HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Test Bank 2023
1. The nurse is caring for a 75-year-old client in congestive heart failure. Which finding suggests that digitalis levels should be reviewed?
- A. Extreme fatigue
- B. Increased appetite
- C. Intense itching
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Extreme fatigue can be a sign of digitalis toxicity, especially in older adults, and warrants a review of the client's medication levels and potential adjustment. Increased appetite, intense itching, and constipation are not typically associated with digitalis toxicity and do not directly indicate a need for a review of digitalis levels.
2. The nurse manager has a nurse employee who is suspected of having a problem with chemical dependency. Which intervention would be the best approach by the nurse manager?
- A. Confront the nurse about the suspicions in a private meeting
- B. Schedule a staff conference, without the nurse present
- C. Consult the human resources department about the issue and needed actions
- D. Counsel the employee to resign to avoid investigation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Consulting with human resources is the best approach in this situation. It ensures that the issue is handled according to the organization's policies and that the nurse receives the appropriate support and intervention needed for chemical dependency. Confronting the nurse directly may lead to defensiveness and hinder a constructive resolution. Scheduling a staff conference without the nurse present can create unnecessary speculation and violate the employee's privacy. Counseling the employee to resign is not appropriate and does not address the underlying problem of chemical dependency.
3. At a nursing staff meeting, there is a discussion of perceived inequities in weekend staff assignments. As a follow-up, what should the nurse manager do initially?
- A. Allow the staff to change assignments
- B. Clarify reasons for current assignments
- C. Help staff see the complexity of issues
- D. Facilitate creative thinking on staffing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Facilitating creative thinking on staffing is the most appropriate initial action for the nurse manager in addressing perceived inequities in weekend staff assignments. By encouraging creative thinking, the manager promotes innovative solutions and fosters a sense of ownership and collaboration among staff members. Choices A, B, and C are not the best initial steps in this situation. Allowing staff to change assignments may not address the underlying issues, clarifying reasons for current assignments may not resolve perceived inequities, and helping staff see the complexity of issues may not lead to actionable solutions.
4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following laboratory values?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Serum potassium
- C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- D. White blood cell count (WBC)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. Monitoring the PT helps ensure that the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range to prevent complications such as recurrent DVT or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, blood urea nitrogen, and white blood cell count are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with a history of DVT.
5. The nurse administers a booster dose of DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis) vaccine to an infant. Which level of prevention is the nurse implementing?
- A. Primary prevention.
- B. Tertiary prevention.
- C. Secondary prevention.
- D. Primary nursing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Administering a booster dose of DTaP vaccine to an infant is an example of primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Tertiary prevention focuses on reducing the impact of a disease or injury that has already occurred, while secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice B, tertiary prevention, is incorrect as it deals with managing the consequences of a disease rather than preventing it. Choice C, secondary prevention, is also incorrect as it focuses on early detection and treatment rather than vaccination to prevent the disease. Choice D, primary nursing, is unrelated to the level of prevention being implemented in this scenario.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access