HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer potassium chloride intravenously to a client with hypokalemia. Which action is most important?
- A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate
- B. Check the client's urine output
- C. Administer the potassium chloride as a rapid IV push
- D. Dilute the potassium chloride in an appropriate IV solution
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to dilute the potassium chloride in an appropriate IV solution. Potassium chloride should never be administered as a rapid IV push as it can lead to severe complications, including cardiac arrhythmias. Diluting the medication and administering it slowly helps reduce the risk of adverse effects. Monitoring the client's respiratory rate (Choice A) and checking urine output (Choice B) are important aspects of patient assessment but not the most crucial when administering potassium chloride. Administering potassium chloride as a rapid IV push (Choice C) is dangerous and can result in serious harm to the client.
2. To evaluate a client's understanding of self-administering insulin within the psychomotor domain of learning, what action should the instructor take?
- A. Have the client demonstrate the procedure.
- B. Explain the procedure again.
- C. Ask the client to describe the procedure.
- D. Observe the client watching a video on the procedure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Having the client demonstrate the procedure is the most appropriate action to evaluate understanding within the psychomotor domain of learning. This allows the instructor to assess the client's ability to perform the skill, which is a key aspect of this domain. Choice B, explaining the procedure again, focuses on the cognitive domain rather than the psychomotor domain. Choice C, asking the client to describe the procedure, pertains more to the verbal or cognitive domain of learning. Choice D, observing the client watching a video on the procedure, does not directly assess the client's ability to perform the skill in the psychomotor domain.
3. Prior to a client being transported for a chest x-ray, what should a healthcare professional do first?
- A. Identify the client using two identifiers
- B. Confirm the client's fasting status
- C. Check the client's allergies to contrast media
- D. Explain the procedure to the client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Identifying the client using two identifiers is the crucial first step to ensure correct patient identification before any procedure. This process helps prevent errors and ensures that the right procedure is performed on the right patient. Confirming the client's identity is the top priority before addressing other aspects such as fasting status, allergies, or explaining the procedure. While confirming fasting status and checking for allergies are important, they are secondary to confirming the client's identity. Explaining the procedure to the client is also essential but should occur after ensuring proper identification.
4. Which serum blood finding in diabetic ketoacidosis alerts the nurse that immediate action is required?
- A. pH below 7.3
- B. Potassium of 5.0
- C. HCT of 60
- D. PaO2 of 79%
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A hematocrit (HCT) of 60 indicates severe dehydration, a critical condition in diabetic ketoacidosis that requires immediate intervention. Severe dehydration can lead to hypovolemic shock and organ failure. While a low pH below 7.3 is indicative of acidosis, it may not require immediate action compared to severe dehydration. A potassium level of 5.0 is within the normal range and not a critical finding in this scenario. PaO2 of 79% reflects oxygenation status, which is important but not the most critical finding requiring immediate action in diabetic ketoacidosis.
5. A PN is assigned to care for a newborn with a neural tube defect. Which dressing, if applied by the PN, would need no further intervention by the charge nurse?
- A. Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment
- B. Moist sterile non-adherent dressing
- C. Dry sterile dressing that is occlusive
- D. Sterile occlusive pressure dressing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moist sterile non-adherent dressing. A moist sterile non-adherent dressing is suitable for covering a neural tube defect and would not require further intervention. This type of dressing helps prevent the dressing from sticking to the wound, minimizing trauma during dressing changes. Choice A, Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment, is not ideal for a neural tube defect as the ointment may not be necessary and can complicate wound care. Choice C, dry sterile dressing that is occlusive, is not recommended for a neural tube defect as it may not provide the necessary environment for proper wound healing. Choice D, sterile occlusive pressure dressing, is excessive for a neural tube defect and may cause unnecessary pressure on the wound site.
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