Nursing Elites

1. The mother of a toddler calls the nurse for help as the baby is choking on his food. The nurse determines that the Heimlich maneuver is necessary based on which finding?

• A. Inability of the toddler to cry or speak
• B. Coughing forcefully
• C. Gagging but able to breathe
• D. Wheezing during respiration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is option A: Inability of the toddler to cry or speak. In cases of choking, the inability to cry or speak indicates a severe airway obstruction where the Heimlich maneuver is necessary to clear the obstruction and establish a patent airway. Option B, coughing forcefully, represents a partial obstruction where the child can still move air, making the Heimlich maneuver not immediately necessary. Option C, gagging but able to breathe, suggests a partial obstruction where air is moving, and the child can still breathe, not requiring immediate intervention like the Heimlich maneuver. Option D, wheezing during respiration, is more indicative of a lower airway issue such as asthma rather than an upper airway obstruction that necessitates the Heimlich maneuver.

2. A client has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?

• A. Ensure the catheter tubing is free of kinks.
• B. Clean the perineal area with antiseptic solution daily.
• C. Irrigate the catheter with normal saline every shift.
• D. Secure the catheter to the client's leg.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cleaning the perineal area with antiseptic solution daily is essential to prevent infection when caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. This practice helps reduce the risk of introducing pathogens into the urinary tract. Ensuring the catheter tubing is free of kinks (Choice A) is important for maintaining proper urine flow but is not directly related to preventing infection. Irrigating the catheter with normal saline every shift (Choice C) is not a routine practice and can increase the risk of introducing pathogens. Securing the catheter to the client's leg (Choice D) is important for stability but does not directly prevent infection.

3. A healthcare professional is planning to document care provided for a client. Which of the following abbreviations should the professional use?

• A. PC for after meals
• B. QD for every day
• C. BID for twice a day
• D. PRN for as needed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PC for after meals. PC stands for 'post cibum,' which is the appropriate abbreviation for 'after meals' in medical documentation. Choices B, QD, and C, BID, represent 'every day' and 'twice a day,' respectively, which are not specific to meal times. Choice D, PRN, signifies 'as needed,' which is also not related to meal timings. Therefore, for documenting care provided after meals, the most suitable abbreviation is PC.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Mild nausea
• B. Hair loss
• C. Increased fatigue
• D. Fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C) in a client undergoing chemotherapy is a significant finding that may indicate an underlying infection, which can be life-threatening due to the client's compromised immune system. Prompt reporting and intervention are crucial to prevent complications. Mild nausea, hair loss, and increased fatigue are common side effects of chemotherapy and are expected findings that do not typically require immediate reporting unless they are severe or significantly impacting the client's well-being. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should prioritize reporting the fever over the other options.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding should the healthcare provider be notified of immediately?

• A. Heart rate of 52 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• C. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL
• D. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is a critical finding in a client taking digoxin, as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, and a heart rate of 52 bpm warrants immediate attention to prevent adverse outcomes. Monitoring and reporting changes in heart rate are crucial in clients on digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. The other vital signs and laboratory values provided are within normal ranges or not directly associated with digoxin toxicity in this scenario, making them lower priority for immediate reporting.

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