HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. The nurse is teaching a client with hypertension about lifestyle modifications. Which recommendation is most effective for lowering blood pressure?
- A. Increase intake of red meat
- B. Engage in regular physical activity
- C. Consume a high-sodium diet
- D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Engaging in regular physical activity is a highly effective recommendation for lowering blood pressure and improving overall cardiovascular health. Regular exercise helps to strengthen the heart, improve blood circulation, and manage weight, all of which contribute to reducing blood pressure levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of red meat can lead to higher saturated fat consumption, which is detrimental to heart health. Consuming a high-sodium diet can exacerbate hypertension by increasing blood pressure. Limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day may lead to dehydration and is not a recommended approach for managing hypertension.
2. The client with diabetes is being taught about the importance of foot care. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. ''I will inspect my feet daily for any cuts or blisters.''
- B. ''I will soak my feet in warm water every day.''
- C. ''I will wear shoes that fit properly to avoid injury.''
- D. ''I will avoid walking barefoot to protect my feet.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because soaking feet daily can lead to skin breakdown, making it inappropriate for clients with diabetes. Inspecting feet daily for cuts or blisters (Choice A), wearing properly fitting shoes (Choice C), and avoiding walking barefoot (Choice D) are all appropriate measures to maintain foot health for clients with diabetes.
3. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?
- A. Possible exposure to an environmental staphylococcus infection can infect the newborn's eyes and cause visual deficits
- B. The newborn is at risk for blindness from a corneal syphilitic infection acquired from a mother's infected vagina
- C. Treatment prevents tear duct obstruction with harmful exudate from a vaginal birth that can lead to dry eyes in the newborn
- D. State law mandates all newborns receive prophylactic treatment to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.
4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which intervention is a priority during the acute phase?
- A. Administer morphine for pain relief
- B. Encourage the client to perform isometric exercises
- C. Position the client flat in bed
- D. Restrict fluid intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During the acute phase of a myocardial infarction (MI), the priority intervention is to administer morphine for pain relief. Morphine not only alleviates pain but also reduces myocardial oxygen demand, which is crucial in the management of MI. Encouraging the client to perform isometric exercises (choice B) can increase myocardial oxygen demand and should be avoided during the acute phase. Positioning the client flat in bed (choice C) may worsen symptoms by increasing venous return and workload on the heart. Restricting fluid intake (choice D) is not a priority intervention during the acute phase of MI; maintaining adequate hydration is important for organ perfusion.
5. The nurse observes a client with new-onset tachycardia. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Check for the client's temperature
- B. Administer prescribed beta-blockers
- C. Assess for any chest pain or discomfort
- D. Monitor the client's blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client presents with new-onset tachycardia, the first action the nurse should take is to assess for any associated symptoms like chest pain or discomfort. This is important to differentiate the potential causes of tachycardia and guide appropriate interventions. Checking the client's temperature (Choice A) may be relevant in certain situations but is not the priority when tachycardia is observed. Administering prescribed beta-blockers (Choice B) should only be done after a comprehensive assessment and healthcare provider's orders. Monitoring the client's blood pressure (Choice D) is important, but assessing for chest pain or discomfort takes precedence in this scenario to rule out cardiac causes of tachycardia.
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