HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. A hospitalized toddler who is recovering from a sickle cell crisis holds a toy and says, 'Mine.' According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, this child's behavior is a demonstration of which developmental stage?
- A. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
- B. Industry vs. Inferiority
- C. Initiative vs. Guilt
- D. Trust vs. Mistrust
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The toddler's behavior of asserting possession ('Mine') reflects a desire for independence, aligning with Erikson's stage of Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt. This stage, typical for toddlers aged 1-3 years, focuses on developing a sense of control and independence. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Industry vs. Inferiority relates to middle childhood, Initiative vs. Guilt pertains to preschoolers, and Trust vs. Mistrust is associated with infancy.
2. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent complications associated with Pneumonia?
- A. Encourage mobilization and ambulation
- B. Encourage energy conservation with complete bed rest
- C. Provide humidified oxygen via nasal cannula
- D. Restrict oral (PO) and intravenous fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention to prevent complications associated with pneumonia is to encourage mobilization and ambulation. These activities help prevent complications such as atelectasis by promoting lung expansion. Encouraging energy conservation with complete bed rest (Choice B) is not ideal as it can lead to complications like muscle weakness and decreased lung expansion. Providing humidified oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice C) is important in pneumonia treatment but does not directly prevent complications associated with pneumonia itself. Restricting oral (PO) and intravenous fluids (Choice D) is not recommended as adequate hydration is crucial for pneumonia patients to maintain respiratory function and overall health.
3. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate if shortness of breath occurs
- B. Use oxygen only when experiencing shortness of breath
- C. Do not adjust the oxygen flow rate without consulting a healthcare provider
- D. Use a humidifier with the oxygen to prevent dry mucous membranes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most important instruction the nurse should provide to a client with COPD prescribed oxygen therapy is not to adjust the oxygen flow rate without consulting a healthcare provider. This is crucial because too much oxygen can suppress the client's respiratory drive, leading to further complications. Choice A is incorrect because increasing the oxygen flow rate without medical advice can be harmful. Choice B is incorrect as oxygen therapy should be used as prescribed, not just when symptoms occur. Choice D is incorrect as the priority is to ensure the correct oxygen flow rate rather than using a humidifier.
4. A client begins taking an antidepressant drug during the second day of hospitalization. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care while the client is taking the antidepressant?
- A. Appetite
- B. Mood
- C. Withdrawal
- D. Energy level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring the client's mood is essential when starting an antidepressant to assess for any changes or adverse effects related to the medication. Changes in mood can indicate the effectiveness of the antidepressant or potential side effects. Assessing appetite (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as monitoring mood in this context. Withdrawal symptoms (Choice C) are more relevant when discontinuing antidepressants rather than starting them. Energy level (Choice D) can be influenced by various factors and may not directly reflect the client's response to the antidepressant.
5. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Thiazide diuretics commonly cause potassium loss, which can lead to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is essential when a client is taking thiazide diuretics to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is an elevated level of potassium, which is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypernatremia (choice B) is an elevated level of sodium, and hypoglycemia (choice D) is low blood sugar, neither of which are directly linked to thiazide diuretic use.
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