Elites

1. A 22-year-old male client is admitted to the emergency center following a suicide attempt. His records reveal that this is his third suicide attempt in the past two years. He is conscious, but does not respond to verbal commands for treatment. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to prepare the client for gastric lavage?

• A. He ingested the drug 3 hours prior to admission to the emergency center.
• B. The family reports that he took an entire bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol).
• C. He is unresponsive to instructions and is unable to cooperate with emetic therapy.
• D. Those with repeated suicide attempts desire punishment to relieve their guilt.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client's unresponsiveness to instructions and inability to cooperate with emetic therapy would make it challenging to implement such therapy effectively. In such cases, gastric lavage may be necessary to remove the ingested substance. Choices A and B are important considerations in treatment planning but do not directly indicate the need for gastric lavage. Choice D is incorrect as medical treatments should never be used as punitive measures but rather for therapeutic purposes.

2. A client with generalized anxiety disorder is being treated with lorazepam (Ativan). What is the most important teaching point for the LPN/LVN to reinforce?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. This medication may cause drowsiness, so avoid driving.
• D. You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important teaching point for the LPN/LVN to reinforce is to avoid drinking alcohol while taking lorazepam (Ativan). Alcohol can enhance the sedative effects of lorazepam, increasing the risk of severe side effects and complications. Choice A is incorrect because lorazepam can be taken with or without food. Choice C is not the most critical teaching point, although it is essential to avoid activities that require mental alertness until the effects of the medication are known. Choice D is incorrect because abruptly stopping lorazepam can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision.

3. A client's medication sheet contains a prescription for sertraline (Zoloft). To ensure safe administration of the medication, a nurse would administer the dose:

• A. On an empty stomach
• B. At the same time each evening
• C. Evenly spaced around the clock
• D. As needed when the client complains of depression

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'At the same time each evening.' Sertraline should be administered at the same time each evening to maintain steady drug levels and effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because sertraline can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as sertraline does not need to be spaced around the clock. Choice D is incorrect as sertraline is a scheduled medication and should not be taken on an as-needed basis for complaints of depression.

4. The LPN/LVN is assessing a client who is taking an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following symptoms is uniquely indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) and requires immediate attention?

• A. Very high temperature
• B. Muscular rigidity
• C. Tremors
• D. Altered consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A very high temperature is a hallmark symptom of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS), which is a rare but potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. This symptom is uniquely indicative of NMS and requires immediate medical attention. Muscular rigidity, tremors, and altered consciousness can be seen in other conditions but are not as specifically linked to NMS as a very high temperature.

5. A client is admitted to the mental health unit and sits in the corner of the day room. When the nurse begins the admission assessment interview, the client is guarded, suspicious, and resists talking. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Attempt to ask the client simple questions.
• B. Postpone the client interview until the next day.
• C. Ask another nurse to talk with the client.
• D. Document the client's paranoid behavior.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is guarded, suspicious, and resistant to talking, it is important for the nurse to attempt to ask the client simple questions. Simple questions can help build rapport, establish trust, and create a non-threatening environment. This approach may ease the client into more detailed discussions while reducing feelings of suspicion. Postponing the interview may increase the client's anxiety and distrust, while asking another nurse to talk with the client may disrupt continuity of care and the establishment of a therapeutic relationship. Documenting the client's behavior is important for the client's medical record, but it should not be the first action taken in this situation.

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