Nursing Elites

1. What should be included in the medical management of a sickle cell crisis?

• A. Information for parents on home care
• B. Adequate hydration and pain management
• C. Pain management and iron supplements
• D. Adequate oxygenation and factor VIII

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Adequate hydration and pain management. During a sickle cell crisis, it is essential to provide hydration to prevent vaso-occlusive events and manage pain effectively with analgesics. Adequate hydration helps maintain blood flow and prevent further sickling of red blood cells. Pain management is crucial to alleviate the severe pain associated with sickle cell crises. Options A, C, and D are incorrect. Providing information for parents on home care (Option A) may be important for ongoing management but is not specific to an acute crisis. Iron supplements (Option C) are not typically indicated during a sickle cell crisis. Adequate oxygenation and factor VIII (Option D) are not primary interventions for managing a sickle cell crisis; instead, oxygen therapy may be considered in severe cases, and factor VIII is not a standard treatment for sickle cell disease.

2. What role do fats play in the human body?

• A. They provide a concentrated source of energy.
• B. They are the building blocks of enzymes and hormones.
• C. They are essential for brain function and development.
• D. They aid in the digestion of food.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fats play various essential roles in the human body, one of which is aiding in the digestion of food. While fats do provide a concentrated source of energy, the primary source is carbohydrates. Proteins are the building blocks of enzymes and hormones, not fats. Essential fatty acids found in fats are vital for brain function and development, but this is not the primary role of fats in the body.

3. Parents of a 6-month-old child, diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia, ask why it was not diagnosed earlier. What should the nurse say?

• A. Are you sure your child has iron deficiency anemia?
• B. Maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.
• C. This anemia is caused by blood loss.
• D. The child may not have had it for a long time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.' Iron deficiency anemia becomes apparent around 6 months of age when the infant's iron stores, primarily received from the mother during pregnancy, are depleted. This timing coincides with the introduction of solid foods, which may lack sufficient iron. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific reason why iron deficiency anemia is typically diagnosed around 6 months of age.

4. How should hydration status be assessed in a child with vomiting and diarrhea?

• A. Check skin turgor and mucous membranes
• B. Measure blood glucose levels
• C. Assess heart rate and blood pressure
• D. Evaluate bowel sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Checking skin turgor and mucous membranes is the appropriate method to assess hydration status in a child with vomiting and diarrhea. Skin turgor is an indicator of skin elasticity, which decreases when an individual is dehydrated. Mucous membranes, such as the inside of the mouth, can also show signs of dehydration like dryness. Measuring blood glucose levels (choice B) is not relevant to assessing hydration status in this scenario. Assessing heart rate and blood pressure (choice C) is important in evaluating the overall condition of a child but may not directly indicate hydration status. Evaluating bowel sounds (choice D) is more related to assessing gastrointestinal function rather than hydration status.

5. What type of vaccine should a child with a history of severe allergic reactions receive?

• A. Live attenuated vaccines
• B. Inactivated vaccines
• C. Subunit vaccines
• D. Recombinant vaccines

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Children with a history of severe allergic reactions should receive inactivated vaccines because they do not contain live pathogens. Live attenuated vaccines (choice A) contain weakened live pathogens and can potentially trigger an allergic reaction in sensitive individuals. Subunit vaccines (choice C) and recombinant vaccines (choice D) may contain components that could still trigger an allergic response in individuals with a history of severe allergies. Inactivated vaccines are the safest choice for individuals with a history of severe allergic reactions as they do not pose a risk of causing an allergic reaction due to the absence of live pathogens.

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