HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Final Exam
1. A client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed nitroglycerin. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Increases heart rate
- B. Lowers blood pressure
- C. Dilates coronary arteries
- D. Reduces myocardial oxygen demand
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nitroglycerin dilates coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle. This helps increase oxygen supply to the heart tissue. Option A, 'Increases heart rate,' is incorrect because nitroglycerin does not directly affect heart rate. Option B, 'Lowers blood pressure,' is also incorrect as while nitroglycerin can lower blood pressure, its primary action in the context of MI is related to coronary artery dilation. Option D, 'Reduces myocardial oxygen demand,' is not the primary action of nitroglycerin in the treatment of myocardial infarction; its main action is to increase oxygen supply by dilating coronary arteries.
2. Before a client undergoes a Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) scan with contrast, what should the nurse assess?
- A. If the client has any metal implants
- B. If the client has allergies to iodine or shellfish
- C. If the client has a history of claustrophobia
- D. If the client has ever had a similar procedure before
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Before an MRI scan with contrast, the nurse should assess if the client has any metal implants. Metal implants can interfere with the magnetic field of the MRI, which can pose a risk to the client's safety and compromise the quality of the scan. Assessing for allergies to iodine or shellfish (Choice B) is important for contrast agents but not specific to metal implants. Claustrophobia assessment (Choice C) is relevant for MRI scans due to the confined space but not specific to metal implants. Past procedures (Choice D) are important for comparison but not directly related to the risks associated with metal implants during an MRI scan with contrast.
3. The nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a hip replacement. Which intervention is most important to prevent dislocation of the prosthesis?
- A. Keep the client in a low Fowler's position.
- B. Maintain hip abduction with pillows.
- C. Encourage early ambulation.
- D. Place the client in a prone position.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Maintaining hip abduction with pillows is the most important intervention to prevent dislocation of the hip prosthesis postoperatively. This position helps keep the hip joint stable and prevents excessive internal rotation, which can lead to dislocation. Keeping the client in a low Fowler's position (Choice A) does not provide the necessary support and stability for the hip joint. While early ambulation (Choice C) is important for preventing complications such as blood clots and promoting circulation, it is not the most crucial intervention for preventing dislocation. Placing the client in a prone position (Choice D) can be harmful and increase the risk of dislocation.
4. A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis. What is the most critical treatment to initiate?
- A. Administer sodium bicarbonate IV
- B. Start an insulin drip
- C. Monitor glucose and ketone levels
- D. Provide oral hydration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the case of diabetic ketoacidosis, the most critical treatment to initiate is starting an insulin drip. Insulin therapy is crucial for reducing blood glucose levels by promoting glucose uptake in cells and inhibiting the production of ketones. Administering sodium bicarbonate IV is generally not recommended as it may lower the pH further and potentially worsen the condition. While monitoring glucose and ketone levels is important for assessing the response to treatment, initiating insulin therapy takes precedence. Providing oral hydration alone is insufficient to manage the metabolic derangements seen in diabetic ketoacidosis.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder who has been prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What is the most important teaching point?
- A. Take the medication with or without food.
- B. Report any increase in suicidal thoughts.
- C. Avoid foods high in tyramine.
- D. Expect improvement within 24 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct teaching point is to instruct the client to report any increase in suicidal thoughts. This is crucial because SSRIs like fluoxetine can initially increase suicidal ideation, especially at the beginning of treatment. Choice A is corrected to emphasize that fluoxetine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is unrelated as it pertains more to MAOIs than SSRIs like fluoxetine. Choice D is inaccurate as antidepressants like fluoxetine may take weeks to show significant improvement in symptoms, not within 24 hours.
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