which patient will cause the nurse to select a nursing diagnosis of impaired physical mobility for a care plan
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank

1. Which patient will lead the nurse to select a nursing diagnosis of Impaired physical mobility for a care plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nursing diagnosis of Impaired physical mobility is appropriate for a patient who has some limitations in mobility but is not completely immobile. Choice A is incorrect as a patient who is completely immobile would not have impaired physical mobility but rather no physical mobility at all. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not directly relate to the defining characteristics of Impaired physical mobility, which involve limitations in movement and physical activity.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse how to perform a capillary blood glucose test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction is to puncture the site after cleansing and before the antiseptic dries. This sequence helps ensure proper blood collection without introducing contaminants. Choice A is incorrect because wearing sterile gloves is not necessary for capillary blood glucose testing. Choice C is incorrect as wiping the puncture site can introduce contaminants and alter the blood sample. Choice D is incorrect as holding the finger below the heart level is not required for a capillary blood glucose test.

3. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should see the client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty first. New onset of dyspnea, especially after surgery, can indicate a serious complication such as a pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis. It is essential to assess this client promptly to rule out potentially life-threatening conditions. Acute abdominal pain, a UTI with low-grade fever, and pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 96% are important issues but do not indicate the urgency and potential severity of a post-operative complication like pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis.

4. While auscultating the anterior chest of a newly admitted patient, what would the nurse expect to hear?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When auscultating the chest, normal breathing sounds are expected in a healthy individual. Wheezing is a high-pitched whistling sound that indicates narrowed airways and is often heard in conditions like asthma. Crackles are fine, crackling sounds heard on inspiration or expiration and are associated with conditions like pneumonia or heart failure. Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh sound heard during inspiration due to upper airway obstruction. Therefore, choices B, C, and D indicate abnormal respiratory findings, while choice A signifies normal breathing sounds.

5. A healthcare professional reviewing a client’s health record notes a new prescription for lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily. The healthcare professional should identify this as which of the following types of prescription?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prescription for once-daily medication is considered routine as it is meant for regular, daily administration to maintain therapeutic levels in the body. Single prescriptions are for one-time use only. Stat prescriptions are for immediate administration in urgent situations, while now prescriptions are also for immediate use but may have varying levels of urgency depending on the patient's condition. In this case, since the prescription is for once daily use, it falls under the category of routine prescription.

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