a client with schizophrenia who has been stabilized on medication is being discharged from the hospital what discharge teaching is most important for
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Mental Health Practice Exam

1. A client with schizophrenia who has been stabilized on medication is being discharged from the hospital. What discharge teaching is most important for the LPN/LVN to reinforce?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Reinforcing the importance of adhering to the prescribed medication regimen is crucial for preventing relapse in clients with schizophrenia. Compliance with medication is essential in managing the symptoms and preventing a worsening of the condition. Choice B, recognizing early signs of relapse, is important but secondary to ensuring medication adherence. Choice C, follow-up appointments, is also important but not as critical as medication compliance immediately post-discharge. Choice D, maintaining a healthy lifestyle, is beneficial for overall health but is not as directly linked to preventing relapse in schizophrenia as medication adherence.

2. A 30-year-old sales manager tells the nurse, 'I am thinking about a job change. I don't feel like I am living up to my potential.' Which of Maslow's developmental stages is the sales manager attempting to achieve?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Self-Actualization. Self-actualization is the highest level of Maslow's development stages, characterized by the desire to fulfill one's full potential and achieve personal growth. In this scenario, the sales manager's statement indicates a need for personal fulfillment and reaching his highest aspirations, aligning with the concept of self-actualization. Choice B, Loving and Belonging, refers to the need for social relationships and support systems. Choice C, Basic Needs, represents the foundation level of Maslow's hierarchy, encompassing physiological needs like food and shelter. Choice D, Safety and Security, pertains to the need for physical and emotional safety.

3. An elderly female client with advanced dementia is admitted to the hospital with a fractured hip. The client repeatedly tells the staff, 'Take me home. I want my Mommy.' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Those with dementia often refer to home or parents when seeking security and comfort. The nurse should use the techniques of 'offering self' and 'talking to the feelings' to provide reassurance (B). Clients with advanced dementia have permanent physiological changes in the brain (plaques and tangles) that prevent them from comprehending and retaining new information, so choices A, C, and D are likely to be of little use to this client and do not address the emotional needs expressed by the client. Option B acknowledges the client's feelings, offers support, and provides reassurance, which can help comfort the client during this distressing time.

4. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who was recently diagnosed with a mental illness. The client asks, 'Will I be able to live a normal life?' What is the best response for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to provide the client with hope while acknowledging the importance of their treatment and choices. Choice C addresses the client's concern by highlighting the impact of their treatment and personal choices on their future. It encourages personal responsibility and active participation in their recovery. Choices A and B may sound reassuring, but they do not empower the client to take an active role in their well-being. Choice D, while promoting individuality, does not directly address the client's question about living a normal life after a mental illness diagnosis.

5. The nurse is taking a history for a female client who is requesting a routine female exam. Which assessment finding requires follow-up?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Experiencing a 'black-out' after consuming only one drink is highly unusual and may indicate the client was drugged, necessitating immediate follow-up. Menstruation onset at age 9 and a menstrual cycle occurring every 35 days, although on the outer ranges of 'average,' are within acceptable norms. Relying solely on condoms as a contraceptive method increases the risk of conception.

Similar Questions

A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
A client with bipolar disorder is started on a regimen of valproic acid (Depakote). Which laboratory test is most important for the nurse to monitor?
The nurse should hold the next scheduled dose of a client's haloperidol (Haldol) based on which assessment finding(s)?
The LPN/LVN calls security and has physical restraints applied when a client who was admitted voluntarily becomes both physically and verbally abusive while demanding to be discharged from the hospital. Which represents the possible legal ramifications for the nurse associated with these interventions? Select one that does not apply.
A female client on the psychiatric unit tells the nurse that she feels like ending her life because she can no longer deal with her depression. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses