HESI LPN
LPN Nutrition Practice Test
1. What should be included in the medical management of a sickle cell crisis?
- A. Information for parents on home care
- B. Adequate hydration and pain management
- C. Pain management and iron supplements
- D. Adequate oxygenation and factor VIII
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Adequate hydration and pain management. During a sickle cell crisis, it is essential to provide hydration to prevent vaso-occlusive events and manage pain effectively with analgesics. Adequate hydration helps maintain blood flow and prevent further sickling of red blood cells. Pain management is crucial to alleviate the severe pain associated with sickle cell crises. Options A, C, and D are incorrect. Providing information for parents on home care (Option A) may be important for ongoing management but is not specific to an acute crisis. Iron supplements (Option C) are not typically indicated during a sickle cell crisis. Adequate oxygenation and factor VIII (Option D) are not primary interventions for managing a sickle cell crisis; instead, oxygen therapy may be considered in severe cases, and factor VIII is not a standard treatment for sickle cell disease.
2. A 6-year-old child with a diagnosis of juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is being discharged. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Encourage participation in physical activity
- B. Provide a high-calorie diet
- C. Provide a low-sodium diet
- D. Administer intravenous fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging regular physical activity is essential in managing symptoms and improving joint function in juvenile idiopathic arthritis. Physical activity helps maintain joint mobility, muscle strength, and overall function. Providing a high-calorie diet may not be necessary unless there are specific concerns about the child's nutritional status. A low-sodium diet is not typically a priority in the management of JIA unless the child has comorbid conditions requiring sodium restriction. Administering intravenous fluids is not a standard discharge teaching for JIA unless there are specific medical indications necessitating it.
3. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who reports chills and aching joints. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the client has an infection?
- A. WBC 15,000/mm³
- B. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
- C. Platelet count 300,000/mm³
- D. Sodium 140 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An elevated white blood cell count (WBC 15,000/mm³) is a common indicator of infection as the body increases WBC production to fight off pathogens. In conditions like infections, inflammation, or stress, the WBC count can rise. The other options, hemoglobin, platelet count, and sodium levels, are not typically specific indicators of infection. Hemoglobin measures the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells, platelet count assesses clotting ability, and sodium levels indicate electrolyte balance.
4. Based on non-compliance with the medication regimen, an adult client with a medical diagnosis of substance abuse and schizophrenia was recently switched from oral fluphenazine HCl (Prolixin) to IM fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin Decanoate). What is most important to teach the client and family about this change in medication regimen?
- A. Signs and symptoms of extrapyramidal effects (EPS).
- B. Information about substance abuse and schizophrenia.
- C. The effects of alcohol and drug interaction.
- D. The availability of support groups for those with dual diagnoses.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Teaching about the effects of alcohol and drug interaction is crucial to prevent adverse reactions, especially with the long-acting injectable form of fluphenazine. Understanding how alcohol and drugs can interact with the medication will help the client and family to ensure medication effectiveness and avoid potential harmful effects. Choices A, B, and D are not the most important to teach in this scenario. While knowing the signs and symptoms of extrapyramidal effects (EPS) is important, understanding the effects of alcohol and drug interaction is more critical in this specific situation. Information about substance abuse and schizophrenia, as well as the availability of support groups, are essential aspects of care but are not the primary focus when switching to a long-acting injectable medication due to non-compliance.
5. A client with a severe peanut allergy accidentally ingested peanut-containing food and is experiencing anaphylaxis. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer an epinephrine injection
- B. Call for immediate medical help
- C. Monitor airway, breathing, and circulation
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority action for a client experiencing anaphylaxis due to a severe peanut allergy is to administer an epinephrine injection. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it can rapidly reverse the severe allergic reaction. While calling for immediate medical help is important, administering epinephrine takes precedence because it can be life-saving in this situation. Monitoring airway, breathing, and circulation is essential in managing anaphylaxis, but administering epinephrine is the priority action to halt the progression of the allergic reaction and stabilize the client's condition. Therefore, 'Administer an epinephrine injection' is the most critical initial intervention.