Nursing Elites

1. A 22-year-old male client is admitted to the emergency center following a suicide attempt. His records reveal that this is his third suicide attempt in the past two years. He is conscious, but does not respond to verbal commands for treatment. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to prepare the client for gastric lavage?

• A. He ingested the drug 3 hours prior to admission to the emergency center.
• B. The family reports that he took an entire bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol).
• C. He is unresponsive to instructions and is unable to cooperate with emetic therapy.
• D. Those with repeated suicide attempts desire punishment to relieve their guilt.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client's unresponsiveness to instructions and inability to cooperate with emetic therapy would make it challenging to implement such therapy effectively. In such cases, gastric lavage may be necessary to remove the ingested substance. Choices A and B are important considerations in treatment planning but do not directly indicate the need for gastric lavage. Choice D is incorrect as medical treatments should never be used as punitive measures but rather for therapeutic purposes.

2. A client with schizophrenia receiving haloperidol (Haldol) has a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
• B. Encourage the client to perform facial exercises.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
• D. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). The symptoms described, such as a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking, are indicative of EPS, which can be a serious side effect of haloperidol. It is crucial to involve the healthcare provider immediately to address these symptoms. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation, as it does not address the underlying cause of EPS. Encouraging the client to perform facial exercises (Choice B) is not appropriate and may not effectively manage EPS. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor the client (Choice D) is important but not the priority when potential EPS is present; immediate action by notifying the healthcare provider is essential.

3. A client with anorexia nervosa is being treated in an inpatient unit. Which intervention is a priority for the nurse?

• A. Encourage the client to exercise to build muscle mass.
• B. Provide liquid supplements between meals.
• C. Allow the client to choose their own meals.
• D. Monitor the client's weight daily.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring the client's weight daily is a priority intervention for a nurse caring for a client with anorexia nervosa. Weight monitoring is crucial in assessing the client's progress and adjusting treatment as necessary to prevent complications such as refeeding syndrome, electrolyte imbalances, and cardiac issues. Encouraging exercise (Choice A) can exacerbate the client's unhealthy relationship with food and body image. Providing liquid supplements (Choice B) is important but may not be the priority over monitoring weight. Allowing the client to choose their own meals (Choice C) may not be suitable initially as they may make unhealthy choices or avoid meals altogether.

4. A client with panic disorder is experiencing a panic attack. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to breathe slowly and deeply.
• B. Ask the client to describe the sensations they are experiencing.
• C. Encourage the client to focus on a calming image.
• D. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Encouraging slow, deep breathing is the priority intervention during a panic attack as it can help reduce the physiological symptoms and assist the client in regaining control. This technique can help decrease hyperventilation and promote relaxation. Choice B, asking the client to describe sensations, may be beneficial after the panic attack has subsided to gain insight into triggers or manifestations. Choice C, encouraging the client to focus on a calming image, can be helpful in managing anxiety but may not be as effective during the acute phase of a panic attack. Choice D, administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan), should only be considered if the client does not respond to initial non-pharmacological interventions or if the symptoms are severe and unmanageable.

5. The RN documents the mental status of a female client who has been hospitalized for several days by court order. The client states 'I don't need to be here,' and tells the RN that she believes that the TV talks to her. The RN should document these assessment statements in which section of the mental status exam?

• A. Insight and judgment.
• B. Mood and affect.
• C. Remote memory.
• D. Level of concentration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Insight and judgment. The client's statements indicate her lack of insight into her need for hospitalization ('I don't need to be here') and the presence of a delusion (believing that the TV talks to her). These statements reflect the client's insight into her condition and judgment. This information is crucial for assessing the client's understanding of her situation and decision-making capacity. Choice B, Mood and affect, focuses on the client's emotional state rather than her insight and judgment. Choice C, Remote memory, pertains to the ability to recall past events, which is not the primary focus of the client's statements. Choice D, Level of concentration, is not directly related to the client's statements about her need for hospitalization and the delusional belief about the TV.

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