HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. A client in the emergency department is being cared for by a nurse and has abdominal trauma. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as an indication of hypovolemic shock?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Elevated blood pressure
- C. Warm, dry skin
- D. Decreased respiratory rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Tachycardia is a hallmark sign of hypovolemic shock. When a client experiences significant blood loss, the body compensates by increasing the heart rate to maintain adequate perfusion to vital organs. Elevated blood pressure is not typically seen in hypovolemic shock; instead, hypotension is a more common finding. Warm, dry skin is characteristic of neurogenic shock, not hypovolemic shock. Decreased respiratory rate is not a typical manifestation of hypovolemic shock, as the body usually tries to increase respiratory effort to improve oxygenation in response to hypovolemia.
2. A client with a terminal illness is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following findings indicates that the client's death is imminent?
- A. Cold extremities
- B. Increased appetite
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Increased level of consciousness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cold extremities are a common sign observed in clients nearing death. This occurs due to decreased blood circulation as the body's systems begin to shut down. Cold extremities indicate poor perfusion and reduced function of vital organs. Increased appetite (Choice B) is not typically seen in clients approaching death; instead, a decreased appetite is more common. Elevated blood pressure (Choice C) is not a typical finding in clients nearing the end of life, as blood pressure tends to decrease. An increased level of consciousness (Choice D) is also not indicative of imminent death, as clients near death often experience decreased level of consciousness or become unresponsive.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing information for a change-of-shift report. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional include in the report?
- A. Input and output measurements for the shift
- B. Blood pressure readings from the previous day
- C. Bone scan scheduled for today
- D. Medication regimen from the medication administration record
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a change-of-shift report, healthcare professionals should include the medication regimen from the medication administration record. This information ensures continuity of care and helps incoming staff understand the patient's medication needs and schedule. While input and output measurements, blood pressure readings, and scheduled procedures like a bone scan are important aspects of patient care, they may not be immediately relevant for the incoming shift. Focusing on medication details helps prevent errors and ensures the patient receives the correct medications at the right times.
4. A nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse providing care for a client who reports pain. The nurse checked the client’s MAR and noted the last dose of pain medication was administered 6 hours ago. The prescription specifies administration every 4 hours PRN for pain. The nurse administered the medication and followed up with the client 40 minutes later, who reported improvement. What did the newly licensed nurse overlook in the nursing process?
- A. Assessment
- B. Planning
- C. Intervention
- D. Evaluation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Assessment.' In the nursing process, assessment is the first step, crucial before any intervention. Assessment involves gathering data about the client's condition to establish a baseline for evaluating responses to interventions. In this scenario, the newly licensed nurse missed assessing the client's pain intensity, location, quality, and other relevant factors before administering the pain medication. While the follow-up evaluation with the client is commendable, it cannot replace the initial assessment. Planning involves setting goals and outcomes, intervention is the action taken to achieve these goals, and evaluation assesses the client's response to the intervention.
5. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?
- A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
- B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
- C. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
- D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, an elevated serum potassium level (hyperkalemia) is the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias due to its effect on the electrical conduction system of the heart. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent serious complications. While elevated serum creatinine (Choice A) and Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) levels (Choice B) indicate impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses an immediate risk of cardiac complications. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are typically lower in chronic kidney disease due to decreased erythropoietin production, but they do not present an immediate life-threatening risk like hyperkalemia.
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