HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. The client has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place for decompression. What action should the LPN/LVN take to maintain patency of the NG tube?
- A. Irrigate the tube with normal saline every shift.
- B. Check the tube placement by auscultation.
- C. Secure the tube to the client's gown.
- D. Flush the tube with 5 mL of sterile water before and after medication administration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To maintain patency of the NG tube, it is essential to irrigate the tube with normal saline every shift. This action helps prevent clogging and ensures that the tube remains clear for effective decompression. Checking tube placement by auscultation (Choice B) is important for verifying correct placement but does not directly impact patency. Securing the tube to the client's gown (Choice C) is crucial for safety and comfort but is not directly related to maintaining patency. Flushing the tube with sterile water before and after medication administration (Choice D) is not the recommended method for maintaining patency of an NG tube, as normal saline is the appropriate solution for this purpose.
2. A client is being taught how to care for their tracheostomy at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Use tracheostomy covers when outdoors.
- B. Clean the tracheostomy site with hydrogen peroxide daily.
- C. Change the tracheostomy tube weekly.
- D. Apply ointment around the tracheostomy site.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction is to use tracheostomy covers when outdoors. Tracheostomy covers serve to protect the airway from environmental contaminants, reducing the risk of infection. Choice B is incorrect because hydrogen peroxide can be irritating to the skin and is not recommended for cleaning the tracheostomy site. Choice C is incorrect as tracheostomy tubes should not be routinely changed weekly unless there is a specific medical indication. Changing it without a need can introduce infection or damage the stoma. Choice D is incorrect as applying ointment around the tracheostomy site can lead to occlusion of the stoma and interfere with breathing.
3. A healthcare provider is providing teaching to a client who has a new medication prescription. Which of the following manifestations of a mild allergic reaction should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Ptosis
- B. Hematuria
- C. Urticaria
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Urticaria, also known as hives, is a common manifestation of a mild allergic reaction. Ptosis refers to drooping of the eyelid and is not typically associated with allergic reactions. Hematuria indicates blood in the urine and is not a typical allergic reaction symptom. Nausea can occur with various conditions, but it is not a specific manifestation of a mild allergic reaction.
4. The healthcare provider is assessing a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the provider review first?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
- C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
- D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the potential for hepatotoxicity. Therefore, the healthcare provider should first review liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) to assess liver function. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts are important in assessing for anemia or infection but are not specific to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels primarily assess kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.
5. A healthcare professional is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is postoperative and has fluid volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?
- A. Decrease in heart rate
- B. Fluid volume deficit causes tachycardia
- C. Decrease in blood pressure
- D. Increase in respiratory rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate that the fluid volume deficit is improving. In cases of fluid volume deficit, the body compensates by increasing the heart rate to maintain adequate perfusion. Therefore, a decrease in heart rate after fluid resuscitation suggests that the body's perfusion status is improving. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fluid volume deficit typically causes tachycardia, not a decrease in heart rate, and would not result in a decrease in blood pressure or an increase in respiratory rate as primary signs of improvement.
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