Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is preparing to provide hygiene care. Which principle should the provider consider when planning hygiene care?

• A. Hygiene care is not performed in the same way by all individuals.
• B. No two individuals perform hygiene in the same manner.
• C. Standardizing a patient's hygienic practices is crucial.
• D. Understanding patient needs is not essential during hygiene care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'No two individuals perform hygiene in the same manner.' It is crucial to individualize a patient's care based on understanding the patient's unique hygiene practices and preferences. Choice A is incorrect because hygiene care should be tailored to the individual's needs and preferences, not seen as routine and expected for everyone. Choice C is incorrect as standardizing a patient's hygienic practices may not address their specific needs. Choice D is incorrect because understanding patient needs is essential during hygiene care to provide personalized and effective care.

2. A nurse manager is overseeing the care on a unit. Which of the following should the nurse manager identify as a violation of HIPAA guidelines?

• A. A nurse who is caring for a client reviews the client's medical chart with the nursing student who is working with the nurse.
• B. A nurse asks a nurse from another unit to assist with her documentation.
• C. A nurse who is caring for a client returns a call to the client's durable power of attorney for health care designee to discuss the client's care.
• D. A nurse discusses a client's status with the physical therapist who is caring for the client at the bedside.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. HIPAA guidelines specify that only healthcare professionals directly involved in a patient's care should access their medical information. Asking a nurse from another unit to assist with documentation involves sharing patient information with someone not directly caring for the patient, which violates HIPAA guidelines. Choices A, C, and D involve individuals directly involved in the client's care, making them appropriate actions in line with HIPAA regulations. Choice A involves educating a nursing student under the supervision of the nurse, which is permissible. Choice C involves communicating with the client's designated healthcare decision-maker, which is also allowed under HIPAA. Choice D involves discussing the client's status with another healthcare professional directly involved in the client's care, which is within HIPAA guidelines.

3. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

4. In a disaster at a child day care center, which child would the triage nurse prioritize for treatment last?

• A. An infant with intermittent bulging anterior fontanel between crying episodes
• B. A toddler with severe deep abrasions covering 98% of the body
• C. A preschooler with a lower leg fracture and an upper leg fracture on the other leg
• D. A school-age child with singed eyebrows and hair on the arms

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The toddler with severe deep abrasions covering 98% of the body would be prioritized for treatment last because these extensive injuries may require immediate attention and resources. The other choices present serious conditions but are not as severe or life-threatening as the toddler's injuries. The infant with an intermittent bulging anterior fontanel may have signs of increased intracranial pressure, requiring prompt evaluation. The preschooler's fractures, though serious, can be managed without immediate critical intervention. The school-age child with singed eyebrows and hair may have suffered burns but does not exhibit injuries as severe as the toddler's deep abrasions.

5. In an emergency situation, the charge nurse on the night shift at an urgent care center has to deal with admitting clients of higher acuity than usual due to a large fire in the area. Which style of leadership and decision-making would be best in this circumstance?

• A. Assume a decision-making role
• B. Seek input from staff
• C. Use a non-directive approach
• D. Shared decision-making with others

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an emergency situation such as dealing with patients of higher acuity due to a large fire, it is crucial for the charge nurse to assume a decision-making role. This style of leadership allows for quick and efficient decision-making to manage the increased acuity of patients effectively. Seeking input from staff (Choice B) may delay critical decisions needed in emergencies. Using a non-directive approach (Choice C) or shared decision-making with others (Choice D) may not be suitable in urgent situations where immediate actions are required to address the high acuity of patients.

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