Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer potassium chloride intravenously to a client with hypokalemia. Which action is most important?

• A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate
• B. Check the client's urine output
• C. Administer the potassium chloride as a rapid IV push
• D. Dilute the potassium chloride in an appropriate IV solution

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to dilute the potassium chloride in an appropriate IV solution. Potassium chloride should never be administered as a rapid IV push as it can lead to severe complications, including cardiac arrhythmias. Diluting the medication and administering it slowly helps reduce the risk of adverse effects. Monitoring the client's respiratory rate (Choice A) and checking urine output (Choice B) are important aspects of patient assessment but not the most crucial when administering potassium chloride. Administering potassium chloride as a rapid IV push (Choice C) is dangerous and can result in serious harm to the client.

2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of septicemia. Which assessment finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Increased urine output
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Increased heart rate
• D. Increased respiratory rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with septicemia, decreased blood pressure is a critical finding that suggests potential septic shock, a life-threatening condition. Septic shock requires immediate medical intervention to prevent further deterioration and organ dysfunction. Increased urine output (Choice A) may indicate adequate fluid resuscitation, which is a positive response. Increased heart rate (Choice C) and increased respiratory rate (Choice D) are common physiological responses to sepsis and do not necessarily indicate immediate life-threatening complications like decreased blood pressure does in septic shock.

3. A client is expressing anger about his diagnosis of colorectal cancer. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Reassure the client that this is an expected response to grief.
• B. Ignore the client’s anger and continue with the plan of care.
• C. Tell the client that anger is not going to help his situation.
• D. Encourage the client to express his anger.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is expressing anger about a diagnosis, it is essential for the nurse to validate the client's feelings. Choice A is correct because reassuring the client that anger is an expected response to grief acknowledges the client's emotions and encourages expression, fostering a therapeutic relationship. This validation helps the client feel understood and supported during a challenging time. Choice B is incorrect as ignoring the client's anger can lead to feelings of neglect and hinder effective communication, which is crucial for providing holistic care. Choice C is inappropriate because telling the client that anger is not helpful dismisses the client's emotions and can further escalate the situation, potentially damaging the nurse-client relationship. Choice D is not the best option as it does not involve acknowledging the client's feelings or providing support and validation, which are vital in promoting emotional well-being and trust between the client and the nurse.

4. A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available at the time of discharge, which dosing schedule should the LPN advise the client to follow?

• A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
• B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
• C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
• D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct dosing schedule for the client to follow is to take the medication at 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. This timing spaces the doses evenly over the waking hours, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication. Choice A (9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.) does not evenly distribute the doses throughout the day. Choices C (Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner) and D (With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner) do not provide the required frequency of dosing needed for optimal therapeutic effect.

5. A client with a history of chronic renal failure is admitted with generalized edema. Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to assess the client's fluid balance?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Serum albumin
• D. Serum sodium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.

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