the nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of heparin what is the correct angle of insertion
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 1 Final Exam

1. The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of heparin. What is the correct angle of insertion?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct angle of insertion for a subcutaneous injection, such as heparin, is 45 degrees. This angle is appropriate as it helps to ensure proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Option A (15 degrees) is too shallow for a subcutaneous injection and may result in the medication being deposited into the muscle. Option B (30 degrees) is also too shallow for subcutaneous injections. Option D (90 degrees) is used for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous injections.

2. A client is receiving a blood transfusion and reports chills and back pain. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client receiving a blood transfusion reports chills and back pain, it indicates a possible transfusion reaction. The nurse's priority action is to stop the transfusion immediately. Continuing the transfusion at a slower rate (Choice A) can exacerbate the reaction. Administering an antipyretic (Choice B) may help with fever but does not address the underlying issue of a transfusion reaction. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important but should not delay the immediate action of stopping the transfusion to ensure the client's safety.

3. A client complains of pain at the IV site. Upon assessment, the nurse notes the site is warm, red, and swollen. What is the most likely cause of these findings?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Phlebitis. Phlebitis is the inflammation of a vein, often caused by irritation from an IV catheter, resulting in warmth, redness, and swelling at the site. Infiltration (choice B) refers to the leaking of IV fluids into the surrounding tissues, causing swelling and pallor, not redness and warmth like in the scenario described. An allergic reaction (choice C) would present with itching, hives, or anaphylaxis, rather than localized warmth, redness, and swelling. Fluid overload (choice D) typically manifests as generalized edema, shortness of breath, and weight gain, not localized symptoms at the IV site.

4. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being discharged with a prescription for epoetin alfa (Epogen). What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor your blood pressure regularly.' Epoetin alfa (Epogen) can lead to hypertension as a side effect, so it is essential for clients with CKD to monitor their blood pressure regularly. Choice A is incorrect because epoetin alfa does not need to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because the client should not expect immediate improvement upon starting the medication. Choice D is incorrect because while monitoring potassium intake is important in CKD, the question specifically pertains to epoetin alfa and its side effects, not potassium intake.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted to the hospital for a suspected myocardial infarction. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing action in this scenario is to perform an ECG. An ECG is crucial in confirming myocardial infarction promptly and guiding immediate treatment decisions. Administering oxygen as prescribed is important but not the priority over confirming the diagnosis. Obtaining a detailed health history is relevant but does not take precedence over immediate diagnostic confirmation. While monitoring vital signs regularly is essential, performing an ECG is the priority action in this scenario to guide timely management.

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