HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Final Exam
1. A client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed nitroglycerin. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Increases heart rate
- B. Lowers blood pressure
- C. Dilates coronary arteries
- D. Reduces myocardial oxygen demand
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nitroglycerin dilates coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle. This helps increase oxygen supply to the heart tissue. Option A, 'Increases heart rate,' is incorrect because nitroglycerin does not directly affect heart rate. Option B, 'Lowers blood pressure,' is also incorrect as while nitroglycerin can lower blood pressure, its primary action in the context of MI is related to coronary artery dilation. Option D, 'Reduces myocardial oxygen demand,' is not the primary action of nitroglycerin in the treatment of myocardial infarction; its main action is to increase oxygen supply by dilating coronary arteries.
2. A client with heart failure is prescribed a low-sodium diet. The nurse notices the client's meal tray contains high-sodium foods. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Educate the client about the importance of a low-sodium diet
- B. Replace the meal with a low-sodium option
- C. Report the error to the dietary department
- D. Encourage the client to avoid eating the high-sodium foods
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to replace the high-sodium meal with a low-sodium option. This immediate intervention ensures that the client adheres to the prescribed low-sodium diet, crucial for managing heart failure and preventing fluid retention. Educating the client (Choice A) about the diet is important but not as urgent as ensuring they receive the correct meal. Reporting the error to the dietary department (Choice C) can be done after addressing the immediate issue. Encouraging the client to avoid high-sodium foods (Choice D) is not as effective as replacing the current meal with a suitable alternative.
3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which lab value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. Hemoglobin
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Platelet count
- D. INR
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, INR (International Normalized Ratio). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication commonly prescribed for conditions like atrial fibrillation. Monitoring the INR helps healthcare providers ensure that the blood is clotting within a therapeutic range. Hemoglobin (Choice A), white blood cell count (Choice B), and platelet count (Choice C) are not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in this context.
4. The healthcare provider plans to assess a newborn and check the infant's Moro reflex. What is the healthcare provider evaluating?
- A. Neurological integrity
- B. Renal functioning
- C. Thermoregulation
- D. Respiratory adequacy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Moro reflex is an instinctive response observed in newborns, indicating their neurological integrity. This reflex is evaluated by eliciting a startle response in the infant, involving the sudden extension and abduction of the limbs, followed by their retraction. This assessment helps in determining the proper functioning of the infant's nervous system and brain. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not relate to the evaluation of the Moro reflex. Renal functioning pertains to kidney function, thermoregulation refers to temperature control, and respiratory adequacy involves assessing breathing and oxygenation levels, none of which are evaluated through the Moro reflex.
5. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?
- A. Possible exposure to an environmental staphylococcus infection can infect the newborn's eyes and cause visual deficits
- B. The newborn is at risk for blindness from a corneal syphilitic infection acquired from a mother's infected vagina
- C. Treatment prevents tear duct obstruction with harmful exudate from a vaginal birth that can lead to dry eyes in the newborn
- D. State law mandates all newborns receive prophylactic treatment to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.
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