HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. The nurse is teaching a client with hypertension about lifestyle modifications. Which recommendation is most effective for lowering blood pressure?
- A. Increase intake of red meat
- B. Engage in regular physical activity
- C. Consume a high-sodium diet
- D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Engaging in regular physical activity is a highly effective recommendation for lowering blood pressure and improving overall cardiovascular health. Regular exercise helps to strengthen the heart, improve blood circulation, and manage weight, all of which contribute to reducing blood pressure levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of red meat can lead to higher saturated fat consumption, which is detrimental to heart health. Consuming a high-sodium diet can exacerbate hypertension by increasing blood pressure. Limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day may lead to dehydration and is not a recommended approach for managing hypertension.
2. In a community health setting, which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?
- A. 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners
- B. 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship
- C. 30-year-old cocaine user who inhales and smokes drugs
- D. 45-year-old who has received two blood transfusions in the past 6 months
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Substance abuse, particularly using shared inhalation equipment like needles and pipes for drug inhalation, significantly increases the risk of contracting HIV. Choice A, the 17-year-old with multiple sexual partners, poses a risk of HIV transmission through sexual contact, but it is lower compared to the direct risk associated with sharing drug paraphernalia. Choice B, the 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship, is at lower risk since being in a monogamous relationship reduces exposure to HIV. Choice D, the 45-year-old who received blood transfusions, is also at lower risk as blood transfusions are now screened for HIV, decreasing the likelihood of transmission through this route.
3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just undergone abdominal surgery. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Absence of bowel sounds
- B. Mild abdominal distention
- C. Drainage of serosanguineous fluid from the incision
- D. Sudden onset of severe abdominal pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sudden onset of severe abdominal pain may indicate complications such as peritonitis, bowel perforation, or internal bleeding. These conditions are serious and require immediate medical attention to prevent further complications or deterioration. Absence of bowel sounds, mild abdominal distention, and drainage of serosanguineous fluid are common findings after abdominal surgery and may not necessarily indicate an emergency situation requiring immediate reporting to the healthcare provider. Severe abdominal pain post-surgery should always be reported promptly as it could signify a life-threatening situation that needs urgent evaluation and intervention.
4. A client is scheduled for an abdominal ultrasound in the morning and has been instructed to fast overnight. The client asks the nurse why fasting is necessary. What is the best response?
- A. It helps reduce the production of intestinal gases.
- B. It ensures clearer imaging by emptying the stomach.
- C. It prevents the risk of aspiration during the procedure.
- D. It is a standard procedure for all surgical interventions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It ensures clearer imaging by emptying the stomach.' Fasting before an abdominal ultrasound is essential to empty the stomach, allowing for better visualization of the abdominal organs. This improves the quality of the imaging and enhances diagnostic accuracy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because reducing intestinal gases, preventing aspiration, and being a standard procedure for surgical interventions are not the primary reasons for fasting before an abdominal ultrasound.
5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is struggling to breathe. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate according to the prescription
- B. Encourage the client to perform pursed-lip breathing
- C. Prepare for emergency intubation
- D. Assess the client's oxygen saturation and breath sounds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct first action for a nurse when a client with COPD is struggling to breathe is to assess the client's oxygen saturation and breath sounds. This initial assessment is crucial in determining the severity of the client's condition and the appropriate intervention. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without proper assessment can potentially be harmful, as COPD clients have a risk of retaining carbon dioxide. Encouraging pursed-lip breathing can be beneficial but should come after assessing the client's current status. Emergency intubation is a drastic measure and should only be considered after a comprehensive assessment indicates the need for it.
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