Nursing Elites

1. A client in the emergency department is being cared for by a nurse and has abdominal trauma. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as an indication of hypovolemic shock?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Warm, dry skin
• D. Decreased respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tachycardia is a hallmark sign of hypovolemic shock. When a client experiences significant blood loss, the body compensates by increasing the heart rate to maintain adequate perfusion to vital organs. Elevated blood pressure is not typically seen in hypovolemic shock; instead, hypotension is a more common finding. Warm, dry skin is characteristic of neurogenic shock, not hypovolemic shock. Decreased respiratory rate is not a typical manifestation of hypovolemic shock, as the body usually tries to increase respiratory effort to improve oxygenation in response to hypovolemia.

2. The nurse is caring for a patient who needs to be placed in the prone position. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Place a pillow under the patient's lower legs.
• B. Turn the head toward one side with a large, soft pillow.
• C. Position legs flat against the bed.
• D. Raise the head of the bed to 45 degrees.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing a pillow under the patient's lower legs when in the prone position is essential to allow dorsiflexion of the ankles and some knee flexion, which promote relaxation. This position also helps in maintaining proper alignment of the spine. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because turning the head, positioning legs flat against the bed, and raising the head of the bed to 45 degrees are not appropriate actions for a patient in the prone position. Turning the head to one side with a large, soft pillow is commonly done for patients in the supine position to maintain proper alignment and airway patency. Positioning legs flat against the bed is more suitable for a patient in a supine or semi-fowler's position. Raising the head of the bed to 45 degrees is typically done for patients who need semi-fowler's positioning for respiratory support or to prevent aspiration.

3. During a Weber test, what is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Deliver a series of high-pitched sounds at random intervals.
• B. Place an activated tuning fork in the middle of the client's forehead.
• C. Hold an activated tuning fork against the client's mastoid process.
• D. Whisper a series of words softly into one ear.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a Weber test, the nurse should place an activated tuning fork in the middle of the client's forehead. This test is used to assess for lateralization of sound in a client with possible hearing issues. Choice A is incorrect because the Weber test does not involve delivering high-pitched sounds at random intervals. Choice C is incorrect as it describes the Rinne test, not the Weber test. Choice D is incorrect as whispering words into one ear is not part of the Weber test procedure.

4. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being discharged with home oxygen therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will keep my oxygen tank upright at all times.
• B. I will not use petroleum jelly to keep my nose from drying out.
• C. I will not smoke or allow others to smoke around me.
• D. I will call my doctor if I have difficulty breathing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Petroleum jelly is flammable and should not be used with oxygen therapy as it can increase the risk of fire. Using petroleum jelly near oxygen can lead to a fire hazard. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements that indicate proper understanding of oxygen therapy safety measures. Choice A emphasizes the importance of keeping the oxygen tank upright to prevent leaks, choice C highlights the necessity of avoiding smoking to prevent exacerbation of COPD, and choice D encourages seeking medical help promptly in case of breathing difficulties.

5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a prescription for a stool specimen to be sent to the laboratory to be tested for ova and parasites. Which of the following instructions regarding specimen collection should the healthcare professional provide to the assistive personnel?

• A. Collect at least 2 inches of formed stool.
• B. Wear sterile gloves while obtaining the specimen.
• C. Use a culturette for specimen collection.
• D. Record the date and time the stool was collected.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To ensure accurate testing, a minimum amount of stool is required for specimen collection, typically at least 2 inches of formed stool. This amount provides an adequate sample for testing. Wearing sterile gloves is important for infection control but is not specifically required for stool specimen collection. Using a culturette is not typically necessary for collecting stool specimens. Recording the date and time the stool was collected is essential to ensure timely processing but does not directly impact the collection of the specimen itself.

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