Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is preparing to provide hygiene care. Which principle should the provider consider when planning hygiene care?

• A. Hygiene care is not performed in the same way by all individuals.
• B. No two individuals perform hygiene in the same manner.
• C. Standardizing a patient's hygienic practices is crucial.
• D. Understanding patient needs is not essential during hygiene care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'No two individuals perform hygiene in the same manner.' It is crucial to individualize a patient's care based on understanding the patient's unique hygiene practices and preferences. Choice A is incorrect because hygiene care should be tailored to the individual's needs and preferences, not seen as routine and expected for everyone. Choice C is incorrect as standardizing a patient's hygienic practices may not address their specific needs. Choice D is incorrect because understanding patient needs is essential during hygiene care to provide personalized and effective care.

2. An assistive personnel tells the nurse, 'I am unable to find a large blood pressure cuff for a client who is obese. Can I just use the regular cuff if I can get it to stay on?' The nurse replies that taking the blood pressure of a morbidly obese client with a regular blood pressure cuff will result in a reading that is:

• A. Low
• B. High
• C. Inaccurate
• D. Unaffected

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using a regular blood pressure cuff on a morbidly obese client will lead to a falsely high blood pressure reading. This occurs because the cuff is not appropriately sized for the client's arm circumference, resulting in increased pressure on the artery and an inaccurate high reading. Choice A is incorrect because the reading will be falsely high, not low. Choice C is incorrect as the reading will not be accurate with an incorrectly sized cuff. Choice D is incorrect because the reading will be affected by using the wrong cuff size.

3. The nurse is assessing a 17-year-old female client with bulimia. Which of the following laboratory reports would the nurse anticipate?

• A. Increased serum glucose
• B. Decreased albumin
• C. Decreased potassium
• D. Increased sodium retention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Decreased potassium.' Clients with bulimia often have decreased potassium levels due to frequent vomiting, which causes a loss of this essential electrolyte. This loss can lead to various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Option A, 'Increased serum glucose,' is not typically associated with bulimia. Option B, 'Decreased albumin,' is more related to malnutrition or liver disease rather than bulimia. Option D, 'Increased sodium retention,' is not a common finding in clients with bulimia; instead, they may experience electrolyte imbalances like hyponatremia due to purging behaviors.

4. At a mobile screening clinic, a nurse is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur due to aortic stenosis. To auscultate the aortic valve, where should the nurse place the stethoscope?

• A. Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
• B. Fifth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
• C. Third intercostal space to the left of the sternum
• D. Fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct location to auscultate the aortic valve is the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum. This area corresponds to the aortic valve area where aortic valve sounds are best heard. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect for auscultating the aortic valve. The fifth intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the mitral valve is best heard, the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the pulmonic valve is best heard, and the fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line is where the tricuspid valve is best auscultated.

5. During a neurological assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client's balance. Which of the following examinations should the provider use for this purpose?

• A. Romberg test
• B. Deep tendon reflexes
• C. Mini-Mental State Examination
• D. Babinski reflex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Romberg test is utilized to assess the client's balance and proprioception by having them stand with their eyes closed. This test helps evaluate sensory ataxia, a condition where an individual's balance is affected due to impaired sensory input. Deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are assessed by tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves; this is not directly related to balance assessment. The Mini-Mental State Examination (Choice C) is a cognitive screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment or dementia, not balance. The Babinski reflex (Choice D) is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot to assess neurologic function, particularly in the corticospinal tract, and is not specific to balance evaluation.

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