Nursing Elites

1. A client reports feeling dizzy and light-headed when standing up. What is the nurse's best initial action?

• A. Instruct the client to sit or lie down
• B. Monitor blood pressure and pulse
• C. Administer an anti-dizziness medication
• D. Increase fluid intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor blood pressure and pulse. When a client reports feeling dizzy and light-headed when standing up, the nurse's best initial action should be to monitor the client's blood pressure and pulse. These symptoms are indicative of orthostatic hypotension, which can be confirmed by changes in blood pressure and pulse when moving from lying to standing positions. Instructing the client to sit or lie down may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying cause. Administering an anti-dizziness medication should not be the initial action without assessing vital signs first. Increasing fluid intake is important for overall health but is not the priority in this situation where vital sign monitoring is needed to assess for orthostatic hypotension.

2. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?

• A. Possible exposure to an environmental staphylococcus infection can infect the newborn's eyes and cause visual deficits
• B. The newborn is at risk for blindness from a corneal syphilitic infection acquired from a mother's infected vagina
• C. Treatment prevents tear duct obstruction with harmful exudate from a vaginal birth that can lead to dry eyes in the newborn
• D. State law mandates all newborns receive prophylactic treatment to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.

3. When providing care for a client receiving palliative care for terminal cancer, what should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Pain management
• B. Arranging family visits
• C. Discussing advance directives
• D. Providing nutritional support

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a client receiving palliative care for terminal cancer, the nurse should prioritize pain management. Effective pain management is crucial in enhancing the quality of life for terminally ill patients. While arranging family visits and discussing advance directives are important aspects of care, pain management takes precedence in providing comfort and alleviating suffering. Nutritional support is essential but may be of lesser priority compared to pain management in this context.

4. A client admitted to the hospital with advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism is exhibiting ascites and edema. Which pathophysiological mechanisms should the nurse identify as responsible for the third spacing symptoms? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Portal hypertension.
• B. Sodium and water retention.
• C. Decreased serum albumin.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism, ascites and edema occur due to multiple pathophysiological mechanisms. Portal hypertension contributes to the development of ascites by increasing pressure in the portal venous system. Sodium and water retention exacerbate fluid accumulation in the third space. Decreased serum albumin levels lead to reduced oncotic pressure, contributing to the movement of fluid into the interstitial spaces. Abnormal protein metabolism further disrupts fluid balance. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are correct in this scenario, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C alone do not fully explain the comprehensive pathophysiological mechanisms involved in the development of ascites and edema in this clinical context.

5. The nurse is planning to ambulate a client who has been on bed rest for 24 hours following a Colon Resection. To ambulate this client safely, which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place non-skid shoes on the client
• B. Show the client how to use the call light
• C. Use a gait belt to support the client
• D. Assist the client to a bedside sitting position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To ambulate a client safely after a period of bed rest, the nurse should first assist the client to a bedside sitting position. This initial step ensures the client is stable before attempting to stand and walk, reducing the risk of falls and allowing for a gradual adjustment to activity post-bed rest. Placing non-skid shoes, showing how to use the call light, or using a gait belt are important but should come after ensuring the client is safely seated and stable.

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