HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Exam 1
1. The healthcare provider reviews the laboratory results of a client whose serum pH is 7.38. What does this value imply about the client's homeostasis?
- A. Alkalosis
- B. Acidosis
- C. Normal serum pH
- D. Incompatible with life
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A pH of 7.38 falls within the normal range (7.35-7.45), indicating that the client’s acid-base balance is adequately maintained. Choices A and B are incorrect as alkalosis and acidosis refer to abnormal pH levels. Choice D is incorrect as a pH of 7.38 within the normal range is compatible with life.
2. A nurse is assessing a child with suspected pertussis. What clinical manifestation is the nurse likely to observe?
- A. Dry, hacking cough
- B. Inspiratory stridor
- C. Nasal congestion
- D. Severe coughing spells
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Severe coughing spells. Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, typically presents with severe coughing spells that can be followed by a characteristic 'whoop' sound. These coughing fits can be intense and prolonged, often causing the child to gasp for air between coughs. Option A, dry hacking cough, is a common symptom of other respiratory conditions like bronchitis. Option B, inspiratory stridor, is more commonly associated with conditions like croup. Option C, nasal congestion, is not a typical symptom of pertussis.
3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via a nasal cannula. Which assessment finding indicates a potential complication of oxygen therapy?
- A. Increased respiratory rate
- B. Decreased level of consciousness
- C. Improved oxygen saturation
- D. Complaints of dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In clients with COPD, oxygen therapy can lead to a decrease in the respiratory drive caused by the removal of the hypoxic drive. This can result in carbon dioxide retention, leading to a decreased level of consciousness. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because an increased respiratory rate is typically a sign of hypoxia, improved oxygen saturation is a positive response to oxygen therapy, and complaints of dry mouth are not directly related to oxygen therapy complications in this scenario.
4. What is the primary nursing intervention that the practical nurse should perform before administering ampicillin to a client diagnosed with a urinary tract infection?
- A. Obtain a clean-catch urine specimen.
- B. Assess the urine pH for acidity.
- C. Insert an indwelling catheter.
- D. Assess for complaints of dysuria.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a clean-catch urine specimen. Before administering ampicillin to a client with a urinary tract infection, it is crucial to collect a urine specimen to determine the causative organism and evaluate the effectiveness of pharmacological therapy. Assessing the urine pH for acidity (choice B) is not the primary intervention needed before administering ampicillin. Inserting an indwelling catheter (choice C) is invasive and not necessary unless indicated for specific reasons. Assessing for complaints of dysuria (choice D) is important but does not take precedence over obtaining a urine specimen for proper diagnosis and treatment.
5. A pregnant client mentions in her history that she changes the cat's litter box daily. Which test should the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider to prescribe?
- A. Biophysical profile
- B. Fern test
- C. Amniocentesis
- D. TORCH screening
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, TORCH screening. TORCH screening is done to detect infections such as toxoplasmosis, which can be contracted from handling cat litter and is harmful during pregnancy. Biophysical profile (choice A) is a prenatal ultrasound evaluation. Fern test (choice B) is used to assess for amniotic fluid leakage. Amniocentesis (choice C) involves taking a sample of amniotic fluid to test for genetic abnormalities and certain infections, not specifically related to toxoplasmosis from cat litter.